Pharmacology - Shock Flashcards

1
Q

a clinical syndrome characterized by a perfusion of tissues is known as

A

shock

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2
Q

shock is usually associated with

A

hypotension
failure of organ systems

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3
Q

is shock a life threatening impairment

A

yes

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4
Q

what is life threatening about shock

A

lack of o2 and nutrients to the organs of the body

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5
Q

how can shock be managed?

A

fluids
determining root cause
blood pressure and HR

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6
Q

BP =

A

CO x SVR

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7
Q

CO is dependent on ___ in shock management

A

inotropesS

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8
Q

SVR is dependent on ____ in shock management

A

vasopressors

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9
Q

pharmacotherapy of shock includes

A

catecholamines
vasopressin
phosphodiesterase inhibitors - milrinone

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10
Q

what are the types of adrenoreceptors

A

alpha 1 and 2

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11
Q

where are alpha 1 receptors located

A

post synaptic effect cells - especiall y smooth muscles

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12
Q

what is the result of ligand binding to alpha 1 receptors

A

Gq - formation of IP3 and DAG
increased intracellular calcium

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13
Q

where are alpha 2 receptors located

A

pre synaptic adrenergic nerve terminals, platelets, lipocytes, smooth muscle

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14
Q

what is the result of ligand binding to alpha 2 receptors

A

GI
Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase, decrease cAMP

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15
Q

what are the beta adrenoceptors

A

beta 1, 2, 3,

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16
Q

what is the result of ligand binding of beta 1 adrenoceptors

A

stimulation of adenylyl cyclase, increased cAMP

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17
Q

where are beta 1 receptors located

A

in the post synaptic effect cells especially heart, lipocytes, brain, presynaptic adrenefic and cholinergic nerve terminals, juxtaglomerular apparatus of renal tubules and ciliary body epithelium

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18
Q

where are beta 2 receptors located

A

post synaptic effector cells, smooth muscle - bronchi and cardiac muscle

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19
Q

what is the result of ligand binding to beta 2 adrenoceptors

A

stimulation of adenylyl cyclase and increased cAMP which activates cardiac Gi under some conditions

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20
Q

where are beta 3 adrenoceptors located

A

post synaptic effector cells especially lipocytes, heart

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21
Q

what is the result of ligand binding of beta 3 adrenoceptors

A

stimulation of adenylyl cyclase and increased cAMP

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22
Q

what are the types of dopamine receptors

A

d1, d5, d2, d3, d4

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23
Q

which dopamine receptors are located in the brain, effector tissues, and especially smooth muscle of the renal vascular bed

A

D1, D5

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24
Q

D1 and D5 dopamine receptors lead to the _____ with ligand binding

A

stimulation of adenylyl cyclase and increased cAMP

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25
Q

D2 dopamine receptor binding leads to

A

inhibition of adenylyl cyclase , increased potassium conductance

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26
Q

alpha 1 receptor actions are ____ when innervated

A

contractions

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27
Q

alpha 2 adrenergic and cholinergic nerve terminals led to ____ when innervated

A

inhibition of transmitter release

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28
Q

what beta adrenoceptors are found in the juxtaglomerular cells

A

beta 1

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29
Q

what are the actions when beta 1 adrenoceptors are innervated

A

increases fore and rate of contraction
increases renin release

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30
Q

which beta receptor promotes smooth muscle relaxation? and where

A

beta 2
repspiratory, uterine and smooth muscle

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31
Q

d1 receptors when innervated

A

dilate renal blood vessels

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32
Q

what is the final product in most sympathetic postganglionic neurons

A

norepinephrine

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33
Q

in the adrenal medulla and certain areas of the brain some NE is converted to

A

epinephrine

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34
Q

in dopaminergic neurons, synthesis terminates wtih

A

dopamine

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35
Q

_____________ inhibits monoamine oxidase and enhaces NE and dopamine neurotransmission

A

amphetamine

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36
Q

termination of noradrenergic transmission results from what processes

A

simple diffusion away from receptor site
reuptake into the nerve terminal by NET or intro peri synaptic glia or other cells

