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Year 4 > Theme C > Flashcards

Theme C Flashcards

1
Q

Features of Abortion Act

A

Abortion Act 1967
2 medical professionals (need to sign HSA1)
Pregnancy < 24 weeks

  • continuing the pregnancy is a greater risk than termination and injury to mental or physical health to her or any other children OR
  • prevent grave permanent injury to physical or mental health OR
  • risk life of pregnant woman OR
  • substantial risk if the child is prn would suffer from abnormalities that would causes serious handicap

There is no upper limit on gestation if due to 2,3, or 4

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2
Q

What form is required for abortion?

A

HSA1

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3
Q

When can termination be granted in under 16s

A

Without parental consent if:

  • understand all aspects and implications
  • cannot persuade them to tell parents
  • physical or mental health with suffer if they don’t
  • best interests to receive without parental consent
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4
Q

What should happen before a termination?

A 
Confirm pregnancy
Discuss methods and choices available
Consider alternatives
Allow time for decision (but earlier has less complications)
Screen for chlamydia and STIs (positive in 13%)
Discuss future contraception
Check Rh status
Check if requires smear
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5
Q

Describe conscientious objection of abortion

A 
Section 4 of Abortion Act
Can refuse
Must provide treatment necessary to save a life
Must explain the objection
Cannot express disapproval
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6
Q

Epidemiology of Down’s syndrome

A

1 in 1500 at 20 years
1 in 100 at 40 years
>1 in 50 at 45 years

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7
Q

Screening methods for Down’s syndrome

A

Serum screening - 10 to 14 weeks
Ultrasound - nuchal translucency - 11 weeks to 14 weeks
Quadruple test - 14 to 20 weeks

Once a test has been performed, the chance of the foetus having Down’s is calculated

If > 1 in 150 then offer diagnostic testing

  • Amniocentesis - 12 to 18 weeks (most common after 15 weeks)
  • Chorionic villus sampling - 11 to 13 weeks
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8
Q

Who provides antenatal care?

A

If uncomplicated - midwife and GP led
Small group of medical professionals

Women should carry their own case notes

10 visits - uncomplicated nulliparous
7 visits - uncomplicated multiparous

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9
Q

What do the outcomes framework monitor in relation to pregnancy?

A 
Infant mortality (up to 1 year)
Perinatal mortality (including still births), pregnancy, immediately after birth
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10
Q

Define fertility rate

A

births per 1000 women per year aged 15-44

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11
Q

Define number of conceptions

A

total maternities + legal abortions + admissions for miscarriage + ectopic pregnancy

  • 75% are live or still births
  • 18% legal termination
  • 7% miscarriage or ectopic
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12
Q

Define maternity

A

Any pregnancy that results in birth of live or still born child

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13
Q

Define live birth

A

Complete expulsion of product of concetion from mother, regardless of duration which shows any signs of life
- HR, breathing, umbilical cord pulsation, movement

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14
Q

Define abortion

A

Complete expulsion of foetus showing no signs of life prior to 24 weeks gestation

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15
Q

Triennial report - types of maternal mortality

A

Direct - death from obstetric complications

Indirect - resulting from previous existing disease, aggravated by pregnancy

Fortuitous - incidental but during pregnancy

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16
Q

Define maternal mortality

A

Deaths per number of maternities

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17
Q

Most common causes of maternal mortality

A 
Hypertensive disease
PE
Haemorrhage
Amniotic fluid embolus
Early pregnancy
Sepsis
Anaesthesia
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18
Q

Define perinatal mortality

A

Deaths occurring during the first 7 days of life and still births per 1000 births

8 per 1000

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19
Q

Define neonatal mortality

A

Deaths during the first 28 days per 1000 births

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20
Q

Define infant death

A

Death within the first year of life

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21
Q

Causes of infant death

A 
Low birth weight
Prematurity <37 weeks
Increased age of maternal mother (over 35, increased still birth)
lethal or severe congenital malformation
Infection
SIDS
Accident/trauma
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22
Q

Reasons for choosing home birth

A 
Familiar, relaxing environment
Wear own clothes, take shower, eat, drink, move freely
Don't want medical intervention
Cultrual or religious norms 
Hisotry of fast labour
Lower cost
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23
Q

When is home birth not recommended

A 
Diabetes
HTN
Epilepsy
Past C-section
prengnacy complication e.g. pre-eclampsia
Breech or abnormal lie
< 37 weeks or over 41
Multiple pregnahcy
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24
Q

Where can a woman give birth

A

ANY WOMAN CAN CHOOSE ANY BIRTH SETTING

- home, midwifery led, obstetric led

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25
Q

Problems with obstetric led birth

A

Increase itnerventions, not necessarily better outcomes e.g. more episiotomies and C-section

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26
Q

Reasons to transfer home or midwife led to obstetric birth

A 
Delay in labour
Abnormal foetal HR
Request for regional anaesthesia
Merconium staining
Retained placenta
Repair of perineal trauma
Neonatal concerns post-partum
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27
Q

Impact of living with uncertain prognosis

A

Psychologically difficult
Worrying about future may impede ability to enjoy present
Hyperawareness of physical changes
Acquiring information to learn more (excessively)
Increased anxiety
Depression
Concerns over job, situation or career

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28
Q

Referral criteria for heart failure nurses

A

Over 18 with confirmed diagnosis and one of:
Need to be started on ACEi or beta blocker
Symptomatic on current meds
palliative care needs
New diagnosis and needs information
Recent hospital admission with exacerbation
Struggling with self-management

