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Jasion Dion A+ 220-1101 notes > things to memorize > Flashcards

things to memorize Flashcards

1
Q

What are the six steps of trouble shooting

A

▪ Identify the problem
▪ Establish a theory of probable cause
▪ Test the theory to determine the cause
● If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory
▪ Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the
solution
▪ Verify full system functionality
▪ Document the findings, actions, and outcomes

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2
Q

“bit”

A

o A single “bit” can store one of two values: 1 or 0

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3
Q

“Nibble”

A

is 4 bits

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4
Q

1000 bits

A

▪ 1Kilobit (1Kb)

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5
Q

how do we represent a “bit” and a “byte”

A

bit = b
byte = B

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6
Q

DB 25 Connector

A

▪ A D-shaped sub miniature pin that goes into the back of a computer and
has two thumb screws on the side

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7
Q

Serial Cable

A

▪ A cable that sends data in ones and zeros in a straight line, but it can only
send one bit at a time, which is measured at the speed of cables in bits
per second

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8
Q

DB9 Connector

A

▪ A slow speed connection for much older mice keyboards and other
external modems
▪ A USB 1 and a USB 2 run at a much slower speed and should be split
across a hub
▪ A USB 1.0 has the slowest speed out of a USB with a maximum speed of
1.5 megabits per second

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9
Q

USB 1.1

A

▪ Known as full speed and runs at 12 megabits per second

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10
Q

USB 2.0

A

▪ Known as high speed and runs at 480 megabits per second

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11
Q

USB 3.0

A

▪ Known as super speed and is at least 5 gigabits per second

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12
Q

USB 3.1 Gen One

A

▪ Runs at 5 gigabits per second

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13
Q

USB 3.1 Gen Two

A

▪ Runs at 10 gigabits per second

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14
Q

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2

A

▪ Runs at 20 gigabits per second

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15
Q

USB 4

A

▪ The most modern version of USB and can run at 40 gigabits per second
▪ A USB 4 and a USB 3.2 gen 2x2 must have a shorter cable because that is
going to give the best performance
▪ The longer a cable, the more likelihood that the cable would not work as
efficiently, or even at all
● Type A
● Type C
● Type B
● Type B Mini
● Type B Micro

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16
Q

DVI

A

Used to support both analog and digital outputs
● DVI A - DVI A only supports analog signals,
● DVI D - DVI D only supports digital signals,
● DVI I - DVI I support both signals

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17
Q

VGA

A

▪ The graphic standard that used a 15-pin standard analog video interface
port that would connect to the computer

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18
Q

Thunderbolt

A

▪ Supports speeds of up to 40 gigabits per second for data transfer over
cables

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19
Q

Lightning Cable

A

▪ A specific proprietary connector that was created by apple their mobile
devices

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20
Q

SATA Cable

A

▪ The standard cables that are the main method of connecting a storage
device to a motherboard inside of a desktop computer
▪ The SATA cable has two cables, one is a seven-pin data cable, which does
not supply any power, and the other is a 15-pin SATA power connector to
provide the power to the device
▪ SATA version 1 can support speeds of up to 1.5 gigabits per second,
version 2 can support speeds of up 3 gigabits per second, and version 3
can support speeds of up to 6 gigabits per second

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21
Q

External SATA or ESATA

A

▪ A SATA cable on the outside of the case

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22
Q

PATA

A

▪ The old IDE connectors with the exact same cables and connectors and
standards but renamed for branding
▪ Parallel devices have each cable support up to two devices and they both
can communicate at the same time

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23
Q

Molex Power Connector

A

▪ A 4-pin connector that would attach from the power supply directly to a
device

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24
Q

SCIS

A

▪ A legacy parallel bus connector that allows multiple devices to be Daisy
chained together
▪ A narrow SCIS can support up to 7 devices, but a wide SCIS can support
up to 15 devices

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25
Q

Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

A

▪ Full-size motherboard and measures 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244 mm)

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26
Q

Mini-ATX

A

▪ Smaller than ATX but contains the same features (11.2” x 8.2” / 284mm x
208 mm)

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27
Q

Micro-ATX (mATX)

A

▪ Measures 9.6 inches squared (244mm x 244mm)
▪ Micro-ATX is the same as ATX but only has 4 expansion card slots

