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ST Theory II > Theory Midterm > Flashcards

Theory Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is parasitism?

A

One organism benefits while the host is harmed

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2
Q

List the steps of blood flow through the heart

A
  1. Superior and inferior vena cava
  2. Right atrium
  3. Tricuspid valve
  4. Right ventricle
  5. Pulmonary valve
  6. Pulmonary artery
  7. Lungs
  8. Pulmonary veins
  9. Left atrium
  10. Mitral valve
  11. Left ventricle
  12. Aortic valve
  13. Aorta
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3
Q

What is an example of an opportunistic pathogen?

A

E. Coli entering the abdominal cavity

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4
Q

How does the autoclave kill microbes?

A

By coagulating proteins

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5
Q

What is commensalism

A

One organism uses another to meet its needs but causes no harm to the host

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6
Q

What is aseptic technique

A

practices and procedures used to avoid introducing pathogens into the wound

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7
Q

What does N. gonorrhoeae cause?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (gonorrhoeae)

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8
Q

What is secondary intention?

A

Happens when primary intention fails Common in large wounds or postop SSI’s where infection has damaged the tissue The wound is not sutured and left open to heal from the inside out

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9
Q

Pressure, temp, use, and time for gravity air displacement

A
  1. 15 to 17 psi
  2. 250F
  3. Used for wrapped items
  4. 15 to 30 minutes
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10
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Microbes that are harmless under normal circumstances but may become harmful in a weakened host.

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11
Q

What happens when endotoxins enter the blood stream?

A

Septicemia

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12
Q

What is shelf life?

A

The length of time a package in storage remains sterile

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13
Q

How are bacteria classified?

A

By shape

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14
Q

What are obligate anaerobes

A

Require the level of oxygen found in a typical room

Poisoned by oxygen

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15
Q

In which quadrant is the liver located

A

Right upper quadrant

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16
Q

When is intermediate disinfection used?

A

Large areas such as floors

Used for terminal cleaning

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17
Q

What degree of wound healing is this?

A

Primary (union, first intention)

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18
Q

Pressure, temp, use, and time for flash sterilizer

A
  1. 27 psi
  2. 270F
  3. Used for unwrapped items in emergency situations
  4. 3 minutes for unwrapped items without a lumen

4 minutes for instruments with lumens or marking tape (prevacuum)

10 for gravity displacement

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19
Q

What does C. difficile cause?

A

antibiotic associated GI disease

Extreme shits

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20
Q

What are cells stained with?

A

Crystal violet with safranin

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21
Q

How should dirty instruments be transported to decontam?

A

They should be covered

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22
Q

In which quadrant is the spleen located

A

LUQ

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23
Q

Chemical used for intermediate disinfection?

A

Phenol (carbolic acid)

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24
Q

Transmission and effects of Hep C

A

Blood-borne RNA

Blood and blood products

Effects the liver

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25
Q

Chemical used for high level disinfection

A

Cidex

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26
Q

What is bacteriostasis

A

Inhibits growth of bacteria without killing them

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27
Q

What does S. pyogenes cause?

A

Strep throat

Tonsillitis

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28
Q

What is an example of commensalism?

A

E coli in the intestines

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29
Q
A

McBurney

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30
Q

How to bacteria replicate?

A

Binary fission resulting in 2 identical cells

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31
Q

What is this bacteria?

A

Spirilla

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32
Q

What is bioburden

A

Contamination of an item from debris or microorganisms

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33
Q

In which quadrant is the appendix located

A

RLQ

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34
Q

What is the first step in cleaning microsurgical instruments?

A

The ultrasonic cleaner

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35
Q

What is serosanguinous fluids?

A

exudate or discharge containing serum and blood

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36
Q

What is this bacteria?

A

Streptococci

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37
Q

What degree of wound healing is this?

A

Secondary Intention (granulation)

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38
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Potent poisons secreted by gram-positive spore forming rods

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39
Q

What is a community acquired infection?

A

Infection present before the pt was admitted to the hospital

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40
Q

Transmission and effects of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)

A

Transmission unknown

Attacks the nervous system/causes dimentia

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41
Q

What spore is used to test steam under pressure sterilizers?

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

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42
Q

What is the infection rate of dirty surgical wounds?

A

28-70%

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43
Q

What is the second phase of primary intention?

A

Proliferation Fibroblasts secrete collagen which produces scar tissue

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44
Q

After the procedure what should be done with instruments that have gross debris?

A

They should be opened and presoaked in sterile water with enzyme detergent.

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45
Q

What is the infection rate of clean surgical wounds?

A

2%

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46
Q

What are the characteristics of a clean-contaminated surgical wound?