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29
Q

Role of heart failure nurses

A

Improves care and management
provides consistent care, readily accessed
- observation and management of side effects- provides understanding of meds
- makes them aware of symptom deterioration
- provides support
- first point of call
- encourage lifestyle changes

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30
Q

Causes of death in children

A
  1. Injuries and poisoning
  2. Malignant disease
  3. Neurological disorders
  4. Congenital malformations
  5. Respiratory disorders
  6. Infections
  7. Congenital disorders
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31
Q

Causes of fatal injuries in children

A
  1. RTA
  2. Other
  3. Drowning
  4. Assault
  5. Fire
  6. Falls
  7. Poisoning
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32
Q

Methods of accident prevention

A

RTAs - correctly fitting car seats, compulsory for under 135cm. Speed bumps. Play areas for children. Pedestrian priority

Bike accidents: helmets

Falls - stair guards, window safety catches

Drowning - fences around water

Fire- flame resistant materials. smoke alarms

Poisoning - child resistant bottles

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33
Q

Examples of big child protection cases

A

Victoria Climbie

  • 8 year old girl murdered in 2000
  • Post mortem shows 128 separate injuries
  • Inspired Every Child Matters Campaign meaning organisations should share information

Baby P

  • 17 month old died in 2007
  • 50 injuries at death
  • 35 contacts with healthcare professionals

Laming report - better sharing of information required

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34
Q

Dealing with drug addicted parents

A

Assess: substances taken, treatment therapies, withdrawal, abstinence

  • If inadequate - referral to social care

When pregnant - planning meeting within 32 weeks

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35
Q

MDT in planning meeting in addicted parents

A 
GP
Obstetrics
Midwife
Drug and/or alcohol worker
Probation
Family workers
Parents
Children's centre
Social worker
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36
Q

Concerning features in drug addicted parents

A

Defaulting drug/alcohol service appointments
Defaulting appointments for support agencies
Significant physical, obstetric or mental health problem
Drug use chaotic
Homelessness
Family network breakdown

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37
Q

STI epidemiology

A
  1. Chlamydia
  2. Genital warts
  3. Non-specific genital infections
  4. Gonorrhoea
  5. Other 19%
Increasing prevalence
Most common in 15-24 years
Rising syphilis and gonorrhoea
Decreasing genital warts
Increased in MSM
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38
Q

Prevention of STIs

A
  • Counselling: safe sex
  • Comprehensive sex ed
  • Target at risk populations: sex workers, MSM, IVDU
  • Barrier contraception
  • Vaccinations: hep B and HPV

Make services free /affordable
Population based national plans

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39
Q

High risk groups for STIs

A 
15-24
MSM
Blacks and ethnic minorities
Learning disability
Homeless
Custodial setting
In care
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40
Q

Opportunities for sexual health promotion

A 
Open access to health professionals
Screening for chlamydia
Target high need communities
In school
Sexual health clinics
During routine consultations
During pregnancy
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41
Q

Child Development Services

A
  • MDT of predominantly heath professionals
  • Multi agency
  • co-ordinated service
  • predominantly pre-school with mod-severe difficulties
  • can provide support until 19
  • maintains register of children with special needs
  • nominated key worker
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42
Q

MDT in special needs

A 
Paediatrician
Physio
OT
SALT
Clinical psychologist
Specialist health visitor
Dietician
Social worker
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43
Q

At what ages are vaccinations given?

A 
8 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks
1 year
3 years 4 months
12-13 years
14 years
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44
Q

Vaccinations give at 8 weeks

A

5 in 1 vaccine
Men B
Meningococcal
Rotavirus

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45
Q

Vaccinations given at 12 weeks

A

5 in 1 vaccine

Rotavirus

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46
Q

Vaccinations given at 16 weeks

A

5 in 1 vaccine
meningococcal
men B

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47
Q

Contents of 5 in 1 vaccine

A 
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Polio
Pertussis
Haemophilus Influenza
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48
Q

Vaccinations given at 1 year

A 
haemophilus influenza
Men B
Pneumococcal
MMR
Men C
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49
Q

Vaccinations given at 3 years 4 months

A

MMR

5 in 1 vaccine

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50
Q

Vaccinations given at 12-13

A

Only in females

HPV 16 and 18

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51
Q

Vaccinations given at 14 years

A

Tetanus, diphtheria, polio

Men A, C, W & Y

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52
Q

Vaccinations given at 65 years

A

annual influenza

Pneumococcal

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53
Q

Ethics of vaccination

A

Autonomy and liberty - parental automony, raise child as they see fit

Neglect - child should not be exposed to disease or illness or denied medical care

Autonomy - mandatory vaccination will infringe on autonomy

Utalitarianism - best outcome for the largest number of people. Mandatory vaccinations increase herd immunity.

Harm principle - only justification for interfering with liberty is to prevent harm to others.
Vaccinations protect the most vulnerable

Preventing harm to individuals - vaccines should not put people at risk of harm. if already vulnerable or sick do not give.

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54
Q

Reasons against vaccinations

A

Unnatural
mistrust of pharmaceutical companies
Fears of unsafe
Decreased communicable disease only due to increase hygiene
Cannot force them
Does not want them - liberty and autonomy.

