Incident Response Flashcards
Objective 4.8: Explain appropriate incident response activities
1️⃣ Which of the following is the FIRST phase of the NIST incident response process?
A) Containment
B) Preparation
C) Detection & Analysis
D) Eradication
Answer: B) Preparation
Explanation:
The Preparation phase involves getting ready for security incidents by implementing security policies, setting up monitoring tools, and conducting training.
Containment (A) happens after a threat is detected.
Detection & Analysis (C) is the second phase.
Eradication (D) occurs after containment and focuses on removing threats.
2️⃣ During which phase of the incident response process would an organization analyze logs to determine the extent of an attack?
A) Preparation
B) Detection
C) Analysis
D) Recovery
Answer: C) Analysis
Explanation:
Analysis involves thoroughly examining the incident, determining its scope, and identifying affected systems.
Preparation (A) occurs before an incident happens.
Detection (B) identifies that an incident has occurred but does not involve deep investigation.
Recovery (D) is about restoring systems after the incident.
3️⃣ A company experiences a cyberattack and immediately isolates the affected systems to prevent the attack from spreading. This action is part of which incident response phase?
A) Containment
B) Eradication
C) Recovery
D) Detection
Answer: A) Containment
Explanation:
Containment focuses on preventing the spread of an attack by isolating affected systems.
Eradication (B) follows containment and involves removing the threat.
Recovery (C) restores systems after the threat has been eliminated.
Detection (D) is the phase where the attack is first identified.
4️⃣ What is the primary goal of the eradication phase in incident response?
A) To isolate the affected systems
B) To remove all traces of the malicious activity
C) To restore operations to normal
D) To analyze the root cause of the attack
Answer: B) To remove all traces of the malicious activity
Explanation:
Eradication ensures that all remnants of the attack, such as malware or unauthorized accounts, are removed.
Containment (A) is done before eradication to prevent further damage.
Recovery (C) is focused on getting systems back to normal after eradication.
Root cause analysis (D) occurs in the post-incident activity phase.
5️⃣ A security team restores a compromised system from a backup and installs the latest security patches. Which phase does this action belong to?
A) Preparation
B) Detection
C) Recovery
D) Eradication
Answer: C) Recovery
Explanation:
Recovery focuses on restoring affected systems, applying security updates, and ensuring operations return to normal.
Preparation (A) happens before an incident to strengthen security.
Detection (B) is when the attack is identified.
Eradication (D) removes the threat but does not involve system restoration.
6️⃣ What is the primary purpose of the post-incident activity phase in the incident response process?
A) To strengthen system defenses and prevent future incidents
B) To detect new security threats
C) To remove malware from affected systems
D) To notify external stakeholders of the incident
Answer: A) To strengthen system defenses and prevent future incidents
Explanation:
The Post-Incident Activity phase involves reviewing the incident, conducting root cause analysis, and making improvements.
Detection (B) happens earlier in the response process.
Eradication (C) focuses on removing threats, not analyzing the incident.
Notification (D) is part of the analysis phase but not the primary goal of post-incident activity.
7️⃣ Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an incident response team?
A) To monitor network traffic and prevent all cyberattacks
B) To investigate and respond to security incidents when they occur
C) To configure security devices such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems
D) To report all security incidents to law enforcement agencies
Answer: B) To investigate and respond to security incidents when they occur
Explanation:
An incident response team is responsible for handling and mitigating cybersecurity incidents.
Monitoring network traffic (A) is done by security operations centers (SOC), not incident response teams specifically.
Configuring security devices (C) is part of IT security but not incident response.
Reporting to law enforcement (D) may be necessary for some incidents, but it’s not the primary function of an incident response team.
8️⃣ What is an “Out-of-Band (OOB) communication channel” in incident response?
A) A secondary channel used when the primary network is compromised
B) A primary network used for regular communications
C) A method to encrypt internal messages
D) A real-time messaging platform for IT teams
Answer: A) A secondary channel used when the primary network is compromised
Explanation:
Out-of-Band (OOB) communication is a separate and independent method used during incidents to maintain secure communication.
Primary networks (B) are often compromised during attacks, making OOB necessary.
Encryption (C) is important but not specific to OOB.
Messaging platforms (D) may be used but do not define OOB.
9️⃣ What is the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA) after an incident?