A

Respiratory, GI, and GU tracts are entered without unusual contamination No major break in sterile technique

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47
Q

What are endotoxins

A

Poisons secreted by gram negative rods

Contained within cell wall of bacteria

Released when the bacterial cell ruptures

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48
Q

What is Vacuum assisted closure?

A

Uses controlled negative pressure of a vacuum to promote healing

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49
Q

What are the characteristics of a dirty surgical wound?

A

Old traumatic wounds Existing infections Perforated viscera

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50
Q

What is fibrinogen

A

constituent of blood that aids in coagulation

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51
Q

What does S. Epidermis cause?

A

UTI’s

Common in urinary catheters or implants

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52
Q

What are examples of clean surgeries?

A

Mastectomy Vascular Hernias

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53
Q

What are examples of clean-contaminated surgeries?

A

Gastrectomy Hysterectomy

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54
Q

What are the characteristics of a clean surgical wound?

A

Nontraumatic Elective surgery The respiratory, GI, and GI tracts are not entered No break in sterile technique

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55
Q

In which quadrant is the Sigmoid Colon located

A

LLQ

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56
Q
A

Thoracoabdominal

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57
Q

What are the steps for mechanically cleaning instruments during the procedure

A
  1. Point of use cleaning
  2. St wipes the excess blood from instruments using a wet lap. (do not clean in a basin to avoid splashing on floor)
  3. Instruments that won’t be used for the rest of the procedure may be soaked in sterile water.
  4. Instruments are never soaked in saline to avoid pitting and deterioration
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58
Q

Transmission and effects of Herpes simplex (HSV)

A

Contact with fluid from lesions

Causes blisters on the lips

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59
Q

In which quadrant is the gallbladder located

A

RUQ

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60
Q

What is gram staining?

A

Used to differentiate bacteria into gram positive and gram negative groups

61
Q

What incision is #5

A

Pfannenstiel

62
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Bacillus

A

Rod shaped bacteria

63
Q

What are facultative anaerobes

A

Able to survive with or without oxygen

Switches to fermentation without oxygen

64
Q

What is third intention?

A

When closure of surgical wound is delayed for several days after injury This is done when a wound is too contaminated to be closed When enough granulation tissue has formed it can be sutured

65
Q

What is granulation?

A

the formation of new tissue which forms in types of wounds left open

66
Q

What are examples of direct contact?

A

Light handle dropping into open wound

Needle stick injury from recapping

67
Q

What are two forms of Streptococcus?

A

S. pneumonia

S. pyogenes

68
Q

What does S. Aureus cause?

A

Postop SSI’s

TSS (no reversal)

Osteomyelitis (bone inflammation)

69
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Both organisms benefit from one another

70
Q

What does treponema pallidum cause?

A

Syphilis

71
Q

What is the function of flagella?

A

Movement

72
Q

What is a cicatrix?

A

A scar of a healed wound

73
Q

What does Helicobacter pylori cause?

A

Stomach ulcers

74
Q

What is an example of mutualism?

A

S. Aureus inhabits normal healthy skin

75
Q

What are examples of dirty surgeries?

A

Incision and drainage of an abcess

76
Q

What are two forms of Staphylococcus?

A

S. aureus

S. epidermis

77
Q

What is this bacteria?

A

Staphylococci

78
Q

What does the cytoplasmic membrane do?

A

Acts as the doorway to the cell

Site of enzyme production

79
Q

What is an example of indirect contact?

A

Bioburden on gloves contaminates equipment handled by non gloved person who rubs eyes

80
Q

What are the four abdominal quadrants?

A

Right upper quadrant

Right lower quadrant

Left upper quadrant

Left lower quadrant

81
Q

What does Clostridium tetani cause?

A

Lock jaw

Found in soil

82
Q

What is aseptic

A

Means without infection

83
Q

When is low level disinfection used?

A

Used on non-critical items such as pneumatic tourniquet, pulse oximeters, blood pressure cuffs

84
Q

What is the first phase of primary intention?

A

Lag phase (inflammatory response) Includes heat, redness, swelling, pain Phagocytosis starts by neutrophils and macrophages

85
Q

What is sanitary?

A

Means clean

86
Q

What is unique about prions?

A

They do not contain DNA or RNA and are resistant to routine methods of sterilization

87
Q

What are eukaryotes?

A

All cells that make up the human body Fungi, protozoa, algae, and all plant and animal cells.

Has nucleus and mitochondria

88
Q

How are cross infections spread?

A

From patient to patient

89
Q

What is an example of parasitism?

A

Any infectious disease

90
Q

What is the infection rate of clean-contaminated surgical wounds?

A

Less than or equal to 10%

91
Q

Transmission and effects of HIV

A

Bloodborne or bodily fluids

Compromises the immune system

92
Q

What does e. coli cause?

A

UTI’s

Sepsis

93
Q

What does Candida albicans cause?