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28
Q

Information Technology eXtended (ITX)

A

▪ Designed as a replacement for the ATX but never produced

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29
Q

Mini-ITX

A

▪ Measures 6.7” x 6.7” with only one expansion slot (170 x 170mm
squared)
● Mobile-ITX

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30
Q

CPU

A

▪ The brains of the computer that execute the different programing codes
in the software and firmware
▪ The CPU is performing the basic operations for every instruction in the
computer
▪ Once the processor has done the execution of the instruction, it will send
that information back to the memory so that it can be stored and used for
later use

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31
Q

X86

A

X86
▪ Can support a maximum of 4 gigabytes of Ram

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32
Q

X64

A

X64
▪ An extension of the X86 instruction set to be able to support 64-bit
operations
▪ 32 bit systems can only run 32 bit programs, but 64 bit processors can run
64 bit programs and 32 bit programs because they are fully backwards
compatible

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33
Q

Advanced RISC Machine (ARM)

A

▪ Used for low-power devices (tablets and cell phones)
● Extended battery life
● Produces less heat
▪ RISC systems use code to do tasks

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34
Q

CPU Sockets

A

ZIF

▪ The ability to insert the CPU without pressing down and applying
pressure to it
▪ If you bend, snap, or break a pin from a processor, the entire processor is
no longer functional

LGA Socket
▪ A form factor that positions all the pins to be able to connect the CPU
processor into the socket

PGA Form Factor
▪ The processor has the pins and the socket have holes which allows the
holes to align when installing the processor

Multi-Socket
▪ Multiple CPU’s or processors installed on a motherboard
▪ You cannot upgrade or change out the processor on a mobile device
▪ The two main types of CPU sockets are LGA, which is made by Intel, and
we have PGA, which has made by AMD.

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35
Q

CPU Features
Simultaneous Multithreading (SMT) / Hyper-threading

A

▪ Single stream of instructions is being sent by a software application to a
processor
▪ Manufacturers developed a way to allow software to run multiple parallel
threads at the same time

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36
Q

Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)

A

▪ Traditional workstation and servers have multiple processors

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37
Q

Multi-core Processors

A

▪ Single CPU with multiple processors inside
▪ Multiple processors have multiple cores inside the CPU

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38
Q

Dual-core Processor

A

▪ Two CPUs inside a single chip

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39
Q

Quad-core Processor

A

▪ Four CPUs inside a single chip

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40
Q

Hexa-core Processor

A

▪ Six CPUs inside a single chip

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41
Q

Octa-core Processor

A

▪ Eight CPUs inside a single chip
● Hyper-threading / SMT
● Symmetric Multiprocessing
● Multi-core Processors
● Virtualization

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42
Q

VT and AMD-V

A

provide processor extensions to support virtualization

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43
Q

Virtualization

A

Virtualization allows running multiple systems on a single physical host
▪ Extended Page Table (EPT)
● Intel
▪ Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI)
● AMD

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44
Q

PCIe (PCI Express) replaces PCI, PCI-X, and AGP

A

▪ PCIe x1
▪ PCIe x4
▪ PCIe x8
▪ PCIe x16
● PCIe x1 is used for modems, network cards, wireless cards,
input/output devices, and audio cards
● PCIe x16 is used for graphics cards

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45
Q

Thermal Load

A

▪ Heat from different components inside the computer

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46
Q

Passive Cooling

A

▪ Type of cooling that doesn’t rely on moving parts or power

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47
Q

Heat Sink

A

▪ Finned metal device that radiates heat away from the processor

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48
Q

Thermal Paste

A

▪ Compound that ensures heat transfer by eliminating air gaps
● Passive cooling requires no power to operate and is silent when
operating

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49
Q

Active Cooling

A

▪ Uses a fan to cool down the heat from the device

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50
Q

Closed Loop System (liquid cooling)

A

▪ Cooling of a single component

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51
Q

Open Loop System (liquid cooling)

A

▪ Liquid cooling based system of different components

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52
Q

Power supply unit (PSU)

A

Converts AC power from the wall jack to DC power for computers components

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53
Q

120V AC (Low Line Power)

A

▪ US-based power supply

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54
Q

230V AC (High Line Power)

A

▪ Europe and Asia power supply

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55
Q

Random Access Memory (RAM)