A) To determine how the incident happened and prevent it from happening again
B) To document all actions taken during the incident
C) To notify affected stakeholders about the breach
D) To test the incident response plan
Answer: A) To determine how the incident happened and prevent it from happening again
Explanation:
Root cause analysis (RCA) helps organizations understand how an attack occurred and what changes are needed to prevent recurrence.
Documentation (B) is important but separate from RCA.
Stakeholder notification (C) happens during analysis, not RCA.
Testing the incident response plan (D) is done in the preparation phase.
🔟 Which of the following is a key challenge when outsourcing an incident response team?
A) Lack of available security tools
B) External teams may not be familiar with the organization’s network
C) The inability to detect cyber threats
D) Legal restrictions on outsourcing IT security services
Answer: B) External teams may not be familiar with the organization’s network
Explanation:
Outsourced teams specialize in incident response but often require time to understand an organization’s infrastructure.
Security tools (A) are typically available, but knowledge of the network is critical.
Cyber threat detection (C) is part of incident response, but outsourced teams are trained for it.
Legal restrictions (D) exist in some cases but are not the primary challenge.
1️⃣ How does threat hunting differ from traditional security monitoring?
A) Threat hunting is proactive, while traditional monitoring is reactive
B) Threat hunting focuses only on known threats with existing signatures
C) Traditional security monitoring is more effective than threat hunting
D) Threat hunting only investigates alerts triggered by security tools
Answer: A) Threat hunting is proactive, while traditional monitoring is reactive
Explanation:
Threat hunting is a proactive process where security analysts actively look for threats before an attack is detected.
Traditional monitoring relies on predefined rules and alerts to detect attacks.
B (incorrect): Threat hunting is not limited to known threats—it looks for unknown and undetected threats.
C (incorrect): Both methods are important, but threat hunting finds threats that traditional monitoring may miss.
D (incorrect): Threat hunting does not wait for alerts; it proactively searches for hidden threats.
2️⃣ What is the first step in the threat hunting process?
A) Blocking all traffic from untrusted sources
B) Establishing a hypothesis through threat modeling
C) Analyzing SIEM logs for unusual activity
D) Creating new firewall rules
Answer: B) Establishing a hypothesis through threat modeling
Explanation:
Threat hunting begins with hypothesis development, where analysts use threat modeling to predict potential attack methods.
A (incorrect): Blocking traffic is a security measure but not the first step in threat hunting.
C (incorrect): Log analysis is important but comes after establishing a hypothesis.
D (incorrect): Firewall rules may be updated later based on findings from threat hunting.
3️⃣ What does TTP stand for in cybersecurity?
A) Threat, Target, and Persistence
B) Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
C) Tracking, Testing, and Prevention
D) Threats, Tools, and Protocols
Answer: B) Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
Explanation:
TTPs describe how attackers operate, including their methods, goals, and processes used to compromise systems.
A, C, and D (incorrect): These are not standard cybersecurity terms related to TTPs.
4️⃣ Why do threat hunters assume that existing security tools may have failed?
A) Attackers may use new techniques that lack detection signatures
B) Security tools never work correctly
C) Traditional monitoring always misses threats
D) Threat hunting only focuses on internal threats
Answer: A) Attackers may use new techniques that lack detection signatures
Explanation:
Threat actors evolve their methods to bypass signature-based security tools, requiring manual threat hunting to detect new tactics.
B and C (incorrect): Security tools work but may not catch all threats.
D (incorrect): Threat hunting investigates both internal and external threats.
5️⃣ Which of the following best describes a Command and Control (C2) server?
A) A legitimate system administrator tool
B) A remote server used by attackers to control infected machines
C) A firewall system designed to block malware
D) A secure method for internal company communications
Answer: B) A remote server used by attackers to control infected machines
Explanation:
C2 servers are used by cybercriminals to send commands to malware-infected devices, steal data, or spread attacks.
A, C, and D (incorrect): C2 servers are malicious, not legitimate security tools.
6️⃣ What are the key indicators of C2 traffic in a network?
A) Increased use of legitimate cloud services
B) Frequent outbound connections to known malicious domains
C) A high number of user login attempts
D) Decrease in system performance due to software updates
Answer: B) Frequent outbound connections to known malicious domains
Explanation:
C2 traffic is often detected through unusual outbound communication to suspicious IP addresses or domains controlled by attackers.
A (incorrect): Cloud service usage is not necessarily an indicator of C2 activity.
C (incorrect): High login attempts may indicate a brute-force attack, not C2.
