Therapy of Osteoporosis Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoporosis is a bone disorder characterized by:

A

1) Low bone mineral density
2) Impaired bone architecture
3) Compromised bone strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

1) Female gender
2) Advanced age
3) Low body weight
4) Systemic oral glucocorticoid therapy
5) Cigarette smoking
6) Alcohol (3 or more drinks/day)
7) Low calcium intake
8) Low physical activity
9) Vitamin D insufficiency and deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs can cause osteoporosis?

A

1) Glucocorticoids
2) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
3) Antidepressants
4) Aromatase inhibitors
5) Androgen-Deprivation Therapy (GnRH)
6) Anticonvulsant therapy
7) Furosemide
8) Heparin
9) Thiazolidinediones
10) Canagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In people taking glucocorticoids, fracture risk increases before ___ are detected.

A

Changes in bone mass density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

1) Decrease osteocyte and osteoblast function
2) Increase osteocyte and osteoblast apoptosis
3) Increase osteoclast proliferation
4) Decrease osteoclast apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do glucocorticoids do in reference to calcium?

A

1) Decrease calcium absorption
2) Increase urinary calcium excretion

Via alterations in calcium transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do antidepressants cause osteoporosis?

A

Increased peripheral serotonin levels = Increased osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do aromatase inhibitors cause osteoporosis?

A

Reduce peripheral estrogen levels =
1) Upregulates osteoclast formation
2) Increases the lifespan of osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Estrogen deficiency leads to:

A

1) Increased bone loss
2) Cortical porosity
3) Enlarged resorption areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does androgen-deprivation therapy cause osteoporosis?

A

Increases interleukin-6 (IL-6) = Stimulates osteoclastogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do androgen receptors (ARs) on osteoblasts do?

A

Promote osteoblast differentiation = Decreases bone resorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does Furosemide cause osteoporosis?

A

Via increased calcium excretion by the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The primary goal of osteoporosis care should be:

A

Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should you do to reduce the future incidence of osteoporosis?

A

Optimize skeletal development and peak bone mass gain in childhood, adolescence, and early adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Once low bone mass or osteoporosis develops, the objective is to:

A

1) Stabilize bone
2) Improve bone strength and mass
3) Prevent fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In patients who have already suffered osteoporotic fractures, the objective is to:

A

1) Reduce pain and deformity
2) Improve functional capacity
3) Improve quality of life
4) Reduce future falls and fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first step in prevention and treatment of osteoporosis?

A

Adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___ is advised in any postmenopausal woman, or man age 50 years and older, presenting with a hip or vertebral fracture or low bone mass.

A

Prescription therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What increases calcium absorption?

A

1) Carbohydrates
2) Fat
3) Lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What decreases calcium absorption?

A

1) Fiber
2) Wheat bran
3) Phytates (beans)
4) Oxylates (spinach)
5) High-protein diets
6) Caffeine
7) Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 main sources of vitamin D?

A

1) Sunlight
2) Diet
3) Supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vitamin D3 and D2 come from:

A

1) Oily fish
2) Eggs
3) Fortified dairy products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inadequate concentrations of which form of vitamin D are common?

A

25(OH) vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Low vitamin D concentrations result from:

A

1) Insufficient intake
2) Dietary fat malabsorption
3) Decreased sun exposure
4) Decreased skin production
5) Decreased liver and renal metabolism of vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Endogenous synthesis of vitamin D can be decreased by:

A

Sunscreen use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Darkly pigmented skin can ___(increase/decrease) vitamin D production.

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When are the troughs and peaks in vitamin D in respect to the seasons?

A

Troughs: Late winter
Peaks: Late summer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does alcohol increase the risk for fractures and osteoporosis?

A

1) Increases bone resorption and decreases bone formation by inhibiting signaling pathways

2) Increasing oxidative stress that results in osteoblast apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alcoholics may have:

A

1) Poor nutrition
2) Decreased calcium absorption
3) Altered vitamin D metabolism
4) Impaired balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Excessive caffeine consumption may be associated with:

A

1) Increased calcium excretion
2) Increased rates of bone loss
3) Modestly increased risk for fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The effect of smoking on bone mass density is dependent on what?