A

▪ Used to load applications and files into a non-persistent and fast storage
area

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56
Q

Cache

A

▪ High-speed memory

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57
Q

Storage

A

▪ Mass storage device that holds more data but is slower than a cache

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58
Q

Mass Storage Devices

A

▪ Permanent storage area

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59
Q

Random Access Memory (RAM) / System Memory

A

▪ Temporary storage area/non-persistent storage

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60
Q

Disk Cache

A

▪ Pulls the files from the disc into memory and replaces the old file

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61
Q

Dynamic RAM (DRAM)

A

▪ Oldest type of memory that requires frequent refreshing
● DRAM storage cell is dynamic

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62
Q

Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM)

A

▪ First memory module that operates at the same speed as the
motherboard bus (168-pin connector)
● PC66 (66 MHz bus)
● PC133 (133 MHz bus)
● PC266 (266 MHz bus)

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63
Q

Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR
SDRAM)

A

▪ Doubles the transfer speed of an SRAM module (184-pin connector)

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64
Q

Double Data Rate 2 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR2
SDRAM)

A

▪ Higher latency and has faster access to the external bus (240-pin
connector)
● PC2-4200

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65
Q

Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR3
SDRAM)

A

▪ Runs at a lower voltage and at a higher speed than DDR2 (240 keyed pin
connector)
● PC3-10600
▪ DDR3 throughput is 6.4 to 17 GB/s with a maximum module size of 8GB
per memory module

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66
Q

Small Outline Dual In-line Memory Module (SODIMM)

A

▪ Classified as DDR3, DDR4, or DDR5

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67
Q

Multi-Channel Memory

A

▪ Uses two different memory modules to increase the performance and
throughput

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68
Q

Single-Channel

A

● Uses one memory module on one bus (64-bit data bus)

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69
Q

Dual-Channel

A

● Requires two memory modules and two memory slots on the
motherboard (128-bit data bus)

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70
Q

Triple-Channel

A

● Uses three memory modules and three memory slots (192-bit
data bus)

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71
Q

Quad-Channel

A

● Uses four memory modules and four memory slots (256-bit data
bus)

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72
Q

Multiple modules

A

● Give faster speeds and add memory for storage

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73
Q

Non-Parity Memory

A

▪ Standard memory that does not check for errors and allows data to be
put in or taken out

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74
Q

Parity Memory

A

▪ Performs basic error checking and ensures the memory contents are
reliable
● A parity check does basic calculation
o Every bit has an associated parity bit
▪ Bits can only be a zero or one

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75
Q

Error Correcting Code (ECC)

A

▪ Detects and corrects an error

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76
Q

Virtual Memory/Page File

A

▪ Space on a hard drive that is allocated by the OS and pretends to be
memory

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77
Q

DDR5

A

▪ Has an internal error checking for its modules
● DDR5 modules can still be sold as ECC or non-ECC modules

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78
Q

DDR4 and DDR5 have how many pins?

A

288

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79
Q

BIOS and UEFI
Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)

A

▪ Program that a CPU uses to start the computer system
▪ BIOS serves as a method of configuring the motherboard using a
text-based interface

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80
Q

Firmware

A

▪ Software on a chip and contains BIOS program code in the flash memory
of a motherboard

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81
Q

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

A

▪ Supports 64 bit processors and provides a GUI

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82
Q

Read-Only Memory (ROM)

A

▪ Type of chip embedded in the motherboard and can be upgraded through
flashing

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83
Q

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

A

▪ Diagnostic testing sequence to check the computer’s basic input/output
system

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84
Q

BIOS/UEFI Security

A
  • BIOS and UEFI are used during loading and booting up the OS
  • Computers that rely on BIOS use MBR to hold the boot information
  • Computers that rely on UEFI use GPT to hold the boot information
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85
Q

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

A

▪ Specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys,
hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification
information
● TPM is a hardware RoT
● Secured boot-up
● Provides encryption
▪ A TPM can be managed in Windows via tpm.msc console
or through group policy

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86
Q

Hardware Root of Trust (RoT)

A

▪ Cryptographic module embedded in a computer system that endorses
trusted execution and attests to boot settings and metrics

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87
Q

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

A

▪ Appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys that
is less susceptible to tampering and insider threats