D (incorrect): Slow performance due to updates is normal, not necessarily linked to C2.
7️⃣ How do security teams detect and block C2 communication?
A) Using firewall rules, SIEM alerts, and threat intelligence feeds
B) Disabling all internet traffic
C) Replacing old computers with new ones
D) Installing anti-virus software on mobile phones
Answer: A) Using firewall rules, SIEM alerts, and threat intelligence feeds
Explanation:
Security teams use network monitoring, intrusion detection, and intelligence feeds to detect and block C2 communications.
B (incorrect): Blocking all internet traffic is not a practical security measure.
C and D (incorrect): Upgrading devices and installing antivirus do not specifically detect and block C2 servers.
8️⃣ Why is threat intelligence important for threat hunting?
A) It helps analysts stay updated on new TTPs and vulnerabilities
B) It automatically blocks all cyber threats
C) It eliminates the need for security analysts
D) It is only used by law enforcement agencies
Answer: A) It helps analysts stay updated on new TTPs and vulnerabilities
Explanation:
Threat intelligence provides valuable insights about new threats that security teams can use to improve detection methods.
B (incorrect): Threat intelligence does not automatically block threats; it provides information.
C (incorrect): Human analysts are still necessary to interpret and act on threat intelligence.
D (incorrect): Threat intelligence is used by companies, governments, and cybersecurity teams, not just law enforcement.
9️⃣ What is the main benefit of threat hunting?
A) It detects threats that bypass existing defenses
B) It replaces traditional security monitoring
C) It eliminates the need for security analysts
D) It automatically blocks all attacks
Answer: A) It detects threats that bypass existing defenses
Explanation:
Threat hunting identifies hidden threats that existing monitoring tools may miss.
B (incorrect): Threat hunting complements, rather than replaces, traditional monitoring.
C (incorrect): Human analysts are essential for cybersecurity.
D (incorrect): Threat hunting does not automatically block threats; it identifies them for mitigation.
🔟 What is an example of a scenario where threat hunting is needed?
A) A new zero-day vulnerability has been reported, but security tools don’t yet have a detection rule
B) A firewall is blocking all incoming traffic
C) A software patch has been successfully deployed
D) A security analyst is setting up new user accounts
Answer: A) A new zero-day vulnerability has been reported, but security tools don’t yet have a detection rule
Explanation:
Threat hunters investigate new threats like zero-day exploits where existing security tools lack signatures or rules.
B, C, and D (incorrect): These scenarios do not specifically require threat hunting.
1️⃣ What is the main objective of the Change Management Process?
A) To block all unauthorized changes permanently
B) To plan, review, approve, and implement changes with minimal risk
C) To prevent employees from making changes to systems
D) To delay system updates for as long as possible
Answer: B) To plan, review, approve, and implement changes with minimal risk
Explanation:
The Change Management Process ensures that updates, patches, or modifications do not disrupt business operations.
A (incorrect): Change management does not block all changes, but ensures they are managed properly.
C (incorrect): Employees can make changes, but they must go through the change approval process.
D (incorrect): Change management does not delay updates unnecessarily, but ensures they are properly tested and reviewed.
2️⃣ Why is a “no-blame approach” important in Root Cause Analysis (RCA)?
A) It helps identify and assign fault to the responsible individual
B) It focuses on finding solutions rather than blaming individuals
C) It ensures that security teams ignore incidents to avoid conflicts
D) It prevents organizations from implementing security measures
Answer: B) It focuses on finding solutions rather than blaming individuals
Explanation:
RCA aims to identify the root cause of incidents to prevent them from happening again.
A no-blame approach ensures that teams openly report issues without fear, allowing organizations to improve security practices.
A (incorrect): RCA does not assign blame; it focuses on solutions.
C (incorrect): Ignoring incidents is not part of RCA—it seeks to understand and resolve them.
D (incorrect): RCA strengthens security measures, not prevents them.
3️⃣ What is the first step in Root Cause Analysis (RCA)?
A) Implement and track solutions
B) Define and scope the incident
C) Determine the causal relationships
D) Identify effective solutions
Answer: B) Define and scope the incident
Explanation:
The first step in RCA is defining and scoping the incident, which includes identifying the affected systems, users, and operational impact.
A (incorrect): Implementing solutions happens at the final stage.
C (incorrect): Determining causal relationships is the second step.
D (incorrect): Identifying solutions is done after determining the cause.