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55
Q

Reasons for and against mandatory vaccinations for health workers

A

Cannot force vaccinations
But can limit the work of someone who has not had the vaccine
It has decreased mortality by 40%, decreased work hours lost, cost saving

FOR

  • Duty to not harm others
  • Herd immunity is an institution
  • Public trust in health care system may diminish
  • Consistency between preaching and own actions

AGAINST

  • Autonomy - freedom of choice
  • Alternatives - increased hygiene levels
  • Costs of finding non-compliers
  • better staff education and incentives should increase uptake without mandate
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56
Q

Contraindication to vaccinations

A

Not in severely compromised (BCG, measles, yellow fever)

Not in pregnancy (measles, yellow fever, polio)

MMR - not in gelatine allergy

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57
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal infection

A

Highest risk is first 7 days to household members
Without prophylaxis risk is 1 in 300
It is given to household members and partners
Aims to decrease risk of invasive disease - eradicates carriers and newly acquired disease
Rifampicin and ciprofloxacin
Needs to be given within 24 hours

Not required if:

  • school/class members/nursery
  • work colleagues
  • friends
  • kissing on cheek
  • travelling together
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58
Q

Management of meningococcal infection

A

Cases referred early to CCDC promptly
Contact tracing
Education
Chemoprophylaxis

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59
Q

Preventing spread of disease

A 
EDUCATION
vaccinations
isolations when treating 
hand hygiene 
PPE during contact with infected
Regular cleaning of environment
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60
Q

Social implications of epilepsy

A 
Depression 
Anxiety
Low self esteem
Social isolation
Decreased sexual relationships
Stigma
Decreased employment (financial issues)
Limits activities - swimming, heights, cycling on roads (if uncontrolled)
Poor compliance
Altered family dynamic - focus on the ill child (altered sibling relationships)
Embarrassment about having a seizure
Having to identify the fact you are epileptic
Reduced quality of life
Worries about becoming a parent
- effect of drugs on baby
- providing adequate care
- inheriting epilepsy
Limits alcohol and drug use
Restricted driving privileges
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61
Q

Driving and epilepsy

A

For a group 1 licence - must be seizure free for 12 months
If a single seizure (isolated) after 5 free years then can continue to drive - only works once

If you have a seizure

  • stop driving
  • inform DVLA
  • Send licence back voluntarily (can start reapplying 10 months after being seizure free

Group 2 licence (HGV) - must be seizrure free for 10 years and not have taken epilepsy medication in this time

To apply for a licence

  • Provide medical report
  • Details for last seizure
  • Once you receive your licence it will be medically restricted and valid for 1, 2 or 3 years. Can apply for a long term licence after 5 years seizure free.
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62
Q

Driving and Stroke

A

Cannot drive for 1 month
Do not need to inform DVLA immediately but after 1 month (allows time to see lasting stroke effects)
Can drive again once a doctor says yes
If multiple TIAs must have 3 months TIA free to drive
Cannot drive HGV for 1 years

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63
Q

When to inform DVLA in neurology

A 
Multiple TIAs in short time
Worsening condition
Epilepsy
Brain surgery
More than 1 stroke in 3m
If doctor expresses concern about ability to drive
HGV licence
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64
Q

Hearing screening in the newborn

A

Automated Otoacoustic Emissions Test (AOAE)
At birth - tests reflections from tympanic membrane, pass or fail

Automated Auditory Brainstem Response test (AABR)
Detects brain activity from sound, tests cochlea and nerve supply.
Done in any failed AOAE or NICU patients

If both failed then refer within 4 weeks for audio logical assessment

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65
Q

Evidence for treatment in otitis media with effusion

A

No proven benefit from any treatment or alternative therapy.

Hearing aids - NICE recommended if bilateral and hearing loss where surgery no acceptable or contraindicated

Pharmacological - non recommended.

  • No oral or nasal steroids
  • No antihistamines or decongestants
  • no antibiotics (Cochrane)

Auto-inflation. NICE does not oppose but evidence base is limited. Valsalva manoeuvre

Surgery - if >3m and bilateral, if hearing loss >30dB or developmental difficulties

  • Grommets provide initial improvement but no long term effects, increased infection risk and increased chronic perforation
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66
Q

prevention of hearing loss

A

Decreased noise trauma (ear protection in noisy environments)
Avoid ototoxic medications
Early treatment of causes
Screening of elderly to decrease consequences
Noise cancelling headphones rather than increasing volume
No objects in ears - cotton buds, tissue

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67
Q

Stroke rehabilitation

A

Starts in hospital
Aims to increase QoL
Increase independence for physical and psychological well being

NICE recommends:

  • Treat in dedicated stroke in patient unit
  • MDT
  • Assess moving and handling, pressure risk, continence, communication, nutritional risk and hydration
  1. Psychological function
  2. Vision and hearing
  3. muscle tone, strength, sensation and balance
    Physiotherapy, strength training
  4. Impairment of body function
    Including swallowing - SALT, swallowing therapy
  5. Activity limitations

Long term
Set goals

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68
Q

Stroke MDT members

A 
Neurologist
Neurosurgeon
Nurses
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapist
Pharmacist
SALT
Psychologist
Social worker
Incontinence advice
Dietetics
Liaison psychiatry
Orthoptics
Orthotics
Podiatry
Wheelchair services
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69
Q