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88
Q

Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

A

▪ Form of mass storage device

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89
Q

Mass Storage Device

A

▪ Non-volatile storage device that holds the data when the system
is powered down (GB or TB)

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90
Q

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

A

▪ Combination of multiple physical hard disks that is recognized by the
operating system

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91
Q

RAID 0

A

RAID 0 is great for speed but provides no data redundancy
RAID 0 has no loss of space on the disks

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92
Q

RAID 1

A

RAID 1 provides full redundancy

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93
Q

Failure Resistant

A

▪ Protection against the loss of erased data (RAID 1/RAID 5)

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94
Q

Fault Tolerant

A

▪ Raid can function even when a hard drive fails (RAID 1/RAID 5/RAID 6)

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95
Q

Disaster Tolerant

A

▪ RAID with two independent zones with full data access (RAID 10)
▪ RAIDs provide redundancy and high-availability

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96
Q

Virtualization

A

▪ Host computer installed with a hypervisor that can be used to install and
manage multiple guest operating systems or virtual machines (VMs)

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97
Q

Type I Hypervisor (Bare Metal)

A

runs directly on the host hardware and functions as the
operating system

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98
Q

Type II Hypervisor

A

Runs within the normal operating system

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99
Q

VM Escape

A

▪ Threat attempts to get out of an isolated VM and send commands to the
underlying hypervisor
▪ VM escape is easier to perform on a Type II hypervisor than a Type I
hypervisor

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100
Q

VM Hopping

A

▪ Threat attempts to move from one VM to another on the same host

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101
Q

Sandbox Escape

A

▪ Occurs when an attacker circumvents sandbox protections to gain access
to the protected OS or other privileged processes

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102
Q

Live Migration

A

▪ Migrates the virtual machine from one host to another while it is running
▪ Ensure that live migration only occurs on a trusted network or utilizes
encryption

103
Q

Data Remnants

A

▪ Leftover pieces of data that may exist in the hard drive which are no
longer needed
● Encrypt virtual machine storage location
● Destroy encryption key

104
Q

VM Sprawl

A
105
Q

Cloud Computing

A

▪ The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet

106
Q

Rapid Elasticity (cloud computing)

A

The ability to quickly scale up or down
● Elasticity is the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in
real time

107
Q

Metered Utilization (cloud computing)

A

▪ Being charged for a service on a pay per use basis
▪ The benefit of using the cloud is that most things are done on a metered
basis

108
Q

Measured Services (cloud computing)

A

▪ Charging is based upon the actual usage of the service being consumed
▪ Measured services are charged based on the actual usage of the service
being consumed

108
Q

Public Cloud

A

▪ Systems and users interact with devices on public networks, such as the
Internet and other clouds

109
Q

Shared Resources (cloud computing)

A

▪ The ability to minimize the costs by putting VMs on other servers
▪ Shared resources is pooling together all the hardware to make a cloud
provider

110
Q

File Synchronization (cloud computing)

A

▪ The ability to store data that can spread to other places depending on the
configuration

111
Q

Private Cloud

A

▪ Systems and users that only have access with other devices inside the
same private cloud or system

112
Q

Hybrid Cloud

A

▪ Combination of private and public clouds

113
Q

Community Cloud

A

▪ Collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared between several
organizations from a specific community with common concerns

114
Q

Multitenancy

A

▪ The ability for customers to share computing resources in a public or
private cloud

115
Q

Single-Tenancy

A

▪ Assigns a particular resource to a single organization

116
Q

On-Premise Solution

A

▪ The need to to procure hardware, software, and personnel necessary to
run the organization’s cloud
▪ On-premise solution allows the ability to control all the physical and
logical access to servers

117
Q

Hosted Solution

A

▪ Third-party service provider that provides all the hardware and facilities
needed to maintain a cloud solution

117
Q

Hosted Model/ Desktop as a Service (DAAS)

A

▪ Maintained by a service provider and provided to the end user as a
service

118
Q

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

A

▪ Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a
centralized server or server farm

119
Q

Remote Virtual Desktop Model

A

▪ Copies the desktop image to a local machine prior to being used by the
end user

120
Q

Personal Area Network (PAN)

A

▪ Smallest type of wired or wireless network and covers
the least amount of area

121
Q

Local Area Network (LAN)