4️⃣ Which of the following is an example of implementing RCA findings to prevent future incidents?
A) Reprimanding an employee for clicking a phishing link
B) Restricting USB usage after discovering malware spread via flash drives
C) Disabling security alerts to avoid false positives
D) Ignoring the root cause and only resolving immediate symptoms
Answer: B) Restricting USB usage after discovering malware spread via flash drives
Explanation:
Implementing RCA findings means taking corrective actions to prevent the same incident from happening again.
A (incorrect): Blaming employees is counterproductive and does not solve the root issue.
C (incorrect): Disabling alerts makes security less effective.
D (incorrect): Ignoring the root cause leads to repeated security incidents.
5️⃣ What is an example of a systemic issue that RCA might reveal?
A) A security tool detected an attack
B) An employee made a typo in an email
C) Lack of proper security training for employees
D) A user changed their password recently
Answer: C) Lack of proper security training for employees
Explanation:
RCA often reveals systemic weaknesses, such as poor training, outdated policies, or lack of security awareness.
A (incorrect): Security tool detections are important but do not indicate a systemic problem.
B (incorrect): A typo in an email is human error, not a systemic issue.
D (incorrect): Changing a password is a good security practice, not a flaw.
6️⃣ Which of the following is NOT a step in the Root Cause Analysis (RCA) process?
A) Determine causal relationships
B) Identify effective solutions
C) Assign blame to a specific team
D) Implement and track solutions
Answer: C) Assign blame to a specific team
Explanation:
RCA follows a no-blame approach, focusing on finding solutions rather than blaming individuals or teams.
A, B, and D (correct): These are all core steps in the RCA process.
7️⃣ Why is the Change Management Process important for security updates?
A) It ensures changes are implemented without disrupting business operations
B) It prevents all security updates from being deployed
C) It allows IT staff to make random changes to systems
D) It ignores system vulnerabilities in favor of stability
Answer: A) It ensures changes are implemented without disrupting business operations
Explanation:
Change management balances security updates with system stability, ensuring that updates are tested and reviewed before implementation.
B (incorrect): Change management does not block updates—it ensures they are properly managed.
C (incorrect): IT staff must follow approval processes before making changes.
D (incorrect): Security and stability must be balanced, not ignored.
8️⃣ What is the purpose of implementing and tracking solutions in RCA?
A) To quickly close an incident without further investigation
B) To ensure that the solution is effective and the issue does not recur
C) To permanently remove all users who were involved in the incident
D) To avoid making changes that could impact business operations
Answer: B) To ensure that the solution is effective and the issue does not recur
Explanation:
The final step of RCA involves monitoring the implemented solutions to confirm that they prevent similar incidents in the future.
A (incorrect): RCA requires thorough investigation before closing an incident.
C (incorrect): Removing users does not solve the root cause.
D (incorrect): Changes should be managed properly, not avoided.
9️⃣ How does RCA help improve cybersecurity practices?
A) By ensuring only IT staff have access to security policies
B) By identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in security practices
C) By eliminating the need for incident response teams
D) By focusing only on fixing immediate security breaches
Answer: B) By identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in security practices
Explanation:
RCA helps organizations understand security flaws and implement better protections to prevent future attacks.
A (incorrect): Security policies should be accessible to all relevant personnel.
C (incorrect): Incident response teams are still needed even with RCA.
D (incorrect): RCA focuses on long-term solutions, not just quick fixes.
🔟 What is an example of Change Management being used in IT security?
A) Deploying an update after testing and approval
B) Making changes to production systems without documentation
C) Allowing employees to install any software they want
D) Ignoring security patches to avoid downtime
Answer: A) Deploying an update after testing and approval
Explanation:
Change management ensures that updates are tested, reviewed, and approved before deployment to minimize risks.
B (incorrect): Unauthorized changes can lead to security vulnerabilities.
C (incorrect): Allowing unapproved software increases security risks.
D (incorrect): Ignoring patches exposes systems to cyber threats.
1️⃣ Why is incident response training important?
A) It ensures employees and staff understand incident response processes, procedures, and priorities
B) It replaces the need for incident response testing
C) It allows employees to respond to incidents without using formal procedures
D) It eliminates the need for cybersecurity policies
Answer: A) It ensures employees and staff understand incident response processes, procedures, and priorities
Explanation:
Incident response training ensures that employees understand how to handle security incidents effectively based on their roles.