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37
Q

phenylephrine has an affinity for

A

alpha agonists , a1

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38
Q

NE and Epinephrine have an affinity for

A

mixed alpha and beta agonists

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39
Q

dobutamine and isoproterenol have an affinity for

A

beta agonists

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40
Q

dobutamine has a greater affinity for

A

beta 1

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41
Q

T or F NE has a greater affinity for a1 than a2

A

F, =

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42
Q

which dopamine agonists has an equal affinity for D1 and D2

A

dopamine

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43
Q

what is known as the primary transmitter

A

norepinephrine

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44
Q

what are the indirectly acting and mixed sympathomimetics that release stored transmitter from noradrenergic nerve endings by a calcium independent process

A

tyramine, amphetamines, and ephedrine

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45
Q

phenylephrine lacks an -oh group which impacts its activity by

A

decreases sympathomimetic activity

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46
Q

ephedrine lacks 2 -oh groups which impacts its activity by

A

increasing its distribution in the CNS

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47
Q

ephedrine, amphetamine and methoxamine have a methyl substitution on alpha carbon leads to

A

decreased oxidation by MAO

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48
Q

is dobutamine beta 1 or beta 2 selective

A

beta 1

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49
Q

terbutaline is beta 2 or beta 1 selective

A

beta 2

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50
Q

substitution on ___ increases beta receptor activity on dobutamine and terbutaline

A

N

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51
Q

the vasopressor of choice for septic and cardiogenic shock is

A

norepinephrine

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52
Q

how does norepinephrine differ from epinephrine

A

by the absence of a methyl group on the nitrogen atom

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53
Q

norepinephrine is indicated for

A

blood pressure control in certain acute hypotensive states
myocardial infarction
septicemia
blood transfusion
drug reactions

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54
Q

norepinephrine is used as an adjunct in the treatment of

A

cardiac arrest
profound hypotension

55
Q

norepinephrine is a direct acting

A

adrenergic agonist

56
Q

what is the mechanism of acting of norepinephrine

A

constricts arteriolar and venous beds to elevate both systolic and diastolic BP

57
Q

norepinephrine has major alpha 1 and small beta 1 activity and used in

A

reversing vascular shock with bradycardia

58
Q

what is the onset of norepinephrine

A

quick onset

59
Q

how is norepinephrine administered

A

short duration requires continuous IV infusion 1-2 min

60
Q

T or F norepinephrine crosses the placenta and the blood brain barrier

A

F, crosses the placenta not the blood brain barrier

61
Q

how is NE metabolized?

A

COMT - normetanephrine which is active
MAO - vanilylmandelic acid which is inactive

62
Q

what are the ADR of norepinephrine

A

leads to tissue hypoxia
HA
palpitation, bradycardia, hypertension, arrhythmia
N,V
loca VC and tissue necrosis extravasation ischemia could progress to gangrene
avoid local vein, use large vein

63
Q

what are CI of norepinephrine?

A

arrhythmias
pheochromocytoma
in hypovolemic shock, dont give with fluid replacement

64
Q

norepinephrine should be taken with caution in patients who are

A

pregnant
lactating
peripheral vascular disease

65
Q

DDIs with norepinephrine

A

MAO-Inhiibitors , tricyclic antidepressants which increase pressor response

beta blockers increase pressor response

alpha blokers decrease pressor response

ergot vasoconstrictors increase pressor response

sodium bicarbonate a-b int decreases response

atropine increases heart rate

diuretics decrease pressor

cyclopropane and general anesthetics enhance arrhythmia liability

66
Q

phenylephrine is uses systemically but best know for its

A

local applications in nose drops, eye drops, and cough preps as a decongestant

67
Q

phenylephrine is mostly a _____ agonist

A

alpha 1, arteriolar vasoconstrictor

68
Q

when phenylephrine is used systemically it is used to ______ in vascular shock

A

elevate PR

69
Q

_____ is a second line agent to NE in septic shock

A

phenylephrine

70
Q

what are the ADR of phenylephrine

A

CNS HA, weakness, dizziness
CV reflex bradycardia, lowered CO, ischemia, HTN, arrhythmias
EENT stinging, lacrimation, blurred vision
Skin pruritis

