Therapeutics - Anti Arrhythmic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what is normal sinus rhythm?

A

60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the pathway of normal sinus rhythm

A

starts with electrical impulses generated at the SA

SA located at the right atrium

spreads to atria to AV node

travels down bundle of HIs

further spreads to bundle branches

reaches the purkinje fibers which stimulate ventricle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is an arrhythmia

A

an irregular heartbeat

occurs when electrical signals that control the heart rhythm do not work properly

heart beats too fast or too slow or irregular pattern (fibrillation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

p wave controls what action of the heart

A

activation of the atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the qrs wave controls which action of the heart

A

activation of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the t wave control

A

recovery wave, repolarization of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Supraventricular arrhythmias occur where in the heart

A

above the bundle of his

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where does normal sinus node originate

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal sinus rhythm transmits through the _____ to the his purkinje system

A

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how to measure rhythm of the heart

A

EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the supraventricular arrhythmias

A

sinus brady, sinus tachy, paroxysmal supraventricular tachy, atrial flutter, atrial fib, WPW, premature atrial contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F supraventricular arrhthymias are characterized by normal QRS complexes

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T or F ventricular arrhythmias are considered emergent and life threatening

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the ventricular arrhythmias

A

premature ventricular contractions, ventricular tachy, ventricular fib, pulseless electrial activity, asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what types of conduction blocks are there

A

first, second, third AV block
left or right bundle branch block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sinus brady is ____ bpm

A

less than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some causes of sinus brady?

A

increased vagal tone - parasympathetic effects
inferior wall MI
medications such as beta blockers, verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the symptoms of sinus brady?

A

from none to
organ hypoperfusion
hypotension, altered mental status, shock, ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the first step to treat sinus brady?

A

find the causes and correct causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the first line treatment of sinus brady?

A

atropine 1 mg IV repeat every 3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the maximum dose of atropine

A

3 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what to use for sinus brady if atropine fails?

A

transcutaneous pacing, dopamine and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how many bpm is sinus tachy

A

greater than 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the causes of sinus tachy

A

body attempting to maintain CO and BP, can be physiologic

medications - sympathetic (epinephrine), caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, anything blocking parasympathetic (atropine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the symptoms of sinus tachy?

A

none to
palpitations, irregular pulse, fatigue, syncope, and other signs of organ hypo-perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the non pharmacologic treatment for sinus tachy

A

vagal maneuvers - valsalva, carotid massage to decrease sympathetic tone which increases vagal tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the pharmacologic treatment of sinus tachy?

A

adenosine is the first line of treatment

6 mg IV bolus, can repeat with 12 mg IV bolus q2 minutes

max 30 mg

glush line following bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are some symptoms a patient with sinus tachy treated with adenosine may experience

A

chest heaviness
flushing
anxiety
wheezy or sob In asthma pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

if adenosine does not work for sinus tachy, what other drugs can be used?

A

beta blocker or non DHP CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is seen for afib on an ekg

A

irregularly irregular ventricular rate with NO P WAVES

unreadable because 350 - 450 bpm

ventricular rate ranges from normal to RVR up to 160 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

atrial fibrillation can be paroxysmal which means it lasts _____ days

A

less than 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

atrial fibrillation that last more than 7 days is called

A

persistent afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

can afib be permanent

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some risk factors for afib?

A

age
smoking
sedentary
alcohol
increased weight
taller
htn
db
cvd
ckd
osa
hyperthyroidism
sepsis
more education
more income
white
male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the symptoms of afib

A

none to symptoms of tachycardia

palpitations, irregular pulse, fatigue, syncope, and other signs of organ hypo-perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how can afib be managed?

A

reduce stroke risk
optimize risk factors
symptom management to control rhythm and rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the different risk factors and what are the reccomendations for management

A

overweight - loss greater than 10%

inactive -210 minutes per week of moderate to vigorous

smoke cigarettes - quit

alcohol - minimize or eliminate

caffeine - only as needed to avoid triggers

HTN - reach BP goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the randomized controlled trials comparing rate control versus rhythm control

A

AFFIRM, RACE, AF CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

all the patients in AFFIRM, RACE, AF CHF received

A

oral antioagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what were the results of AFFIRM

A

overall mortality and strokes equivalent, less hospitalizations and AE with rate control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what were the results of the RACE study

A

cardiovascular death and morbidity equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what were the results of the AF CHF

A

cardiovascular death equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what did the EAST ADNET4 study reveal

A

early rhytm control led to fewer composite outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the goals of rate control?