B (incorrect): Training complements, but does not replace testing.
C (incorrect): Formal procedures must be followed for consistency and compliance.
D (incorrect): Cybersecurity policies are essential for structuring security operations.
2️⃣ How should training be structured for different roles in an organization?
A) All employees should receive identical training
B) Training should be tailored to different roles based on their specific needs
C) Only IT staff need incident response training
D) Training should focus only on technical skills
Answer: B) Training should be tailored to different roles based on their specific needs
Explanation:
Different employees need role-specific training:
First responders need technical training on malware removal, system recovery, and forensic collection.
Managers and executives need training on risk management, legal considerations, and communication strategies.
End users need basic training on recognizing phishing attempts and reporting incidents.
A (incorrect): Not all employees need the same level of training.
C (incorrect): End users and managers also need training, not just IT staff.
D (incorrect): Training includes both technical and soft skills like communication and decision-making.
3️⃣ What is the purpose of incident response testing?
A) To evaluate how well employees apply their training in real-world scenarios
B) To replace the need for training
C) To test random parts of the organization’s network without a structured plan
D) To permanently remove employees who fail security tests
Answer: A) To evaluate how well employees apply their training in real-world scenarios
Explanation:
Testing is the practical application of incident response procedures to ensure employees can execute their roles effectively.
B (incorrect): Training and testing work together—one does not replace the other.
C (incorrect): Testing should be structured and purposeful, not random.
D (incorrect): The goal is to improve response capabilities, not to remove employees.
4️⃣ Which of the following is a characteristic of a Tabletop Exercise (TTX)?
A) It is a theoretical discussion-based scenario
B) It involves live attacks on the network
C) It requires the use of penetration testing tools like Metasploit
D) It is a full-scale real-world simulation
Answer: A) It is a theoretical discussion-based scenario
Explanation:
A Tabletop Exercise (TTX) is a low-cost, discussion-based test where teams walk through an incident scenario and discuss responses.
B (incorrect): No live attacks occur in a tabletop exercise.
C (incorrect): Penetration testing tools are not used in TTX.
D (incorrect): Full-scale simulations involve actual system interactions, unlike TTX.
5️⃣ What is the primary goal of penetration testing?
A) To perform a random attack on a network
B) To assess security weaknesses by simulating real-world cyberattacks
C) To permanently block all network traffic
D) To test only physical security measures
Answer: B) To assess security weaknesses by simulating real-world cyberattacks
Explanation:
Penetration testing (pen test) is conducted by red teams to simulate real-world attacks against a defined target using threat modeling.
A (incorrect): Pen tests are not random—they follow specific scenarios.
C (incorrect): Blocking all traffic is not the purpose of pen testing.
D (incorrect): Pen testing primarily focuses on cybersecurity, not just physical security.
6️⃣ What is a key consideration when performing a penetration test?
A) It must follow pre-agreed rules of engagement
B) It should be done without informing the organization
C) It should include all types of attacks, including DDoS
D) It is only useful for small businesses
Answer: A) It must follow pre-agreed rules of engagement
Explanation:
Pen tests require a clear scope and methodology, known as the rules of engagement, to ensure testing is controlled and ethical.
B (incorrect): Unauthorized testing can lead to legal and operational consequences.
C (incorrect): Not all attack types are allowed—DDoS attacks are often prohibited.
D (incorrect): Pen testing is valuable for all organizations, regardless of size.
7️⃣ Why is simulation testing important in incident response?
A) It provides hands-on experience with real-world cybersecurity incidents
B) It replaces the need for all other forms of testing
C) It is only necessary for large enterprises
D) It is purely theoretical and does not involve hands-on interaction
Answer: A) It provides hands-on experience with real-world cybersecurity incidents
Explanation:
Simulation exercises mimic real cyberattacks and allow teams to test their responses in a controlled environment.
B (incorrect): Simulations complement other tests, they do not replace them.
C (incorrect): All organizations benefit from simulation testing, not just large enterprises.
D (incorrect): Unlike tabletop exercises, simulations involve real system interactions.
8️⃣ Which of the following is an example of a full-scale incident response simulation?
A) Conducting a company-wide phishing awareness campaign
B) Running a ransomware attack scenario on the organization’s network
C) Reviewing a security policy document with IT staff
D) Discussing incident response strategies during a company meeting
Answer: B) Running a ransomware attack scenario on the organization’s network
Explanation:
Full-scale simulations replicate actual security incidents with hands-on testing.