A

Yeast infections

Thrush

Fungal infection

94
Q

Chemical used for low level disinfection

A

Isopropyl alcohol

95
Q

What are examples of exotoxins?

A

TB

Diphtheria

Clostridia

96
Q
A

Inguinal

97
Q

What does C. botulinum cause?

A

Food borne botulism

98
Q

Pressure, temp, use, and time for prevacuum

A
  1. 27 psi
  2. 270 to 276F
  3. Wrapped instruments, basins, linens
  4. 15 to 30 minutes
99
Q

What is the function of cilia?

A

Cleaning

100
Q

Following decontamination and disinfection, all instruments are sent to clean processing for what to happen

A
  1. inspected
  2. reassembled in sets
  3. packaged for sterilization
101
Q

What incision is this?

A

Median Sternotomy

102
Q

What is streptococcus mutans

A

Tooth decay

103
Q

What should never be placed in an autoclave?

A

Heat sensitive items such as scopes

104
Q

What is surgically clean

A

Items mechanically cleaned or disinfected, but NOT sterile

105
Q

What is the third phase of primary intention?

A

Maturation (differentiation) Results in a cicatrix

106
Q

What does rickettsia rickettsia cause?

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

107
Q

What does Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?

A

Deep tissue infections in pt with burns and open fractures

Blue/green pus bacteria

108
Q

Who established the first principles of aseptic technique?

A

Lister

109
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Streptococci

A

Chain of bacteria

110
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Spirilla

A

Spiral shaped bacteria

111
Q

What is the infection rate of contaminated surgical wounds?

A

20%

112
Q
A

Full Midline

113
Q

What are examples of contaminated surgeries?

A

Removal of perforated appendix Removal of metal fragments

114
Q

What does bordetella pertussis cause?

A

Whooping cough

115
Q

What does Haemophilus influenza cause?

A

bacterial meningitis

116
Q

What is surgical asepsis

A

procedure for maintaining and creating the sterile field

117
Q

How do gram negative bacteria react to staining?

A

They do not retain the color and appear red

118
Q

How do gram positive bacteria react to staining?

A

They retain the color and appear purple

119
Q

What is sterilization

A

Destroying all microorganisms by steam, chemical agents, or ultraviolet radiation

120
Q

What degree of wound healing is this?

A

Third intention (delayed primary)

121
Q

What is disinfectant

A

An agent that kills micro es on inanimate objects (fomites)

122
Q

What are the four classifications by degree of wound healing

A

Primary intention (union, first intention) Secondary Intention (granulation) Third intention (delayed primary closure) Vacuum assisted closure (V.A.C negative pressure wound healing)

123
Q

How is the temp raised in the autoclave?

A

By increasing pressure

124
Q

What does S. pneumonia cause?

A

Otitis media

125
Q

What are prokaryotes?

A

Less complex than eukaryotes All bacteria are prokaryotes

No nucleus or mitochondria

126
Q

What does Clostridium perfringes cause?

A

Gas gangrene

127
Q

What does treponema pallidum cause?

A

venereal disease

128
Q

Example of droplets/airborne transmission

A

Coughing, sneezing, talking

129
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Staphylococci

A

Cluster of bacteria

130
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

Jellylike substance where proteins are made

131
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

Any relationship between both organisms

132
Q

What is bacteriocidal

A

Able to kill bacteria

133
Q

Do veins carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood

A

Deoxygenated

134
Q

What suction would be used to irrigate during an appendectomy?

A

Poole suction

135
Q

Transmission and effects of Hep B

A

Bloodborne or other bodily fluids

Effects the liver

136
Q

What are the characteristics of a contaminated surgical wound?

A

Open, fresh, accidental wound Major break in aseptic technique Gross spillage from GI tract

137
Q

What does C. trachomatis cause?

A

Conjunctivitis

138
Q

What is antiseptic

A

Any substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria (resident bacteria) on the skin

139
Q

What incision is #2

A

Paramedian

140
Q

What are the four surgical wound classifications?

A

Clean Clean-contaminated Contaminated Dirty

141
Q

What are some factors that increase the risk of an SSI?

A

Age

Obesity - diminished blood flow, larger wound sizes

Carriers of MRSA or S. Aureus -greater risk of infection from their own endogenous flora

Remote infections on other body sites

Preop hospitalization

Preexisting illness

142
Q

What is the most common means of sterilization?

A

Saturated steam under pressure

143
Q
A
144
Q

What is sporicidal

A

Able to kill spores

145
Q

What is this bacteria?

A

Bacillus

146
Q

What is collagen

A

white protein contained in connective tissues and bones

147
Q

What does the cell wall do?

A

Confines and protects

148
Q

What is disinfection

A

profess of destroying pathogenic microbes except spores

ST Theory II (5 decks)

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