Stroke prevention

A 
PRIMARY
- Lifestyle: 2 portions of fish/week, 5 fruit and veg a day, 30 minutes of exercise 5 days per week, weight loss, decreased alcohol, smoking cessation
- QRISK2 for CV risk
- Treat hypertension
- Antithrombotic if MI/AF/valve disease
- Consider aspirin
- Statins if QRISK2 indicates
- If AF - CHA2DS2VASc.
Females >1 and males >0 anticoagulate

SECONDARY

  • Reinforce lifestyle
  • Manage hypertension
  • If AF and non haemorrhagic - anticoagulate
  • If non-haemorrhagic - clopidogrel
  • Statins for all
  • Carotid endarterectomy if carotids >50%
  • Carotid angioplasty and stents
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70
Q

Advantages of the randomised control trial

A
  1. Allows rigorous evaluation of a single variable in a precisely defined patient group
  2. Prospective design
  3. Uses hypotheticodeductive reasoning
  4. Potentially eradicates bias by comparing 2 otherwise identical groups
  5. Allow for meta-analysis at a later date
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71
Q

Diadvantages of a randomised control trial

A
  1. Expensive and time-consuming
    - Many are not carried out
    - Or performed on too few people
    - Or sponsored by drug companies who dictate research agenda
    - end points may not reflect outcomes that are important to patients
  2. May introduce hidden bias
    - Imperfect randomisation
    - Failure to randomise all eligible patients
    - Failure to blind assessors to randomisation status
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72
Q

When is an RCT inappropriate

A
  • Where the study is looking at the prognosis of a disease
    For this analysis it is best to use a longitudinal survey
  • Where the study is looking at the validity of a diagnostic or screening test (best to use cross sectional)
  • Where the study is looking at quality of care in which criteria for success have not been established (better with qualitative)
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73
Q

Describe cohort study

A

2 or more groups of people are selected on the bases of differences of exposure to a particular agent and followed up to see how many get the disease, complication or outcome.
Follow up period is usually years.

Started on normal people

74
Q

Describe case-control study

A

Patients with a particular disease or condition are identified and matched with controls.
Data is then collected by looking back through medical records or asking them to recall history.

Best option for looking at rare disease

Cannot be used to determine causality

75
Q

Hierachy of evidence

A
  1. Systematic reviews and meta analysis
  2. RCTs with definitive results (CI do not overlap)
  3. RCTs with non-definitive results
  4. Cohort
  5. Case-Control
  6. Cross-sectional survey
  7. Case report
76
Q

Was the study original, questions to consider?

A

There is no point testing a scientific hypothesis that someone else has already proved.
It needs to add something to the current body of literature

  • Is this one bigger, continued for longer or more substantial?
  • Are the methods of this study more rigorous, does it address any specific methodological criticisms of past studies?
  • Will the numerical results of this study add to meta-analysis of previous studies?
  • Is the population different?
  • is the clinical issue of sufficient importance or any doubt requiring further study?
77
Q

Paper appraisal

Is it relevant to your population?

A

Were those being studied?

  • More or less ill than your patient
  • Were they from a different ethnic group
  • Do they live a different lifestyle
  • Did they receive more or less attention that your population
  • is there any comorbidities in your patient, not seen in the study
  • Number of smokers, alcohol etc.
78
Q

Define palliative care

A

Approach that improves the quality of life for patients and their families at the end of life.
Treatment of pain and problems physical, psychosocial and spiritual

79
Q

Aims of palliative care

A
  • Provides relief from pain and symptom
  • Affirms life and regards dying as normal process
  • Intends to neither hasten or postpone death
  • Integrates psychosocial and spiritual aspects of care
  • Offers support system to allow patients to live as actively as possible until death
  • Offers support for the family to cope during illness and bereavement
  • Uses a teams approach
  • Enhances quality of life
  • Is applicable early in course of illness in conjunction with other therapies that can prolong life e.g. chemo and radiotherapy
80
Q

End of Life Strategy

A

Published by Department of Health in 2008
It identified a number of significant issues affecting dying and death

Patients will have

  • Opportunity to discuss needs and preferences
  • Have a recorded care plan
  • Co-ordinated care and support
  • Rapid service and clinical assessment
  • high quality care and support
  • Treated with dignity
  • Appropriate support for carers and families
  • Services will be monitored and assess to ensure quality. National Intelligence Network to collect, analyse and publish data
  • Services to be informed by experience of others: VOICES survey
81
Q

Define good death

A
  • Being treated as an individual with dignity and respect
  • Being without pain and other symptoms
  • Being in familiar surroundings
  • Being in the company of close family and or friends
82
Q

Where do deaths occur?

A

58% in hospital
18% at home
17% in care homes
4% in hospices

83
Q

Palliative care pathway steps

A
  • Identify people approaching end of life and initiate discussion about preferences for end of life care
  • Care planning: assess needs and preferences, agree to care plan and review regularly
  • Co-ordination of care
  • Delivery of high quality services in all areas
  • Management of last days of life
  • Care after death
  • support for carers during and after illness
84
Q

What is the Gold Standards Framework and what are its aims?

A

It is recommended by the End of Life Strategy 2008

It is a way of working that has been adopted across the UK with regards to palliative care;

  • Identify people in need of special care
  • assess and record their needs
  • Plan and provide care

AIMS

  • Physical symptoms are reduced
  • Patients have a choice and control over place of care
  • Patients feel sense of safety and security and feel supported
  • Family and carers feel supported, enabled and informed
  • primary care team work effectively with other health professionals
85
Q

What are the 7 C’s of Gold Standards Framework

A
  1. Communication
  2. Coordination of care
  3. Control of symptoms and ongoing assessment
  4. Continuing support
  5. Continued learning
  6. Carer and family support
  7. Care in final days
86
Q

RCT - assessing allocation

A

Was there random allocation?
Is the method of allocation described?
How was the randomisation schedule generated?
How was a participant allocated?
Were the groups balanced?
Any differences address and accounted for?
If there were any differences - could they be confounders?