71
Q

phenylephrine is CI in pts with

A

narrow angle glaucoma

72
Q

which patients should take phenylephrine precautiously

A

severe HTN
diabetes - increases glucose
hyperthyroidism
elderly - coronary pt
severe ASHD - compromised o2 delivery
cardiac disease - o2 delivery problem
infants - use nasal spray
extravasation ischemia

73
Q

DIs with phenylepinephrine

A

increased pressor effects with MAOinhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants

74
Q

phenylephrine has storage instructions. what are they?

A

they should be stored in a light resistant container

do not use if discolored because forms adrenochromes (inactive)

75
Q

what is released endogenously in the emergency reaction from the adrenal medulla?

A

epinephrine

76
Q

epineprhine is used in the emergency treatment of

A

allergic reactions
including anaphylaxis

induction and maintenance of mydriasis during intraocular surgery

77
Q

what are the dosage forms for epinephrine

A

iv infusion or im in the thigh

78
Q

what is the onset of epinephrine

A

quick onset - seconds
short duration - minutes

79
Q

which action of epinephrine requires a high dose

A

pressor amine to treat vascular shock

80
Q

what action of epinephrine requires low doses

A

positive inotrope and chronotrope for heart to treat cardiogenic shock

vasodilation of cerebral coronary and renal dopaminergic receptors

81
Q

epinephrine’s response is dose related, which receptor response is high dose

A

alpha 1 VC

82
Q

epinephrine’s response is dose related, which receptor response is low dose

A

beta 1 cardiac stimulant and beta 2 vasodialator

83
Q

what are the uses of epinephrine

A

cardiac arrest - cardiogenic shock
hemostasis - hemorrhagic shock
anaphylaxis - IM epi
opthalmic . nasal
asthma

84
Q

what are the ADR of epinephrine

A

CNS - tremors, anxiety, depression, insomnia, hA CONVULSIVE SEIZURES
EENT - dry nose, irritation of nose and throat
CV - palpitations, tachy, HTN, chest pain, arrhythmias,
GI - anorexia, NV
Resp - depression high dose
Extravasation ischemia

85
Q

Epinephrine is CI in

A

narrow angle glaucoma

86
Q

______ and _____ are used to retain water, and increase blood volume to treat shock

A

vasopressin
desmopressin

87
Q

how many amino acids make up vasopressin a

A

9 amino acids

88
Q

what is the moa of vasopressin

A

retains water
from posterior pituitary hormone
vasoconstrictor at high doses

89
Q

what is the therapeutic use of vasopressin

A

septic shock
esophageal varices with GI bleeds
diabetes insipidus
prevents post op abdominal distention

90
Q

what are the ADR of vasopressin

A

CV - increased BP, brady, arrhythmia, venous thrombosis, VC with high dose, anginal pain
CNS fever vertigo pounding head
derm - uticaria pallow
GI NV adb pain flatulence
NM skeletal muscle tremor
misc diaphoresis MI

91
Q

what type of receptors are involved in the MOA of vasopressin

92
Q

V1a,b act on which coupled receptors

A

Gq - peripheral and brain

93
Q

V2 act on which coupled receptors

A

Gs - peripheral , kidneys

94
Q

what is the mechanism of action of desmopressin

A

retains water in the body by altering the collecting duct membrane to water

VC at high doses, elevates factor 8 and von willebrand factor

95
Q

desmopressin is a vasopressin analogue but with

A

greater hemostatic activity

96
Q

what is the therapeutic use of desmopressin

A

increase blood pressure in adults with vasodilatory shock who remain hypotensive despite fluids and catecholamines

hemostatic, antihemophilic to control bleeding in hemophilia, von willebrand disease, thrombocytopenia

treat diabetes insipidus

97
Q

what are the ADRs of desmopressin

A

CV - FACIAL FLUSHING
CNS - dizziness and HA
GI - abd cramps, N
local pain at inj site