A (incorrect): Phishing awareness campaigns are training activities, not simulations.
C & D (incorrect): Reviewing documents and discussions are not real-world tests.
9️⃣ What is the role of red and blue teams in incident response testing?
A) Red teams simulate attacks, while blue teams defend against them
B) Both teams work together to conduct risk assessments
C) Blue teams attack networks, while red teams manage security policies
D) Red teams only train employees on cybersecurity awareness
Answer: A) Red teams simulate attacks, while blue teams defend against them
Explanation:
Red teams act as attackers, simulating real-world cyber threats.
Blue teams act as defenders, analyzing and responding to attacks.
B (incorrect): Red and blue teams do not perform risk assessments together.
C (incorrect): Blue teams defend networks; they do not attack.
D (incorrect): Red teams focus on simulated cyberattacks, not training awareness.
🔟 How can simulations improve an organization’s cybersecurity readiness?
A) By identifying weaknesses in incident response plans
B) By making security policies unnecessary
C) By allowing employees to ignore security alerts
D) By reducing the need for cybersecurity training
Answer: A) By identifying weaknesses in incident response plans
Explanation:
Simulations expose gaps in security procedures and help improve response capabilities.
B, C, and D (incorrect): Simulations enhance security policies, training, and alert responses, not replace them.
1️⃣ What is the purpose of digital forensics?
A) To randomly inspect computer systems for security vulnerabilities
B) To investigate and analyze digital devices and data for legal purposes
C) To erase all data from suspect devices to prevent further cyberattacks
D) To conduct unauthorized searches of personal devices
Answer: B) To investigate and analyze digital devices and data for legal purposes
Explanation:
Digital forensics is the systematic investigation of digital devices to collect and analyze evidence in legal cases, cybercrimes, and security incidents.
A (incorrect): Digital forensics is not a random security audit; it follows structured legal procedures.
C (incorrect): The goal is to preserve evidence, not erase it.
D (incorrect): Forensics requires legal authorization, such as a warrant or executive approval.
2️⃣ What is the first phase of digital forensics?
A) Collection
B) Reporting
C) Identification
D) Analysis
Answer: C) Identification
Explanation:
Identification is the first phase of digital forensics, where investigators secure the scene, document evidence, and determine the scope of the investigation.
A (incorrect): Collection happens after identification when evidence is gathered.
B (incorrect): Reporting is the final phase.
D (incorrect): Analysis occurs after collection to examine digital evidence.
3️⃣ Which of the following best describes the chain of custody?
A) A process that ensures the original evidence is altered for easier analysis
B) A documented record that tracks the handling and transfer of digital evidence
C) A forensic technique that allows investigators to modify evidence when necessary
D) A method for permanently erasing unnecessary forensic data
Answer: B) A documented record that tracks the handling and transfer of digital evidence
Explanation:
The chain of custody ensures that evidence remains intact and admissible in court by tracking its movement from collection to analysis.
A (incorrect): Digital evidence must not be altered to maintain its integrity.
C (incorrect): Investigators cannot modify evidence; doing so would compromise the investigation.
D (incorrect): Erasing forensic data is not part of the chain of custody process.
4️⃣ What is the order of volatility in forensic evidence collection?
A) Collect the most volatile data first, then move to less volatile data
B) Always collect data from hard drives before collecting RAM
C) Collect remote backups before system memory
D) Focus only on network logs and ignore system state information
Answer: A) Collect the most volatile data first, then move to less volatile data
Explanation:
The order of volatility prioritizes data that disappears quickly (like RAM and CPU cache) before collecting more persistent data (like hard drives and backups).
B (incorrect): RAM is more volatile than hard drives and should be collected first.
C (incorrect): Remote backups are collected last since they are the least volatile.
D (incorrect): All evidence types are important, including system state and network logs.
5️⃣ Which tool or method is used to create an exact copy of a hard drive for forensic analysis?
A) Disk Imaging
B) File Carving
C) Chain of Custody
D) Legal Hold
Answer: A) Disk Imaging
Explanation:
Disk imaging creates a bit-by-bit copy of a storage device to preserve all data, including deleted files and empty space.
B (incorrect): File carving is used to recover deleted files, not create full disk copies.
C (incorrect): Chain of custody tracks evidence handling, not data duplication.