87
Q

RCT - assessing blinding?

A

Consider that blinding is not always possible
Has every effort been made to achieve blnding?
Does it matter in this study?

88
Q

RCT - were all who entered the trial accounted for in its conclusion?

A
  • If any intervention group participatns were given a control group option of vice versa
  • If all participatns were followed up in each study group (any loss to follow up)
  • Analysis through intention to treat?
  • What additional information would be valuable?
89
Q

RCT - were all participants treated in the same way?

A

Reviewed at same time periods?
If they received the same amount of attention?
Any differences? Could this have affected the results?

90
Q

RCT - is it applicable locally?

A

Are the people in the trial different to your population
Does the local setting differ
Can the same level of treatment be provided
Consider outcomes from point of view of individual, policy maker, professionals, family and wider community
- Any benefit, does it outweight any harms or costs
COST ANALYSIS
Should policy be changed.

91
Q

Define guidelines

A

A consensus of best practice based on available evidence in health care

92
Q

Features of an effective guideline

A
  • Wide range of clinical and user perspectives
  • External reviews incorporated
  • Time limit used
93
Q

Methods of implementing guidelines

A 
Computer messages
Audio visual aids
Electronic publications
Educational Outreach visits
Local opinion leaders (consultants)
Computer Decision Support systems
94
Q

Groups that need special precautions with food poisoning

A 
Pregnant women
Very young
Very old
People who work with food
People who work with immunocompromised (healthcare)
95
Q

Common food poisoning causative agents

A 
Campylobacter (from milk and poultry)
Shigella (salad, veg and dairy)
salmonella (eggs, meat, poultry)
Clostridia (spores in meat)
Listeria (meat, dairy, fish, shellfish)
96
Q

Dealing with an outbreak of food poisoning

A

Identify and isolate the source
Identify and treat infected individuals
Advse and further treatment and prevention of spread
- Hygiene
- Off work for 48 hours
- Notify HPA - Public health (control of disease act) 1984

97
Q

Common causes of nosocomial diarrhoea

A 
Clostridium difficile 
Norovirus
Rotavirus
E.coli
Klebsiella
MRSA
98
Q

Factors considered when allocating organs

A

Tissue type matching (ABO and HLA)
Type of organ
Location or organ and nearest recipient (ischaemic time)

99
Q

Factors leading to increased transplant rates

A

Large number of transplant centres
High percentage of the population university educated
High percentage of Roman Catholics

Proactive donor detection programme
Economic reimbursement for hospitals
High number of RTAs

100
Q

Assessing cost effectiveness of screening

A

Estimate costs in relation to calculated number of years saved (cost-effectiveness analysis)

  • Cost of equipment
  • Cost of additional examination (depends on false + rate)
  • Prevalence and mortality in the examined population
  • Compliance rate
  • Cost of primary therapy
  • Costs saved by reducing number of cost-intensive therapies for advanced stages
  • Effect of years gained on GNP, income and taxes
101
Q

Diabetes MDT

A 
Diabetes specialist nurse
Podiatrist
Dietician
Doctor
Endocrinologist
Nephrologist
Ophthalmologist
Cardiologist
Neurologist
102
Q

Medical conditions more common in obese patients

A 
Arthritis
T2DM
CVD
Cancer
End stage renal disease
Chronic venous insufficiency
Gout
Sleep apnoea
Stroke
DVT/PE
HTN
Urinary stress incontinence
Surgical complications
103
Q

SMART targets

A 
Specific
Measureable 
Achievable
Realistic
Time bound
104
Q

National Obesity Forum

A

Established to raise awareness of the growing impact of obesity on our patients and NHS

  • Create recognition of obesity as a serious medical problem
  • Produce education on obesity management
  • Provide guidelines for obesity management in primary care
  • Provide a network for support and in information resource
  • Convince the government to give obesity a high priority
  • Highlight health inequalities of obesity
105
Q

National Service Framework for Mental Health

A

Set of policies created to define standards of care for major medical issues

  • Help drive up equality and remove the wide variations in provision of care
  • Set national standards and define service models
  • Put in place programmes and support local delivery of services
  • Establish milestones and performance indictors to measure.
106
Q

NICE recommendations for fertility treatment

A

Women under 40 unable to conceive after 2 years of regular unprotected intercourse get 3 cycles of IVF

Women aged 40-42 are offered 1 cycle but only if they have not had IVF in the past and they DO NOT have low ovarian reserve

Ovarian stimulation can be given in unexplained fertility
Intrauterine insemination can be used if endometriosis, mild male infertility or a physical or psychological problem with having sex

107
Q

Risks associated with fertility treatment

A

Multiple pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome

108
Q

Complaints in the NHS

A

2 stage process

  • Ask GP, hospital or trust for a copy of complaints procedure
  • Raise the matter verbally or written with the practioner or to NHS England or to local BBG (local resolution)
    Most are sorted at this stage

If still unhappy can refer to Parliamentary and Health Service Ombudsman who is independent of the NHS and government