A

▪ Connects components within a limited distance
● Up to a few hundred feet

122
Q

Campus Area Network (CAN)

A

▪ Connects LANs that are building-centric across a university, industrial
park, or business park
● Up to a few miles

123
Q

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

A

▪ Connects scattered locations across a city or metro area
● Up to about 25 miles

124
Q

Wide Area Network (WAN)

A

▪ Connects geographically disparate internal networks and consists of
leased lines or VPNs
● Worldwide coverage

125
Q

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

A

▪ A wireless distribution method for two or more devices that creates a
local area network using wireless frequencies

126
Q

Storage Area Network (SAN)

A

▪ Provisions access to configurable pools of storage devices that can be
used by application server

127
Q

Channel

A

▪ A virtual medium through which wireless networks can send and receive
data
● For the 2.4 GHz spectrum, there can be 11 or 14 channels
● Channels 1, 6, and 11 avoid overlapping frequencies in the 2.4
GHz band
● We can use 5.725-5.875 GHz to run our wireless networks in the 5
GHz band
● There are 24 non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band

128
Q

What 802.11 standards use 5ghz

A

802.11a
-5GHz, 54Mbps

802.11n
-2.4 and 5GHz, 150Mbps/600Mbps (MIMO) WiFi-4

802.11ac
-5GHz, 6.9Gbps (MU-MIMO) WiFi-5

802.11X
-2.4, 5, 6GHz 9.6Gbps (MU-MIMO) WIFI-6

129
Q

What 802.11 Standards are only 2.4Ghz

A

802.11b
-2.4Ghz 11Mbps

802.11g
-2.4Ghz 54Mbps

130
Q

Multiple-Input and Multiple-Output (MIMO)

A

▪ Uses multiple antennas to send and receive data than it could with a
single antenna

131
Q

Multiple User Multiple Input Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

A

▪ Allows multiple users to access the wireless network and access point at
the same time

132
Q

Radio Frequency Interference (RFI)

A

▪ Occurs when there are similar frequencies to wireless networks in the
area

133
Q

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

A

▪ Original 802.11 wireless security standard which is an insecure security
protocol
▪ WEP uses 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV) sent in clear text

134
Q

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

A

▪ Replaced WEP and follows the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
▪ WPA uses 48-bit Initialization Vector (IV) instead of 24-bit
● Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
- For encryption
● Message Integrity Check (MIC)
- To confirm data was not modified in transit

135
Q

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

A

▪ Created as part of IEEE 802.11i standard and requires stronger encryption
and integrity checking through CCMP
▪ Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
- provides additional security by using a 128-bit key or
higher

136
Q

MAC Address Filtering

A

▪ Configures an access point with a listing of permitted MAC addresses (like
an ACL)

137
Q

Disabling SSID Broadcast

A

▪ Configures an access point not to broadcast the name of the wireless LAN

138
Q

Cellular (wireless networks)

A

▪ Uses a larger antenna and a larger hotspot powered by a power outlet
within an office or home

139
Q

Microwave

A

▪ Creates point to point connection between two or more buildings that
have longer distances
▪ A traditional microwave link can cover about 40 miles of distance

140
Q

Satellite

A

▪ A long range and fixed wireless solution that can go for miles
● Low Earth Orbit
- Requires more satellites to cover the entire planet but
gives lower latency speeds
● Geosynchronous Orbit
- One satellite can cover a large portion of the Earth
- Geosynchronous orbit gives higher latency and lower
quality

141
Q

Near Field Communication (NFC)

A

▪ Uses radio frequency to send electromagnetic charge containing the
transaction data over a short distance

142
Q

Radio Frequency dentification (RFID)

A

▪ A form of radio frequency transmission modified for use in authentication
systems

143
Q

Infrared Data (IrDA)

A

▪ Allows two devices to communicate using line of sight communication
in the infrared spectrum

144
Q

Bluetooth

A

▪ Creates a personal area network over 2.4 GHz to allow for wireless
connectivity

145
Q

Bluejacking

A

Sending unsolicited messages to a Bluetooth device

146
Q

Bluesnarfing

A

Making unauthorized access to a device via Bluetooth
connection

147
Q

BlueBorne

A

Allows the attacker to gain complete control over a device
without even being connected to the target device

