Thermal Injuries Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four causes of thermal burns?

A

Flame
Flash
Scald
Contact with hot objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three causes of chemical burns?

A

acids
alkalis
organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are three injuries associated with smoke and inhalation injury?

A

Metabolic asphyxiation
upper airway injury
lower airway injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contact with electric current can cause ______ ______ strong enough to ____ long bones and vertebrae

A

muscle contractions; fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Possible complications from an electrical burn

A

dysrhythmias
severe metabolic acidosis
myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 5 different types of burns?

A

Thermal, chemical, smoking/inhalation injury, electrical and cold thermal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are burn injuries classified?

A

Depth of burn
Extent of burn
Location of burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At the scene of the (burn) injury, priority is given to ______ & _______

A

removing the person from the source of the burn; stopping the burning process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Small thermal burns should be ______ for the patient’s comfort and protection until medical care is available

A

covered with a clean, cool, tap-water dampened towel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To prevent hypothermia cool large burns for no more than ____ minutes

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three phases of burn management

A

1) Emergent
2) Acute
3) Rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the primary concerns during the emergent phase?

A

hypovolemic shock

edema formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Major electrolyte shifts of ____ & _____ occur during the emergent phase

A

sodium; potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A _____ shift develops first because injured cells and hemolyzed RBCs release _____ into circulation

A

potassium; potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of burns are painless at first?

A

full-thickness and deep partial-thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of burns are usually painful at first

A

superficial to moderate partial-thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can a patient with a larger burn area develop?

A

paralytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What three body systems are most susceptible to complications during the emergent phase?

A
  1. cardiovascular
  2. respiratory
  3. urinary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are cardiovascular complications in the emergent phase?

A

dysrhythmias
hypovolemic shock
sludging
VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are complications associated with deep circumferential burns?

A

ischemia
paresthesia
necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for a deep circumferential burn?

A

escharotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are respiratory complications in the emergent phase?

A

upper airway distress

airway injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False. There is a correlation between the percentage TBSA and the severity of inhalation

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How soon do patients with burns to the face and neck need to be intubated?