109
Q

Common complaints in NHS

A
  1. Safety of clinical practice
  2. Poor or insufficient information
  3. Ineffective clinical practice
  4. Poor handling of complaints
  5. Discharge and co-ordination of care
  6. Lack of dignity and respect
  7. Poor attitudes of staff
  8. Failure to follow consent procedures
  9. Poor environment including poor hygiene
  10. Lack of access to personal clinical records
110
Q

Problems in handling of complaints

A

Failure to acknowledge validity of complaint
Failure to apologist
Response do not explain what has been done to prevent recurrence
Response contain medical or technical jargon
Failure to involve staff directly concerned in the complaint in the investigation

111
Q

High risk groups for STIs

A 
Young
Black/ethnic minority
Gay/bisexual
IVDU
HIV positive
Sex workers
Prisoners
112
Q

Down’s screening

A

Combined test between 10 and 14 weeks

  • Blood test: beta hcg and PAPP-A
  • Nuchal scanning

Quadruple test after 14 weeks

  • beta hcg
  • AFP
  • Inhibin A
  • Unconjugated oestradiol

Raised beta hcg and inhibin A in Down’s
Low UE3, AFP and PAPP-A

If result shows risk > 1/150 then amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling is offered

113
Q

Current antenatal and neonatal screening

A 
Anencephaly
Spina bifida
Cleft palate/lip
Diaphragm hernia
Gastrroschisis
Exomphalos
Cardia and renal complication
Edward's 
Patau's

Sickle cell and thalassaemia

Hep B, HIV, rubella, syphilis in pregnancy

Newborn blood spot - CF, PKU, hypothyroidism, MCAD

Newborn hearing

New born and 6 week baby check

114
Q

Contraindications to live vaccines

A

Receiving cancer treatment or finished in the last 6 months

Taking immunosuppressive drugs

Bone marrow transplant in last 6 months

Taking high dose steroids

Evidence of immune impairment

HIV positive

115
Q

Vaccinations given at 2 months

A

Rota virus
5 in 1
Pneumococcus

116
Q

Vaccinations given at 3 months

A

Rotavirus
5 in 1
Men C

117
Q

Vaccinations given at 4 months

A

5 in 1

Pneumococcal

118
Q

Vaccinations given at 1 year

A

Hib
Men C
MMR
Pneumococcal

119
Q

Every Child Matters Key Outcomes

A 
Healthy - physical/mental/lifestyle
Safe - from harm and neglect
Enjoy &amp; achieve - most out of life
Contribute - to society and community
Economic wellbeing - full potential
120
Q

Purpose of MDTs for child safety

A

Children get the help they need when they need it
Professionals take timely action to protect children
Professional ensure children and listened to and respected
Agencies and professionals work together to assess needs and risk and develop effective plans
Professionals are competent and confident
Agencies work with members of the community

121
Q

Psychosocial issues regarding back pain

A 
Constant discomfort from the pain
Loss of income
Depression
Loss of independence
Feeling of guilt/like a fraud
Side effects from medications
Relationship issues
Decreased social/ leisure activities
Inability to care for the family
Decreased libido
122
Q

Epidemiology of falls

A

30% over 65 suffer from falls
Incidence is increasing with ageing population
In residential care fall are 3x higher

RFs
Parkinsons
Stroke
Arthritis
Joint disease
Muscle weakness/myopathy
Incontinence
Gait abnormality
Incontinence
Postural hypotension 
Low BMI
Poor lighting
Steep stairs
Rugs/ loose carpet
Slippery floors
Cluttered areas
Poorly fitting footwear

Polypharmacy
Sedatives
Antihypertensives

Dementia
Visual impairment
Diabetic neuropathy
Hearing impairment

123
Q

Consequences of falls

A

Fractures NOF
Head/ eye injuries
Wrist #
Spinal #

Long lie

  • hypothermia
  • pressure sores
  • rhabdomylysis
  • dehydration

Loss of confidence, immobility, isolation, depression, decreased independence, long term care

124
Q

Methods for preventing falls

A 
Homes based strength and balance training
Daily cleaning of spectacles
Regular vision checks
Staff monitoring in nursing homes
Home safety assessment and modifications
Podiatry
Walking aids
125
Q

Benefits of blind registration

A 
Blue badge parking permit
Leisure centre consessions
bus and rail ticken concessions
TV licence concessions
Career and employment advice
Disability Living Allowance
126
Q

Blind registration

A

Can only occur if recommended by consultant ophthalmologist

Registration is voluntary, only 30% register (stigma, unaware of system)

127
Q

Principles of Quality Standards for Older People

A
  1. Remove age discrimination
  2. person centred care
  3. Integrate services to promote faster recovery
  4. Specialist services in hospital
  5. Reduce incidence of stroke
  6. Reduce incidence of falls
  7. Promote good mental health
  8. Extend healthy life expectancy
128
Q

NICE technology appraisal

A

Assess the evidence base and clinical and cost effectiveness of new and existing healthcare technologies with a view to providing single, authoritative source of advice on interventions and procedure

Technology appraisal is mandatory to gain funding

Technologies that can be appraised are:

  • Drugs
  • Diagnostic tests
  • Clinical devices
  • Surgical and clinical procedures
  • Health promotion interventions
129
Q

Technology appraisal process

A
  1. Topic selection - through consultation with industry and NHS and patient groups
  2. Data submission - industry is required to submit all trial data according to NICE criteria
  3. Data review - NICE appraisal committee allocates data to an academic centre to report on clinical and cost effectiveness
  4. Call for contributions = from interested parties including stakeholders (manufactures, Royal colleges, patients, carers)
  5. Funding. If mandatory CCGs must fund the service if it is required
130
Q