148
Q

Tethering

A

▪ Sharing cellular data Internet connection from a smartphone
to multiple other devices
▪ Only connect to trusted wireless networks

149
Q

Fiber To The Curb (FTTC)

A

▪ Runs a fiber optic cable from an internet provider access point to a curb

150
Q

Fiber To The Premises (FTTP)

A

▪ Fiber optic that connects directly to a building and connects to an optical
network terminal (ONT)

151
Q

Optical Network Terminal (ONT)

A

▪ Physical devices that convert optical signals to electrical signals

152
Q

Link/Network Interface Layer

A

▪ Responsible for putting frames in the physical network’s transmission media
▪ In the link/network interface layer, the data can only travel through the local area network

153
Q

Internet Layer

A

▪ Used to address packets and route them across the network

154
Q

Transport Layer

A

▪ Shows how to send the packets
● (TCP) Transmission Control Protocol
● (UDP) User Datagram Protocol

155
Q

Application Layer

A

▪ Contains all the protocols that perform higher-level functions

156
Q

● IPv4 Class A

A

1st octet starts 1-127

157
Q

● IPv4 Class B

A

1st octet starts 128-191

158
Q

● IPv4 Class C

A

1st octet starts 192-223

159
Q

● IPv4 Class D

A

1st octet starts 224-239

160
Q

● IPv4 Class E

A

1st octet starts 240-255

161
Q

Public (Routable) IP Address

A

▪ Can be accessed over the Internet and is assigned to the network by an Internet service provider

162
Q

Private (Non-Routable) IP Address

A

▪ Can be used by anyone any time, but only within their own local area network
▪ Private IP ranges include those that start with either 10, 172, or 192

163
Q

Loopback Address (127.0.0.1)

A

▪ Creates a loopback to the host and is often used in troubleshooting and testing network protocols on a system

164
Q

Automatic Private IP Addresses (APIPA)

A

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a DHCP server
● 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
D iscover
O ffer
R equest
A cknowledge

165
Q

Static Assignment

A

▪ Manually type the IP address for the host, its subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server
▪ Static assignment of IP addresses is impractical on large enterprise networks

166
Q

Dynamic Assignment

A

▪ Dynamic allocation of IP addresses (DHCP SERVER)

167
Q

Domain Name System (DNS)

A

▪ Converts the domain names used by a website to the IP address of its server
▪ DNS is the internet version of a phone book

168
Q

Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

A

▪ Identifies NetBIOS systems on a TCP/IP network and converts those NetBIOS names to IP addresses

169
Q

Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

A

▪ Dynamically assigns IP addresses and allows a workstation to load a copy of boot image to the network

170
Q

Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP)

A

▪ Assigns an IP based on an assignable scope or addresses and provides the ability to configure other options
▪ 192.168.1.100 through 192.168.1.200
● Each IP is leased for a period of time and returns to the pool when the lease expires

171
Q

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

A

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a DHCP server
▪ Allows for the quick configuration of a LAN without the need for a DHCP server
▪ APIPA-assigned devices cannot communicate outside the LAN or with non-APIPA devices

172
Q

Zero Configuration (ZeroConf)

A

▪ New technology that provides the same features as APIPA
▪ Assign an IPv4 link-local address to a client
▪ Resolve computer names to IP addresses without the need for DNS by using mDNS (multicast domain name service)
▪ Perform service discovery on a network
● Windows
- Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution (LLMNR)
● Linux
-SystemD

173
Q

Domain Name System (DNS)

A

▪ Helps network clients find a website using human-readable hostnames instead of numeric IP addresses

174
Q

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

A

▪ Domain name under a top-level provider Ex. is .UK .US .COM .NET

175
Q

DNS Records

A

A - Links host name to an IPv4 address
AAAA - links a host name to an IPv6 address
CNAME - points a domain to another domain or sub domain - (CNAME records can only be used to point to another domain or subdomain, not to an IP address)
MX - directs e-mails to an email server
TXT - adds texts into a DNS
NAMESERVER - indicates which DNS name server has authority

176
Q

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

A

▪ provides the cryptographic authentication mechanism for mail using a public key published as a DNS record

177
Q

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)

A

▪ Framework that is used for proper application of SPF and DKIM, utilizing a policy that’s published as a DNS record