A

Within 1-2 hours after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
At least 2 large-bore IVs must be in place for patients with burns that are ___% TBSA or more
15
26
For patients with burns greater than ___ % TBSA consider a central line
30
27
Fluid replacement is achieved with ______, _____ solutions or a combination of the two
crystalloid (LR); colloid (albumin)
28
What is the most common formula used for fluid replacement?
Parkland (Baxter)
29
Patients with an ______ injury have greater than normal fluid needs
electrical
30
What is the recommended fluid therapy for the first 24 hours?
2-4 mL LR/kg/% TBSA burned
31
When are colloids administered after a burn injury?
after the first 12-24 hours
32
What is the colloid fluid replacement formula?
0.3-0.5 mL/kg/% TBSA burned
33
Urine output parameters after a burn injury
0.5-1 mL/kg/hr | for ELECTRICAL burns = 75-100 mL/hr
34
Cardiac parameters after a burn injury
MAP > 65 mmHg SBP > 90 mmHg HR < 120 bpm
35
What is given priority once a patent airway, effective circulation and adequate fluid replacement have been achieved?
wound care
36
How do partial-thickness burn wounds appear?
pink to cherry-red; wet, shiny, serous exudate; painful; minor, local sensations
37
What is the source of infection in burn wounds most likely from?
Patient's own flora; skin, respiratory, GI systems
38
What should the nurse do if the patient's burn wounds are exposed?
Always wear PPE
39
What should the nurse do with the room's temperature with a burn patient?
Keep the room warm
40
What should not be used with patients with ear burns?
Pillows
41
Early in the post-burn period ___ pain medications should be given
IV opioid
42
What is given routinely to all burn patients because of the likelihood of anaerobic burn wound contamination?
tetanus
43
What do many burn antimicrobial creams contain?
Sulfa
44
What are clinical manifestations of the acute phase?
eschar removed; red/pink scar tissue
45
How to prevent curling's ulcer?
feeding the patient ASAP after burn injury; H2 blockers; PPIs
46
What can help speed up the removal of dead tissue from the healthy wound bed?
enzymatic debriding agents (collagen)
47
What are the complications during the rehabilitation phase?
skin and joint contractures; hypertrophic scarring
48
What areas are most susceptible to skin and joint contractures?
anterior/lateral neck areas, axillae, antecubital fossae, fingers, groin, popliteal fossae, knees, ankles
49
What are the three different types of hyperthermia?
heat cramps heat exhaustion heatstroke
50
When do heat cramps occur?
during rest after exercise or heavy labor
51
Who is usually affected by heat cramps?
healthy, acclimated athletes with inadequate fluid intake
52
How are heat cramps resolved?
rest and oral/parenteral replacement of sodium/water; elevation, gentle massage, analgesia
53
Patient education for heat cramps
avoid strenuous activity for at least 12 hr; salt replacement during strenuous exercise in hot, humid environments; sports drinks/pedialyte
54
Clinical Manifestations of heat exhaustion
fatigue, nausea, vomiting, extreme thirst, anxiety, hypotension, tachycardia, fever, dilated pupils, confusion, ashen color, profuse sweating
55
First action of nurse with heat exhaustion?
place patient in cool area and remove restrictive clothing
56
What do you not use with a patient experiencing heat exhaustion?
salt tablets - potential gastric irritaiton and hypernatremia
57
True or False. Heatstroke is a medical emergency
True
58
When does the core temperature increase with a heatstroke?
within 10-15 minutes
59
Heatstroke nursing interventions
100% O2, BVM or mechanical ventilation; ECG monitoring; correct fluid/electrolytes
60
What are the cooling methods for heatstroke?
removing clothing, covering with wet sheets, placing patient in front of large fan; immersing patient in a cool water bath; apply ice packs to groin and axillae; peritoneal lavaging with iced fluids
61
Do you want a patient with hyperthermia to shiver?
No
62
What medication can we give to control shivering?
chlorpromazine IV
63
What complication do we need to monitor for with hyperthermia?
rhabdomyolysis
64
What body parts are usually affected by superficial frostbite?
ears, nose, fingers, toes
65
How is the skin affected with superficial frostbite
waxy pale yellow, blue, mottled; feels crunchy, frozen; tingling, numbness, burning sensation
66
What should be avoided with frostbite?
heavy blankets and clothing
67
What body parts are affected with deep frostbite?
muscle, bone, tendon
68
How is the skin affected with deep frostbite?
hard, insensitive to touch; mottling progressing to gangrene
69
What is the body's first attempt to conserve heat?
Peripheral vasoconstriction
70
As cold temperatures persist, ____ & ____ are the body's only mechanisms for producing heat
shivering; movement
71
Clinical Manifestations of mild hypothermia
shivering, lethargy, confusion, rational to irrational behavior, minor heart rate changes
72
Clinical Manifestations of moderate hypothermia
rigidity, bradycardia, slowed respiratory rate, BP only obtainable by Doppler, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, hypovolemia
73
At what core temperature does shivering diminish or disappear?
89.6
74
Cold blood becomes _____ and acts as a _______
thick; thrombus
75
Severe hypothermia makes the person appear _____
dead
76
Clinical Manifestations of severe hypothermia
metabolic rate, heart rate, respirations so slow they may be difficult to detect; reflexes absent; pupils fixed and dilated; profound bradycardia, ventricular fibrillation, asystole
77
True or False. With severe hypothermia every effort must be made to rewarm the patient to at least 86 F before the person is pronounced dead
True
78
What are some passive or spontaneous rewarming methods for hypothermia?
moving patient to a warm, dry place; removing damp clothing; radiant lights; warm blankets
79
What are some active external or surface rewarming methods for hypothermia?
fluid- or air-filled warming blankets, warm water immersion
80
When do you use active internal or core rewarming methods?
moderate to severe hypothermia
81
Active internal or core rewarming techniques
heated humidified O2; warmed IV fluids; peritoneal lavage with warmed fluids; extracorporeal circulation with cardiopulmonary bypass, rapid fluid infuser, hemodialysis
82
Which portion of the body do you rewarm first with hypothermia?
Core warmed first before the extremities
83
When do you discontinue active rewarming?
Once the core temperature reaches 89.6-93.2 F