Quality standard criteria for dementia

A
  1. Care from specialist dementia staff
  2. memory assessment
  3. written information
  4. personalised care plan
  5. opportunity to discuss advanced decisions
  6. assessment and management of non-cognitive symptoms
  7. Special dementia liaison services
  8. Assessment of palliative care
  9. Address carers emotional, psychological and social needs
  10. Respite services
131
Q

Quality standard for suspected stroke patients

A
  • Screened with validated tool
  • Receive brain imaging within hour
  • Admitted directly to acute stroke unit, assess for thrombolysis
  • Swallowing assessment before feeding
  • Ongoing rehabilitation
  • Minimum 45 minutes of active therapy per day
  • Treatment plan for incontinence
  • Scree for cognitive and mood disturbance within 6 weeks
  • Specialist stroke rehabilitation services after discharge
  • Carers given contacts and information
132
Q

Criminal Transmission of HIB

A

Intentional - deliberate transmission with aim to cause harm
Reckless - not deliberate but careless
Accidental - unaware of condom failure

Hard to prove

HIV is not a notifiable disease
Doctor has a duty of care to the patient, but also to protect those that might be at harm
Doctor has a duty of confidentiality to the patient
Doctors may breech this if they are protecting another from serious harm

Ask advice from medical defence union or GU consultant

133
Q

Why monitor adverse events?

A

Common - important consequences
Up to 50% are preventable
Can learn from adverse events
Can reduce in future and improve care

134
Q

National patient safety agency

A

It is the body responsible for handling adverse events and adverse events should be reported to them.

Example
- Yellow card reporting for drug side effects

135
Q

Never events

A

Wrong site surgery
Wrong implant/prosthesis
Retained foreign object post-op
Selection of a high potassium solution
Wrong route of administration
Overdose of insulin due to abbreviations or incorrect device
Overdose of methotrexate for non-cancer treatment
Mis-selection of high strength midazolam during conscious sedation

Failure to install functional collapsible shower or curtain rails
Falls form poorly restricted windows
Check or neck entrapment in bed rails

Transfusion of ABO incompatible blood
Mis placed NG tube (that is then used)
Scalding of patients

136
Q

Criteria for consent

A

For consent to be valid it must be:

  • Voluntary
  • Informed
  • patient must have capacity
137
Q

When is consent not required?

A

Additional procedures - if it is too dangerous to wake the patient to get consent (surgery)

Emergency treatment

mental health condition under mental health act 1983

Risk to public health (Public Health (Control of Diseases) Act 1984)

Severely ill and living in unhygienic conditions (National assistance act 1948) - taken to a place of care with or without consent

138
Q

Consent and children

A

Over 16 - make own decisions
Under 16s can consent to treatment if they are Gillick competent.
If a child refuses treatment then their decision can be overruled by the Parents of Court of protection

If a parent refused to consent for a treatment for their child that prevents injury/death this can be overruled by the courts

Only one parent needs to consent

Consent not required in emergency

139
Q

4 ethical principles

A

Justice
Autonomy
Non-maleficence
Beneficence

140
Q

Situations where can break confidentiality

A

DVLA if patient will not inform themselves
Required by law
Gunshot and knife wounds reported to police
Communicable diseases
Risk to child’s safety

General principles

  • Protect children
  • protect public from acts of terrorism
  • Under Drug Trafficking Act 1986
  • Prevent or detect a crime
  • In life threatening situations
  • Protect service provider e.g. violent patient
141
Q

Define euthanasia

A

Deliberately ending a person’s life to relieve suffering

  • Active
  • Passive (withdrawal of treatment)
  • Voluntary - asking for help
  • Non-voluntary - unable to give consent e.g. coma
142
Q

Define assisted suicide

A

Act of deliberately assisting or encouraging another person to commit suicide

143
Q

Arguments for euthanasia

A

Ethics - freedom of choice (AUTONOMY)

  • DNACPR is a form of passive euthanasia
  • Palliative sedation - likely shortening lifespan

Beneficence = acting in the patient’s best interests

144
Q

Doctrine Double Effect

A

An act is allowed if it brings about a good consequence that can only be achieved at risk of a harmful side effect

145
Q

Arguments against euthanasia

A

Religious - only god has that right

Slippery slope

  • Ill people may feel pressure to accept euthanasia to not be a burden
  • Discourages research into palliative care
  • Misdiagnosis or prognosis could lead to unnecessary euthanasia

Violates ethical code of doctors - do no harm
Non-maleficence
Lack of compassion

Alternatives are available

  • Palliative care and mental health care
  • Can still have painless death with dignity
146
Q

Reasons for abortion

A

AUTONOMY - women have the right to decide what happens to their body
JUSTICE - right to abortion is vital for women to achieve full potential e.g. teen pregnancy
BENEFICIENCE - force women to use illegal and unsafe abortionists
JUSTICE and BENEFICIENCE - avoid emotional harm of bearing a child from rape
NON-MALIFICEINCE - foetus is immature entity and would not survive outside of uterus
BENEFICIENCE - undesired pregnancy can decrease quality of life and psychological harm for mother