178
Q

Nameserver

A

▪ Type of DNS server that stores all the DNS records for a given domain

179
Q

Internal DNS

A

▪ Allows cloud instances on the same network access each other using internal DNS names

180
Q

External DNS

A

▪ Records created around the domain names from a central authority and used on the public Internet

181
Q

Time to Live (TTL)

A

▪ Tells the DNS resolver how long to cache a query before requesting a new one

182
Q

DNS Resolver/DNS Cache

A

▪ Makes a local copy of every DNS entry it resolves as connected to websites

183
Q

Recursive Lookup

A

▪ DNA server communicates with several other DNS servers to hunt down
the IP address and return to the client

184
Q

Iterative Lookup

A

▪ Each DNS server responds directly to the client with an address for another DNS server that may have the correct IP address

185
Q

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

A

▪ Allows different logical networks to share the same physical hardware and provides added security and efficiency

186
Q

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A

▪ Extends a private network across a public network and enables sending and receiving data across shared or public networks

187
Q

Full Tunnel VPN

A

▪ Routes and encrypts all network requests through the VPN connection back to the headquarters

188
Q

Split Tunnel VPN

A

▪ Routes and encrypts only the traffic bound for the headquarters over the VPN, and sends the rest of the traffic to the regular Internet

189
Q

Clientless VPN

A

▪ Creates a secure remote-access VPN tunnel using a web browser without requiring a software or hardware client

190
Q

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

A

▪ Provides cryptography and reliability using the upper layers of the OSI model (Layers 5, 6, and 7)

191
Q

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

A

▪ Provides secure web browsing over HTTPS

192
Q

Dual Stack

A

▪ Simultaneously runs both the IPv4 and IPv6 protocols on the same network devices

193
Q

Tunneling

A

▪ Allows an existing IPv4 router to carry IPv6 traffic

194
Q

● Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

A

o Port 25
o Provides the ability to send emails over the network

195
Q

● Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP)

A

o Ports 67, 68
o Automatically provides network parameters such as
assigned IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the
DNS server

196
Q

● Domain Name Service (DNS)

A

o Port 53
o Converts domain names to IP addresses, and IP address
to domain names

197
Q

● Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

A

o Port 80
o Used for insecure web browsing

198
Q

● Post Office Protocol Version Three (POP3)

A

o Port 110
o Used for receiving incoming emails

199
Q

● Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)7

A

o Ports 137, 139
o Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network

200
Q

● Internet Mail Application Protocol (IMAP)

A

o Port 143
o A newer method of retrieving incoming emails which
improves upon the older POP3

201
Q

● Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

A

o Ports 161, 162
o Used to collect data about network devices and monitor
their status

202
Q

● Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

A

o Port 389
o Used to provide directory services to your network

203
Q

● Hypertext Transfer Protocol – Secure (HTTPS)

A

o Port 443
o Used as a secure and encrypted version of web browsing
▪ SSL (Secure Socket Layer)
▪ TLS (Transport Layer Security)

204
Q

● Server Message Block (SMB)

A

o Port 445
o Used for Windows file and printer sharing services

205
Q

● Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

A

o Port 3389
o Provides graphical remote control of another client or
server
o RDP provides a full graphical user interface

206
Q

● TCP (Connection-Oriented)

A

o SSH, HTTP or HTTPS

207
Q

● UDP (Connectionless)

A

o Audio, video streaming, DHCP, and TFTP

208
Q

▪ Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP)

A

● Ports 67, 68
● Automatically provides network parameters
such as assigned IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and the DNS server

209
Q

▪ Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

A

● Ports 69
● a connectionless protocol that uses UDP as
its transport

210
Q

Server

A

▪ Can be configured to allow the clients on the network to access the network and be able to read and write to its disk (file share)

211
Q

Print Server

A

▪ Another server that could be a physical workstation or network infrastructure that provides printing functionality

212
Q

Windows-based file and print server

A
  • Relies on the NetBIOS protocol or SMB
    ● Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)
  • Ports 137, 139
  • Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network
    ● Server Message Block (SMB)
  • Port 445
  • Used for Windows file and printer sharing services
213
Q

Samba

A

▪ Provides the ability for a Linux or Unix server to be able to host files or printers that can then be used by Windows clients running the SMB protocol