A

to reduce symptoms and have resting HR between 100-110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the pharmacologic options for rate control?

A

beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

why are beta blockers a good option for rate control>

A

inexpensive and generic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the loading dose and maintenance dose of metroprolol for rate control for afib?

A

loading dose - 5 mg IV over 5 minutes for acute rate control
maintenance - 25-100 mg po bid

48
Q

when are beta blockers controindicated?

A

in 2nd or 3rd degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome and severe bradycardia

49
Q

in which pts should beta blockers be avoided

A

if the pt has an hyperactive airway, hypoglycemia in db pts

50
Q

what are the only kind of calcium channel blockers can be used to control rate

A

nondihydropyridines - many formulations

51
Q

what is the loading and maintenance dose of diltiazem for control rate in afib patients

A

loading dose - 0.25 mg/kg IV over 2 minutes, repeat 0.35 mg/kg in 15 mins, then 5-15 mg/hr IV infusion for acute

maintenance dose 60-90 mg tid or 4x day po for long acting

52
Q

what is the loading and maintenance dose for control rate for afib using verapamil

A

loading dose - 5-10 mg IV ocer 2 minutes, can repeat 10 mg in 15-30 m then 5-10 mg/hr IV for acute

maintenance 40-120 mg tid po for long acting

53
Q

calcium channel blockers should be avoided in

54
Q

what kind of DDI should we be aware of for calcium channel blockers

A

CYP450 and CYP3A4

55
Q

afib rate controlled with digoxin needs adjustment for ___ impaired patients

56
Q

which is more effective digoxin or BB/CCBs

57
Q

what is the po dosage for digoxin

A

125 or 250 mcg tablets

58
Q

what is the iv dosage of digoxin

A

100 mcg/ml

59
Q

What are some drug interactions that one should be aware of when administering digoxin?

A

verapamil
quinidine
propafenone
flecainide
amiodarone

pgq inhibitors

60
Q

what is the goal of rhythm control?

A

to reach nsm and reduce symptoms

61
Q

what is acute transition to NSR called

A

cardioversion

62
Q

how can one treat rhythm control “cardioversion”

A

medications like ibutilide, amiodarone, flecainide, propafenone “pill in the pocket?

or can do electrical cardioversion

63
Q

how to maintain rhythm of atrial fib?

A

dofetilide, dronedarone, flecainide, propafenone, amiodarone, sotalol

limited by comorbidities such as MI, HF or structural heart disease

64
Q

if a pt needs to maintain afib rhythm, but has HF, MI or other structural heart disease, what medication can they take?

A

sotalol
amiodarone

65
Q

When should we choose to control rhythm in afib pts

A

if atrial fibrillation is less than a year, and if HF symptoms persist on rate control, hemo instability

short duration, concurrent HF, persistent symptoms, hemodynamically unstable

66
Q

what variables impact whether we control rate or rhythm for afib>

A

patient choice
age
antecedent history of af
symptom burden

rate control in af
la size
lv function in af
av regurgitation in af

67
Q

if the patient is younger, what is preferred, rate or rhythm control?

68
Q

patients with a longer history of afib, should control their

69
Q

patients with more symptoms, treatment of afib faors

A

rhythm control

70
Q

what is the daily dose of flecainide for rhythm control

A

200-300 mg po daily

71
Q

what is the daily dose of propafenone for rhythm control

A

450-900 mg daily

72
Q

what is the dosage of flecainide and propafenone?