A

1) Dose
2) Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does smoking increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures?

A

1) Reduces intestinal calcium absorption
2) Increases 25(OH) vitamin D catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does exercise decrease the risk of falls and fractures?

A

1) Stabilizes bone density
2) Improves muscle strength, coordination, balance, and mobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lack of physical activity can lead to:

A

1) Suboptimal loading/straining
2) Decreased stimulation of bone deposition
3) Reduced peak bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

All patients who are medically fit should be encouraged to perform:

A

1) A moderate-intensity weight bearing activity (walking, jogging, golf, and stair climbing) daily.

2) A resistance activity (weight machines, free weights, or elastic bands).

34
Q

First line osteoporosis treatments?

A

1) Bisphosphonates
2) Calcium
3) Vitamin D intake
4) Denosumab

35
Q

Which drugs are first line bisphosphonates?

A

1) Alendronate
2) Risedronate
3) Zoledronic acid

36
Q

Which drugs are alternatives for osteoporosis?

A

1) Ibandronate (Bisphosphonate)
2) Teriparatide (PTH analog)
3) Raloxifene (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS)

37
Q

Which drug is last line for osteoporosis?

A

Calcitonin

38
Q

Antiresorptive therapies include:

A

1) Calcium
2) Vitamin D
3) Bisphosphonates
4) Denosumab
5) Estrogen agonists/antagonists (Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs))
6) Tissue selective estrogen complexes
7) Calcitonin
8) Estrogen
9) Testosterone

39
Q

Calcium supplements should be combined with:

A

Vitamin D

40
Q

Adverse effects of calcium supplementation?

A

1) Constipation
2) Gas and cause stomach upset
3) May increase kidney stones

41
Q

Which drugs decrease calcium absorption?

A

1) Proton pump inhibitors
2) Fiber laxatives

42
Q

Calcium can decrease the oral absorption of some drugs including:

A

1) Iron
2) Tetracyclines
3) Quinolones
4) Bisphosphonates
5) Thyroid supplements

43
Q

Vitamin D daily maintenance dose?

A

800-2,000 units daily

44
Q

___ is the best indicator of total body vitamin D status.

A

Serum 25(OH) vitamin D

45
Q

Which drugs can induce vitamin D metabolism?

A

1) Rifampin
2) Phenytoin
3) Barbiturates
4) Carbamazepine

46
Q

Vitamin D absorption can be decreased by:

A

1) Cholestyramine
2) Colestipol
3) Orlistat
4) Mineral oil

47
Q

___ are indicated for postmenopausal females, males, and glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis.

A

Bisphosphonates

48
Q

Intravenous and oral ___ is indicated only for postmenopausal osteoporosis.

A

Ibandronate

49
Q

Bisphosphonates are analogs of:

A

Pyrophosphate

50
Q

Intravenous and oral Ibandronate is indicated
only for:

A

Postmenopausal osteoporosis

51
Q

What is pyrophosphate?

A

An endogenous bone resorption inhibitor

52
Q

What do bisphosphonates do?

A

Decrease osteoclast:
1) Maturation
2) Number
3) Recruitment
4) Bone adhesion
5) Life span

53
Q

Bisphosphonates delay formation and dissolution of:

A

Hydroxyapatite crystals

54
Q

Bisphosphonates localize to regions of:

A

Bone resorption

55
Q

The effect of bisphosphonates is ___-dependent and greatest when?

A

Dose; in the first year of therapy.

56
Q

Adverse effects of bisphosphonates?

