Neurological System Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical manifestations of a basilar skull fracture include _____ ______ deficits, ______ sign and _________ ecchymosis

A

cranial nerve; Battle’s; periorbital

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2
Q

define rhinorrhea

A

CSF leakage from the nose

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3
Q

define otorrhea

A

CSF leakage from the ear

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4
Q

_______ & _______ generally confirms that the fracture has traversed the dura

A

rhinorrhea; otorrhea

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5
Q

The risk of _________ is high with a CSF leak; _______ should be administered as a preventive measure

A

meningitis; antibiotics

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6
Q

What are the two methods of testing for CSF

A
  1. dextrostix/Tes-Tape

2. look for halo or ring sign

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7
Q

What are the major potential complications of skull fractures?

A

intracranial infections, hematoma, meningeal & brain tissue damage

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8
Q

What type of tube would be used with a basilar skull fracture?

A

orogastric tube

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9
Q

_______ is considered a minor diffuse head injury

A

Concussion

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10
Q

what are the three typical signs of a concussion?

A

brief disruption of LOC, amnesia regarding the event, headache

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11
Q

When does postconcussion syndrome usually happen?

A

2 weeks-2 months after injury

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12
Q

What are manifestations of postconcussion syndrome?

A

persistent headache, lethargy, personality/behavioral changes, shortened attention span, decreased short-term memory, intellectual ability changes

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13
Q

What are clinical signs of DAI

A

decreased LOC, increased ICP, decortication or decerebration, global cerebral edema

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14
Q

A _______ is usually associated with a closed head injury

A

contusion

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15
Q

A contusion may contain areas of _______, _______, _______, and _______

A

hemorrhage; infarction; necrosis; edema

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16
Q

A contusion will frequently occur at a ________ site

A

fracture

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17
Q

What occurs with a coup-contrecoup injury?

A

Contusions occur at the site of the direct impact of the brain on the skull and on the opposite side away from the injury - results in multiple contused areas

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18
Q

contusions may continue to _____ or _____

A

bleed; rebleed

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19
Q

Contusions may appear to ______ on subsequent CT scans of the brain

A

“blossom”

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20
Q

_____ can occur as a result of a brain contusion

A

Seizures

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21
Q

What is the best diagnostic tool to evaluate for head trauma?

A

CT san

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22
Q

What is the best diagnostic tool to evaluate for small lesions?

A

MRI

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23
Q

What are the primary management strategies for a patient with concussion and contusion?

A

Observation and management of increased ICP

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24
Q

What are the main goals of nursing for a patient with a head injury?