D (incorrect): Legal hold preserves data but does not involve making copies.
6️⃣ What is file carving used for?
A) To create an exact forensic copy of a storage device
B) To recover deleted or lost files when the file system is damaged
C) To permanently delete files from a suspect’s computer
D) To encrypt forensic evidence for security
Answer: B) To recover deleted or lost files when the file system is damaged
Explanation:
File carving searches raw data storage to rebuild deleted or corrupted files.
A (incorrect): Disk imaging, not file carving, creates forensic copies.
C (incorrect): File carving recovers data, not deletes it.
D (incorrect): While security is important, file carving does not encrypt forensic evidence.
7️⃣ What is the main purpose of a legal hold?
A) To erase all unnecessary digital data
B) To prevent employees from accessing company files
C) To preserve potentially relevant electronic data for legal proceedings
D) To analyze network traffic for malicious activity
Answer: C) To preserve potentially relevant electronic data for legal proceedings
Explanation:
A legal hold ensures that important data is not altered or deleted when litigation is expected.
A (incorrect): Legal holds prevent deletion, not enforce it.
B (incorrect): Employees can still access files, but specific data must be preserved.
D (incorrect): Legal holds focus on data preservation, not network monitoring.
8️⃣ What is e-discovery?
A) The process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information for legal cases
B) A technique for encrypting forensic reports
C) A method for formatting digital evidence before presenting it in court
D) A process used only in criminal investigations
Answer: A) The process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information for legal cases
Explanation:
E-discovery involves searching emails, chat logs, databases, and documents for legal proceedings.
B (incorrect): E-discovery does not involve encryption.
C (incorrect): While evidence must be properly formatted, e-discovery focuses on searching and collecting data.
D (incorrect): E-discovery is used in both criminal and civil cases.
9️⃣ What is an ethical principle that forensic analysts must follow?
A) Analysts must have complete freedom to modify evidence for better results
B) Forensic procedures should be based on repeatable methods to ensure accuracy
C) Investigators should prioritize personal opinions over evidence
D) The chain of custody is optional and not required for legal cases
Answer: B) Forensic procedures should be based on repeatable methods to ensure accuracy
Explanation:
Repeatability ensures that different forensic analysts get the same results using the same methods.
A (incorrect): Modifying evidence would compromise integrity.
C (incorrect): Evidence-based analysis is required; personal opinions are not a factor.
D (incorrect): The chain of custody is mandatory for legal cases.
🔟 Why must forensic analysts avoid bias during an investigation?
A) To ensure fair and objective findings based solely on evidence
B) To manipulate evidence to support a specific outcome
C) To speed up the investigation by making quick assumptions
D) To create misleading reports for legal teams
Answer: A) To ensure fair and objective findings based solely on evidence
Explanation:
Digital forensics must be neutral and fact-based to ensure credibility and admissibility in court.
B, C, and D (incorrect): Bias compromises investigations and may result in inadmissible evidence.
1️⃣ What is the main purpose of forensic data collection?
A) To immediately delete all logs and traces of an attack
B) To create a forensically sound copy of data for investigation and legal use
C) To modify system logs to prevent further attacks
D) To permanently shut down compromised systems without investigation
Answer: B) To create a forensically sound copy of data for investigation and legal use
Explanation:
Forensic data collection ensures that evidence is preserved and analyzed properly while allowing operations to continue.
A (incorrect): Deleting logs would destroy evidence, making it impossible to investigate.
C (incorrect): Modifying logs compromises integrity and makes the evidence inadmissible in court.
D (incorrect): While some shutdowns may be necessary, a complete shutdown without analysis is not standard procedure.
2️⃣ What is the purpose of hashing in forensic data collection?
A) To encrypt evidence before analysis
B) To verify the integrity of collected forensic images
C) To compress large forensic files for storage
D) To modify system data for better readability
Answer: B) To verify the integrity of collected forensic images
Explanation:
Hashing (using MD5, SHA-256) creates a unique digital fingerprint of data to ensure it hasn’t changed during analysis.
A (incorrect): Hashing is not encryption; it verifies integrity.
C (incorrect): Hashing does not compress data.
D (incorrect): Data must remain unchanged to maintain forensic validity.
3️⃣ What is the correct order of volatility in forensic data collection?