A

1) GI complaints (Most common)
a) Heartburn
b) Dyspepsia
c) Esophageal erosion
d) Esophageal ulceration
e) GI bleeding

2) Injection reactions and musculoskeletal pain

3) Fever, flu-like symptoms, myalgias, and arthralgias with IV administration

4) Osteonecrosis of the jaw

5) Atypical subtrochanteric femoral fractures

57
Q

What alternatives are used if bisphosphonates cause GI upset?

A

1) IV Ibandronate
2) IV Zoledronic acid

58
Q

Contraindications for bisphosphonates?

A

1) Patients with creatinine clearances <30-35 mL/min

2) Patients who have serious GI upset, peptic ulcer disease, or esophageal motility disorders

3) Pregnant patients

59
Q

How should you take bisphosphonates?

A

1) Take 180 mL of plain water at least 30-60 minutes before consuming anything

2) Remain upright for at least 30-60 minutes after administration

60
Q

When can a patient who misses a weekly bisphosphonate dose take it?

A

The next day

61
Q

A patient missed a weekly bisphosphonate dose and realized it 3 days later. When can they take it?

A

Skip that dose and wait for the next weekly dose.

62
Q

A patient missed a monthly bisphosphonate dose, but the next dose is 7 days away. When can they take it?

A

Take it now

63
Q

A patient missed a monthly bisphosphonate dose, but the next dose is 6 days away. When can they take it?

A

Skip it and wait for the next dose

64
Q

Before IV bisphosphonates are used, the patient’s serum __ concentration must be normalized.

A

Calcium

65
Q

___ should be monitored before each dose of zoledronic acid.

A

Creatinine clearance

66
Q

How is the quarterly ibandronate injection given?

A

Slowly, intravenously over 15 - 30 seconds.

67
Q

How can Ibandronate be given?

A

1) Injection
2) Infusion

68
Q

How do you administer once-yearly zoledronic acid?

A

Infused over at least 15 minutes with a pump

69
Q

___ can be given to decrease acute phase reactions in bisphosphonates.

A

Acetaminophen

70
Q

Which problem in bisphosphonates causes decreased effectiveness?

A

Poor adherence (Low patient compliance)

71
Q

A drug holiday could be considered in postmenopausal women after _ years of oral
bisphosphonates or _ years of intravenous bisphosphonates.

A

5; 3

72
Q

What is another therapeutic use for bisphosphonates?

A

Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy

73
Q

When is Denosumab indicated?

A

1) In women and men at high risk of fractures

2) To increase bone mass in men receiving androgen deprivation therapy or LHRH agonists for nonmetastatic prostate cancer

3) In women receiving adjuvant aromatase inhibitor therapy for breast cancer who are at high risk of fractures

74
Q

What is Flutamide?

A

Antiandrogens

75
Q

What is Leuprolide?

A

LHRH agonist

76
Q

What is Anastrozole?

A

Aromatase inhibitor

77
Q

Denosumab binds to:

A

RANKL

78
Q

Denosumab mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits RANKL binding to its RANK receptor on the surface of osteoclast precursor cells and mature osteoclasts

79
Q

What does the RANK receptor activate?

A

Nuclear factor-κb

80
Q

RANKL/RANK signaling regulates the formation
of:

A

Multinucleated osteoclasts from their precursors as well as their activation and survival in normal bone remodeling =

1) Inhibits osteoclastogenesis
2) Increases osteoclast apoptosis

81
Q

Following subcutaneous injection of Denosumab, rapid suppression of bone turnover occurs within:

A

12 hours

82
Q

Denosumab’s bone mass density effects are similar to:

A

Weekly alendronate

83
Q

Activity of Denosumab dissipates with:

A

Drug discontinuation

84
Q

Adverse effects of Denosumab?

A

1) Dermatitis, eczema, and rashes

2) Marked bone turnover suppression = Muscle, bone, and joint pain and atypical femoral fractures

3) Serious infections including skin infections

4) Hypocalcemia

85
Q

What should you monitor within 14 days of administering Denosumab if the patient has a ClCr < 30 mL/min?

A

1) Serum calcium
2) Serum Magnesium
3) Serum Phosphorus