A

prn , one dose

73
Q

for flecainide or propafenone, a ____ agent is necessary

A

AV nodal blocking agent

74
Q

what is the daily dose of sotalol for rhythm control in pts with afib

A

150-320 mg daily

75
Q

what are the monitoring parameters of sotalol

A

monitor EKG - QTC interval for initial 3 days then 3-6 months

76
Q

in what pts is sotalol contraindicated in

A

ClCr less than 40 ml/min

77
Q

which drug is most effective in rhythm control in afib patients

A

amiodarone is highly effective

78
Q

amiodarone is highly effective but why is it reserved only for patients who failed other therapies

A

because it has multiple toxicities

79
Q

what is the half life of amiodarone

A

58 days - 15-143

80
Q

T or F amiodarone has large volume distribution

81
Q

what are the DDI of amiodarone

A

it inhibits CYP 1A2, 2D6, 2C9, 3A4, PGP

82
Q

what is the loading dose of amiodarone

A

6-10 mg total

83
Q

what is the maintenance dose of amiodarone

A

200 mg per day

84
Q

what are the monitoring reccomendations for amiodarone

A

baseline - cxr, alt/ast, tsh, ekg
repeat every 6 months : tsh, alt/ast
repeat every year - ekg, physical (for skin and neuropathy)

others as clinicaly indicated - CXR, CT, opthalmic

85
Q

what are drug that prolong the QTc interval and risk for torsades de pointes

A

type I and III antiarrhythmias
azithromycin
chlorpromazine and thioridiazine
citalopram
clarithromycin and erythromycin
haloperidol
methadone

86
Q

what are the ADR of amiodarone

A

hypo and hyper thyroidism

hepatotoxicity
qt interval prolongation
interstitial lung disease
corneal microdepsots
blue gray skin - photosensitivity
neurological

87
Q

what is the daily dose for dofetilide

88
Q

does dofetilide need to be dose adjusted

A

yes for renal dysfunction

89
Q

dofetilide is contraindicated in patients with

A

ClCr less than 20 ml/min

90
Q

what are the risks of dofetilide

A

serious ventricular arrythmias

91
Q

when should dofetilide be administered

A

initiate while inpatients x3 days

qtc prolonging risk

then EKG 3-6 months

92
Q

what is the daily dose for dronedarone

A

400 mg bid

93
Q

what are the benefits of dronedarone over amiodarone

A

has a shorter half life
there is no iodine
and less noncardiac toxicities

94
Q

is dronedarone more or less effective than amiodarone

A

less effective

95
Q

dronedarone is CI in pts

A

with permanent AF
NHYA class 2-3 with recent composition
NHYA class 4

96
Q

dronedarone has an FDA warning for

A

hepatotoxicity

97
Q

what causes cardiac emergencies

A

pulseless VT, VF, PEA, and asystole

98
Q

extra ventricular systolic beat characterizes

99
Q

what characterizes ventricular tachy

A

greater than 3 PVCs + HR greater than 100

100
Q

TdP is characterized by

A

hall mark of long QTc

101
Q

PEA is characterized by

A

organized electrical activity

102
Q

flatline is also known as

103
Q

T or F vtach can be with or without a pulse

104
Q

if there is a pulse during Vtach this means that there is ____ happening

105
Q

TdP can be due to

A

congenital long QT syndrome but more likely drugs

106
Q

by definition ventricular fibrillation is considered

A

hemodynamically unstable

107
Q

key characteristic of VF on ECG is

A

no clear QRS complexes

108
Q

a lack of pulse, cardiac output and blood pressure of VF can lead to

A

sudden cardiac death

109
Q

what are the components of basic life support

A

basic recognition of SCA and activation of emergent responses

early performance of high quality CPR - CAB , hand only

rapid defibrillation for VF , pulseless VT only

110
Q

what does ACLS stand for

A

advanced cardiac life support

111
Q

defibrillation is only for

A

pulseless VT and VF

112
Q

what ACLS intervention outcomes improve survival to hospital discharge

A

high quality CPR
defibrillation when appropriate

113
Q

what ACLS intervention outcomes improve the return of spontaneous circulation but DO NOT improve survival to discharge

A

IV access placement, drug deliery, advanced airway placement

114
Q

what are the treatable causes of sudden cardiac arrest

A

Hypoxia
hypovolemia
hydrogen ions - acidosis
hypo hyper kalemia
hypothermia

toxins
tamponade
tension pneumo
thrombosis pulm and coronary

115
Q

what are the ACLS medications

A

epinephrine 1 mg IV/ IO every 3-5 m
amiodarone 300 mg IV IO once when defib x3 fails and epinephrine x1
vasopressin 40 units not recc

116
Q

ventillation is

A

2 breaths per 30 s or 1 breath / 8 seconds if bag valve mask ambu bag self inflating bag