A) Collect data from hard drives before collecting CPU cache
B) Capture the most volatile data first, then move to less volatile data
C) Always collect data from archival media before capturing RAM
D) Prioritize remote logs over live system memory
Answer: B) Capture the most volatile data first, then move to less volatile data
Explanation:
Order of volatility ensures that highly volatile data (like CPU cache and RAM) is collected first before it disappears.
A (incorrect): Hard drives are less volatile than CPU cache and RAM, so they are collected later.
C (incorrect): Archival media is the least volatile and collected last.
D (incorrect): Live system memory is more volatile than remote logs.
4️⃣ What forensic technique is used to create an exact copy of a hard drive while preserving its integrity?
A) File Carving
B) Disk Imaging
C) Process Table Analysis
D) E-Discovery
Answer: B) Disk Imaging
Explanation:
Disk imaging makes a bit-by-bit copy of a storage device, including deleted files and empty space, ensuring original evidence is unchanged.
A (incorrect): File carving is used to recover deleted files, not copy entire disks.
C (incorrect): Process table analysis monitors running processes, not disk duplication.
D (incorrect): E-discovery is for legal data retrieval, not creating forensic copies.
5️⃣ Why is remote logging critical in forensic investigations?
A) It stores system logs on a separate server, preventing attackers from deleting evidence
B) It encrypts all data to protect against cyber threats
C) It automatically restores deleted files from compromised systems
D) It replaces the need for forensic disk imaging
Answer: A) It stores system logs on a separate server, preventing attackers from deleting evidence
Explanation:
Remote logging ensures logs remain intact, even if attackers delete local logs.
B (incorrect): While security is important, remote logging does not encrypt all data.
C (incorrect): Remote logging does not restore deleted files, but it preserves past logs.
D (incorrect): Forensic imaging is still needed for full disk analysis
6️⃣ What challenge does BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) present for forensic data collection?
A) The company may not legally have the right to search or seize an employee’s personal device
B) BYOD devices always have built-in forensic tools for easy analysis
C) Employees must provide all their passwords before an investigation starts
D) BYOD policies ensure that personal data is erased before analysis
Answer: A) The company may not legally have the right to search or seize an employee’s personal device
Explanation:
BYOD devices are owned by employees, meaning legal permission is required for forensic collection.
B (incorrect): BYOD devices do not typically include built-in forensic tools.
C (incorrect): Employees are not always required to provide passwords.
D (incorrect): Erasing personal data is not a standard forensic requirement.
7️⃣ What data collection method is used to recover deleted files when the file system is missing or damaged?
A) File Carving
B) Hashing
C) Network Logging
D) Chain of Custody
Answer: A) File Carving
Explanation:
File carving extracts deleted or lost files, even if file system metadata is missing.
B (incorrect): Hashing verifies data integrity but doesn’t recover deleted files.
C (incorrect): Network logging tracks network activity, not file recovery.
D (incorrect): Chain of custody documents evidence handling, but doesn’t recover data.
8️⃣ Which forensic artifact helps track all running processes on a system?
A) Process Table
B) ARP Cache
C) Routing Table
D) Hash Values
Answer: A) Process Table
Explanation:
The process table tracks running applications, system resources, and active tasks.
B (incorrect): ARP cache maps IP addresses to MAC addresses.
C (incorrect): Routing tables determine network paths for traffic.
D (incorrect): Hash values verify integrity but do not track processes.
9️⃣ Why must forensic analysts avoid modifying original evidence during data collection?
A) To speed up investigations
B) To prevent contamination and ensure legal admissibility
C) To improve the readability of forensic reports
D) To comply with standard IT troubleshooting protocols
Answer: B) To prevent contamination and ensure legal admissibility
Explanation:
Forensic integrity means evidence must remain unchanged for legal proceedings.
A (incorrect): Speed is not a priority if it risks data integrity.
C (incorrect): Reports must be accurate, but data cannot be altered for readability.
D (incorrect): IT troubleshooting is not the same as forensic investigation.
🔟 What should an investigator do before collecting evidence from a system?
A) Shut down the system immediately to prevent further attacks
B) Verify legal authorization to collect data
C) Modify system logs to remove any traces of intrusion
D) Delete unnecessary files to free up storage space
Answer: B) Verify legal authorization to collect data
Explanation:
Legal approval (e.g., warrant, executive approval) is required before data collection.
A (incorrect): Shutting down a system may erase volatile evidence.
C (incorrect): Modifying logs compromises evidence.
D (incorrect): Deleting files could destroy critical evidence.