147
Q

Reasons against abortion

A

JUSTICE - all forms of human life have the right to life
NON-MALIFIENCE - deliberate ending of another’s life is no different to murder
NON-MALIFEINCE - medical complications later in life
JUSTICE - many couples are looking to adopt and abortion denies them this opportunity

148
Q

Research ethic principles

A

Nuremburg code for research ethics principles

  • Voluntary consent from all involved
  • Should yield results beneficial to society that cannot be acquired by other means
  • Based on animal experimentation and knowledge of natural history of disease
  • Avoid all unnecessary physical and mental suffering
  • Should not be performed if there is a prior reason to believe the intervention is harmful
  • Risk should not exceed humanitarian importance
  • Preparation and facilities should be provided to protect subjects from injury, disability or death
  • Conducted by scientifically qualified people
  • Can leave whenever they wish
  • Scientist in charge should be prepared to end experiment if harm comes to subjects
149
Q

When to report under age sexual activity

A

Child under 13
Belief that they are abused or exploited
Lacks capacity

150
Q

Define confidence interval

A

Range of values that is 95% likely to contain the true value
Describes the level of uncertainty in the sample.

151
Q

What information is required to interpret a confidence interval?

A

Confidence level e.g. 95%
Statistic
Margin or error

Sample statistic +/- margin or error

152
Q

Define p value

A

Likelihood that the observed result is due to change

P > 0.05 is not statistically significant

153
Q

What results in a change to the size of the confidence interval

A

Variation in sample data
Chosen % interval
Sample size

154
Q

Define power

A

The probability that it will reject a false null hypothesis
It is inversely related to the probability of making a type 2 error

It is the likelihood that a study will detect an effect when there is an effect to be detected.

It is affected by the size of the effect and the size of the sample used to detect it.

155
Q

Purpose of blinding

A

Eliminates

  • Investigator bias
  • Evaluation bias
  • Hawthorne effect - participant may exaggerate the effects
156
Q

Types of blinding

A

Single = only the participant is unaware about which treatment they are receiving

Double = both the participant and the investigator are unaware about the intervention
This eliminates observer bias

Triple = in addition, the evaluator is not aware of the process

157
Q

Define null hypothesis

A

No difference

No effect

158
Q

Define randomisation

A

The allocation of treatments to patients using a random process
- Allocation should be unbiased
- Treatment groups should be balanced
This is so there is a fair test of efficacy

159
Q

Types of randomisation

A

Restricted randomisation
Block randomisation
Minimisation
Stratification

160
Q

Define restricted randomisation

A

Number of patients in each group are chosen in advance

161
Q

Define block randomisation

A

This ensures similar numbers of paitents are in each group. For each block, half to treatment, half to placebo

Block size can be changed and it can be stratified into subgroups

162
Q

Define stratified randomisation

A

Stratification gives an equal distribution of risk factors between groups in an attempt to reduce confounding.

163
Q

Why randomise?

A

Ensures investigator cannot influence who is in which group

In the long run the groups and comparable in known and unknown factors

Any observed effect is due to treatments.

164
Q

Define selection bias

A

This occurs if the likelihood of enrolling a certain patient is influenced by knowing which treatment they might receive

165
Q

Define responder bias

A

Knowledge of which group a person is in can influence response.
Based on placebo effect.

166
Q

Common confounding factors

A

Age
Sex
Demographic characteristics

167
Q

Intention to treat analysis

A

Once a patient has been randomised they must be analysed in their allocated group regardless of whether they followed the protocol correctly

168
Q

Per protocol analysis

A

Reports who actually got which treatment and analyses as such
Does not reflect real life

169
Q

What is a confounder

A

They are factors that influence treatment and outcome measures and include demographic characteristics, prognostic factors and other characteristics that may influence someone’s likelihood of participating or withdrawing from the trial

170
Q

Define internal validiyu

A

Accuracy
how well the study was conducted
taking into account confounders and removing bias

171
Q

Define external validity

A

Generalisability

How well the study can be applied to different scenarios

172
Q

Type 1 error

A

Null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
(result of trial wrongly shows a difference(

False positive

Not affected by sample size
Increased by increased number of end points

Probability of type 1 error = alpha

173
Q

Type 2 error

A

Null hypothesis is ACCEPTED when it is false
Result of trial fails to show the true difference

False negative

Decreased by a smaller sample size

Probability of type 2 error = beta

174
Q

Define absolute risk

A

Risk of disease among the population being studied

175
Q

Define relative risk

A

Risk if disease among exposed compared to that of non-exposed

176
Q

Define risk ratio

A

Probability of disease in the at risk group / risk of not at risk group

177
Q

Define odds ratio

A

It is a the measure of an association between exposure and outcome.
It represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure

178
Q

When is an odds ratio used

A

In case control studies Mostly

Can sometimes be used in cross-sectional and cohort studies

179
Q

What does an odds ratio >1, <1 and equal to 1 mean

A

OR = 1. Exposure does not affect odds of outcome
OR > 1. Exposure is associated with higher odds of outcome
OR < 1 exposure is associated with lower odds of outcome

180
Q

Calculating odds ratio

A

ad/bc

a = positive outcome, positive exposure
b = negative outcome, positive exposure
c = positive outcome, negative exposure
d = negative outcome, negative exposure
181
Q

Absolute risk reduction

A

risk in exposed - risk in unexposed

182
Q

Number needed to treat

A

1/ absolute risk reduction
Number of patients needed to be treated to produce 1 improved outcome

Round up for benefit
Round down for harm.

Year 4 (7 decks)

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