214
Q

Web Servers

A

▪ Any server that provides access to a website
● HTTP
- Port 80
● HTTPS
- Port 443

215
Q

Internet Information Services (IIS)

A

▪ Extensible web server software, created by Microsoft (HTTP, HTTP/2, and HTTPS)

216
Q

Apache

A

▪ Most popular way to run a web server these days

217
Q

NGINX

A

▪ Reverse proxy, load balancer, mail proxy, and HTTP cache

218
Q

Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

A

▪ Combines the fully qualified domain name with a protocol at the beginning

219
Q

● Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

A
  • Specifies how emails should be delivered from one mail
    domain to another
  • Send mail transfer protocol
  • SMTP operates over port 25
220
Q

● Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3)

A
  • Older email protocol which operates over port 110
221
Q

● Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

A
  • Mail retrieval protocol
  • IMAP operates over port 143 and can connect to a server
    and receive and read messages
222
Q

● Microsoft Exchange

A
  • Mailbox server environment designed for Windows-based
    domain environments
223
Q

802.1x

A

▪ Standardized framework used for port-based authentication on wired and
wireless networks

224
Q

Authentication

A

▪ Occurs when a person’s identity is established with proof and is confirmed by the system
● Something you know
● Something you are
● Something you have
● Something you do
● Somewhere you are

225
Q

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

A

▪ A database used to centralize information about clients and objects on the network

226
Q

o Active Directory (AD)A

A

▪ Used to organize and manage the network, including clients, servers, devices, users, and groups

227
Q

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

A

▪ Provides centralized administration of dial-up, VPN, and wireless
authentication services for 802.1x and the EAP
● RADIUS operates at the application layer
● RADIUS utilizes UDP for making connections

228
Q

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+)

A

▪ Proprietary version of RADIUS that can perform the role of an authenticator in 802.1x networks

229
Q

Authorization

A

▪ Occurs when a user is given access to a certain piece of data or certain areas of a building

230
Q

Kerberos

A

▪ Authentication protocol used by Windows to provide for two-way (mutual) authentication using a system of tickets
▪ A domain controller can be a single point of failure for Kerberos

231
Q

Telnet Port 23

A

▪ Sends text-based commands to remote devices and is a very old networking protocol
▪ Telnet should never be used to connect to secure devices

232
Q

Secure Shell (SSH) Port 22

A

▪ Encrypts everything that is being sent and received between the client and the server

233
Q

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Port 3389

A

▪ Provides graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection
▪ Remote desktop gateway (RDG) creates a secure connection to tunnel into the RDP

234
Q

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) Port 5900

A

▪ Designed for thin client architectures

235
Q

Terminal Emulator (TTY)

A

▪ Any kind of software that replicates the TTY I/O functionality to remotely connect to a device
▪ TTY is the terminal or end point of the communication between the computer and the end-user

236
Q

Syslog

A

▪ Enables different appliances and software applications to transmit logs to
a centralized server
▪ Syslog is the de facto standard for logging events
● PRI code (Priority code)
● Header
● Message

237
Q

Proxy Server

A

▪ Devices that create a network connection between an end user’s client machine and a remote resource (web server)
● Increased network speed and efficiency
● Increased security
● Additional auditing capabilities

238
Q

Load Balancer/ Content Switch

A

▪ Distributes incoming requests across a number of servers inside a server farm or a cloud infrastructure
▪ A load balancer is one of the key things to help defend against a DoS attack or a DDoS attack

239
Q

Access Control List (ACL)

A

▪ Rule sets placed on the firewalls, routers, and other network devices that permit or allow traffic through a particular interface
▪ The actions are performed top-down inside of an ACL
● Top
- Specific rules
● Bottom
- Generic rules

240
Q

Firewall

A

▪ Inspects and controls the traffic that is trying to enter or leave a network’s boundary

● Packet-filtering
● Stateful
● Proxy
● Dynamic packet-filtering
● Kernel proxy

241
Q

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

A

▪ Provides the ability to conduct security functions within a single device or network appliance

242
Q
A
243
Q
A
244
Q
A
245
Q
A
246
Q
A
247
Q
A
248
Q
A
249
Q
A
250
Q
A
251
Q
A
252
Q
A

Jasion Dion A+ 220-1101 notes (8 decks)

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