A

maintain cerebral oxygenation and perfusion; prevent secondary cerebral ischemia

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25
The _____ is useful in assessing the LOC
GCS
26
what are two signs of a deteriorating neurological state?
decreasing LOC, decreasing motor strength
27
What are eye problems associated with a head injury?
loss of the corneal reflex, periorbital ecchymosis, periorbital edema, diplopia
28
Nursing interventions for loss of corneal reflex
lubricating eye drops; taping eyes shut
29
Nursing interventions for periorbital ecchymosis and edema
cold & warm compresses
30
Nursing intervention for diplopia
eye patch
31
If CSF rhinorrhea or otorrhea occurs what do you do?
Inform HCP immediately
32
What do you do when rhinorrhea or otorrhea occurs?
raise HOB, loose collection pad under nose or over the ear, no sneezing/blowing nose, no NG tubes, no nasotracheal suctioning
33
True or False. You place a dressing in the nasal or ear cavities with CSF rhinorrhea or otorrhea
False
34
True or False. Whites have a higher incidence of malignant brain tumors than African Americans
True
35
True or False. White males have the highest incidence of malignant brain tumors
True
36
True or False. Whites have a higher incidence of benign brain tumors than blacks
False - Blacks have a higher incidence of benign brain tumors than whites
37
What kind of brain tumors are the most common?
Metastatic
38
What are the most common primary brain tumors?
meningiomas
39
When are tumor-related headaches the worst?
at night, may awaken the patient
40
What are cognitive changes associated with brain tumors?
memory problems, mood/personality changes
41
What are the three complications with brain tumor expansion?
increased ICP, cerebral edema, obstruction of CSF pathways
42
Which diagnostic tools are the most reliable for brain tumors?
MRI & PET
43
The correct diagnosis of a brain tumor can be made by obtaining _______ for _______
tissue; histologic study
44
What is the preferred treatment for brain tumors?
surgical removal
45
What are the 5 manifestations of a ventricular shunt malfunction?
decreased LOC, restlessness, headache, blurred vision, vomiting
46
Three signs of an infection associated with shunt malfunction?
high fever, persistent headache, stiff neck
47
Chemotherapy drugs called _______ are used to treat brain tumors
nitrosoureas (carmustine, lomustine)
48
________ is an oral chemotherapy agent that can cross the blood-brain barrier
Temozolomide
49
Does temozolomide interact with antiseizure medications, corticosteroids or antiemetics?
No
50
Temozolomide causes _________
myelosuppression
51
How can you reduce nausea and vomiting when taking temozolomide?
Take on empty stomach
52
Will a patient be taken to the ICU after cranial surgery?
Yes
53
What is the primary goal of care after cranial surgery?
prevention of increased ICP
54
After a cranial surgery the head of bed should remain at how many degrees?
30
55
If a burr hole was made or a posterior fossa approach was used how many degrees should the head of bed be?
10-15 or flat
56
When observing a dressing post cranial surgery, when should you notify the surgeon?
When there is excessive bleeding or clear drainage
57
Once the dressing is removing post cranial surgery, use ________ for washing the scalp
antiseptic soap
58
Who has the greatest risk for a spinal cord injury?
young adult men 16-30 years old
59
Primary injuries of a spinal cord injury
cord compression by bone displacement, interrupted blood supply to cord, traction from pulling on the cord; gunshot and stab wounds
60
______ can occur following acute SCI
spinal shock
61
Characteristics of spinal shock
decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, absent thermoregulation, flaccid paralysis below injury level
62
If the _____ cord is involved, paralysis of all four extremities occurs
cervical
63
If the _____, ______, or ______ spinal cord is damaged, paraplegia occurs
thoracic; lumbar; sacral
64
Respiratory issues with a spinal cord injury above C4
total loss of respiratory muscle function
65
Injury or fracture below C4 results in _______ breathing if phrenic nerve is still functioning
diaphragmatic
66
Any cord injury above ____ leads to dysfunction of the sympathetic nervous system
T6
67
_______ is a common development in acute SCI and spinal shock
urinary retention
68
Common GI issues after SCI
gastric distention, paralytic ileus, delayed gastric emptying, stress ulcers, dysphagia , intraabdominal bleeding, incontinence, constipation, hemorrhoids
69
Spinal cord disruption is also marked by decreased ability to _____ or _____ below the level of injury
sweat; shiver
70
Nasogastric suctioning may lead to _______
metabolic alkalosis
71
_______ is a common problem accompanying SCI during the first 3 months
VTE
72
_______ is a leading cause of death in patients with SCI
pulmonary embolism
73
How is musculoskeletal nociceptive pain described?
dull, aching
74
When does musculoskeletal nociceptive pain worsen?
with movement
75
How is visceral nociceptive pain described?
dull, tender, cramping
76
What causes neuropathic pain in SCIs?
damage to the spinal cord or nerve roots
77
How is neuropathic pain described?
hot, burning, tingling, pins and needles, cold, shooting
78
What is the preferred diagnostic tool for SCIs?
CT scan
79
Initial management includes maintaining oxygen saturation above ___, and SBP greater than ____
90%; 90 mmHg
80
Voluntary anal contraction indicates ______
incomplete SCI
81
With SCIs the only clue to internal trauma with hemorrhage may be _____ and ______
rapidly decreasing BP; increasing pulse
82
How do you move a patient with a SCI
logroll
83
What drugs are used to maintain the MAP at greater than 85-90 mmHg to improve perfusion to the spinal cord?
phenylephrine, norepinephrine
84
What do you do if a patient with an SCI has crackles or coarse breath sounds?
tracheal suctioning
85
Maintain SBP greater than _____ at all times and keep MAP between _____ for the first 7 days following an SCI
90 mmHg; 85-90 mmHg
86
What interventions can be used for a SCI patient with orthostatic hypotension?
salt tablets, fludrocortisone, midodrine; SCDs; stockings; abdominal binder
87
What type of diet does a SCI get?
high-protein, high-calorie, increased fiber
88
What medications can be given for neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin, pregabalin
89
What medications can help control spasms?
baclofen, dantrolene, tizanidine, botulism toxin injections
90
What is the most common precipitating cause of autonomic hyperreflexia?
distended bladder or rectum
91
Autonomic hyperreflexia manifestations?
hypertension (up to 300 mmHg), throbbing headache, marked diaphoresis above level of injury, bradycardia, piloerection, flushing of skin above level of injury, blurred vision, spots in the visual field, nasal congestion, anxiety, nausea
92
What do you do when a patient with a SCI complains of a headache?
Measure blood pressure
93
Nursing interventions for autonomic hyperreflexia
elevate HOB to 45 degrees or sit patient upright, determine the cause, notify HCP, remove constrictive clothing and tight shoes, urinary catheterization, digital rectal exam or anesthetic rectal ointment
94
If autonomic hyperreflexia symptoms persist after the source has been relieved what do you do?
administer nitroglycerin, nitroprusside, or hydralazine
95
When should oral stimulant laxatives be used with a SCI?
Only if absolutely necessary and not on a regular basis
96
What type of spinal cord injury is the Valsalva maneuver used?
Injuries below T12