98
Q

angiotensin II is made up of __ amino acids

99
Q

angiotensin II is available as which dosage form

100
Q

Angiotensin II is used to treat

A

septic and other distributive vasodilatory shock in adults

101
Q

what are the AE of angiotensin II

A

thromboembolic events DVT
thrombocytopenia
tachycardia

102
Q

drugs that increase HR and force such as NE, EPI, ISO are CI in

A

obstructive cardio myopathy with HF

because blood vessels exiting the heart rate are narrowed and increase HR and force will only further damage of th heart and increase HF

103
Q

dopamine and dobutamine are both ___ inotrope

104
Q

dopamine is a positive inotrope with ____ pressor effects

105
Q

dobutamine is a positive inotrope with ____ vasodialator effects

106
Q

dopamine is used in

A

cardiogenic and vascular shock

107
Q

dobutamine is used in

A

cardiogenic shock with HTN

108
Q

T or F dopamine is synthetic

A

F, dopamine is natural and dobutamine is synthetic

109
Q

dopamine is considered a ____ EPI with dopamine receptor activity

110
Q

dobutamine is a ___ derivative

111
Q

dopamine must be administered via

112
Q

what must be used when administering dopamine

A

an infusion pump to control rate

113
Q

what is the mechanism of action of dopamine

A

“less potent epi”

inotropic action - beta 1, cAMP mediated increase in myocardial Ca++ availability - low dose

chronotropic - beta 1 stimulation - low dose

vasopressor - alpha 1 vasoconstriction - high dose

114
Q

moderate dose of dopamine effects are active on

A

alpha 1 and beta 1

115
Q

T or F dopamine crosses the BBB

A

F does not, widely distributed

116
Q

how is dopamine metabolized

A

in the liver, kidney, plasma by MAO and COMT

117
Q

how is dopamine excreted

118
Q

dopamine is CI in

A

tachyarrhythmias
pheochromocytoma
ventricular fibrillation

119
Q

what is a key side effect of dopamine?

A

metabolic - hyperglycemia
misc extravastion ischemia at injection site

CNS HA
CV ectopi beats, tachy, anginal pain, palpitations, hypotension, brady, conduction disturbances, HTN, VC, widening QRS complex
GI NV
resp dyspnea, asthmatic episodes

120
Q

dobutamine is a _____ analogue

A

isoproterenol

121
Q

what is the mechanism of action of dobutamine

A

a potent beta 1 agonist positive inotrope and chronotrope increasing CO

with a new vasodilator or unloading effect on the heart

122
Q

what are the ADR of dobutamine

A

CNS - anxiety HA dizziness
CV tachy palpitations PVCs HTN angina
GI heartburn NV
ms Muscle cramps

123
Q

DI for dobutamine is

A

all antiHTN drugs (decreases bP)

124
Q

name a bipyridine drug

125
Q

what is the mechanism of action of milrinone

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, the enzyme that degrades CAMP

elevated cAMP leads to increased calcium availability at cardiac muscle increasing inotropic and chronotropic activity

relaxes vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation which serves to unload the heart

decreases blood viscosity

126
Q

what is a caution of the positive inotropic an chronotropic activity of milrinone

A

positive inotropic effects are beneficial

chronotropic increases HR which can be o2 wasting and precipitate anginal pain

127
Q

milrinone is metabolized to

A

glucuronide

128
Q

a majority of milrinone is metabolizes to

A

nothing, remains unchanged

129
Q

how is milrinone eliminated

130
Q

what is the dosage form of milrinone

A

IV continuous infusion

131
Q

____ % of milrinone is protein bound

132
Q

what is a DDI of milrinone

A

forms a precipitate with IV furosemide

133
Q

what are the ADR of milrinone

A

CV - cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension, Vtach, anginal chest pain
CNS HA
HEMA thrombocytopenia

hypotensive liability

134
Q

what is the duration of therapy of milrinone