The Skull, Vertebral Column, Spinal Cord, And Spinal Nerves And Back Muscles (Lecture 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Surrounds the openings into the digestive and respiratory tracts (e.g. nasal passages and mouth)

A

Skull

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2
Q

It is composed of the skeleton of the head and the mandible.

A

Skull

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3
Q

Portion of the skull without the mandible.

A

Cranium

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4
Q

3 most common facial fracture

A

In order:

  1. nasal bones
  2. zygomatic bone
  3. mandible
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5
Q

A deep depression in the sphenoid bone which lodges the pituitary gland.

A

Sella turcica

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6
Q

How many bones are there in the neurocranium and what are these?

A
Frontal bone - 1
Parietal bone - 2
Temporal bone - 2
Occipital bone - 1
Ethmoid - 1
Sphenoid - 1
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7
Q

What are the bones of the facial cranium and how many?

A
Zygomatic bones - 2
Maxillae - 2
Nasal - 2
Lacrimal - 2
Palatine - 2
Inferior conchae - 2

Vomer - 1
Mandible - 1

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8
Q

Forms the bregma

A

Anterior fontanelle

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9
Q

Age at closing of the anterior fontanelle

A

18 mos

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10
Q

Forms the lamba

A

Posterior fontanelle

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11
Q

Age at closing ( post. Fontanelle)

A

2-3 mos after birth

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12
Q

Forms the upper margins of orbits

A

Frontal bone

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13
Q

Medial association of the frontal bone

A
  1. Frontal process of maxillae

2. Nasal bones

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14
Q

Lateral articulation of the frontal bone

A

Zygomatic bone

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15
Q

Hollow spaces inside the frontal bone lined with mucous membrane that allows communication with the nose and to serve as voice resonators.

A

Frontal air sinuses

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16
Q

Lateral orbital margin

A

Zygomatic bone

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17
Q

Inferior orbital margin

A

Maxilla

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18
Q

Make up the anterior nasal aperture

A
  1. Lowere border of the nasal bones, and

2. Maxillae

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19
Q

The nasal septum is largely formed by:

A

Vomer

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20
Q

The zygomatic bone is perforated by these 2 nerves

A
  1. Zygomaticofacial nerve

2. Zygomaticotemporal nerve

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21
Q

Forms the prominence of the cheek.

A

Zygomatic bone

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22
Q

The thinnest part of the lateral wall of the skull

A

Pterion

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23
Q

Roughened elevation at the midline of the occipital bone which gives attachment to muscles.

A

External occipital protuberance

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24
Q

What ligament is attached to the external occipital protuberance?

A

Ligamentum nuchae

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25
Q

Undeveloped among newborn and develops only as a result of the pull of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

A

Mastoid process

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26
Q

A suture connecting the parietal and occipital bones.

A

Lambdoid suture

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27
Q

A sharp upward projection of the ethmoid bone in the midline for the attachment of the falx cerebri.

A

Crista galli

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28
Q

A sickle-shaped fold of dura mater that lies in the midline between the two cerebral hemispheres.

A

Falx cerebri

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29
Q

True/False. The cribriform plate is another weak point in the skull, can easily fracture and can allow infections to penetrate the cranium.

A

True

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30
Q

Lodges the frontal lobes of the cerebral hemispheres

A

Anterior cranial fossa

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31
Q

Deepest among the three cranial fossae.

A

Posterior cranial fossa.

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32
Q

Separates anterior and middle fossa

A

Lesser wing of the sphenoid

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33
Q

Separates middle and posterior fossa

A

Petrous part of temporal bone

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34
Q

What does the chiasmatic notch contain?

A

Optic chiasma

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35
Q

Upper division of the cruciate eminence runs from this structure.

A

Internal occipital protuberance

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36
Q

Fracture which may involve the cribriform plate and damge the meninges.

A

Fracture of the anterior fossa

37
Q

Signs of anterior cranial fossa fracture

A
  1. Epistaxis (nosebleed)

2. Rhonorrhea (CSF leaking thru nose)

38
Q

What can fracture of the orbital plate cause?

A

Hemorrhage beneath the conjunctiva into the orbital cavity resulting to exophthalmos.

39
Q

It is the bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit.

A

Exophthalmos

40
Q

A fracture characterized by hemotympanum and otorrhea.

A

Middle cranial fossa fracture

41
Q

Battle sign as a classic sign found in mastoid area.

A

POSTERIOR cranial fossa fracture

42
Q

Characterized by hematoma behind the auricle of the ear.

A

Battle sign

43
Q

Common sports injury like in boxing. Fracture of the zygomatic arch, lateral rim, and inferior rim of the orbit.

A

Tripod fracture

44
Q

A fracture characterized by enophthalmus (sunken eye) and diplopia. Common fracture in softball/ baseball.

A

Blowout fracture

45
Q

A fracture commonly caused by automobile accidents, fisticuffs and falls

A

Facial fractures

46
Q

Fracture of the midface which collectively involve the separation of all or a portion of the midface from the skull base

A

Le fort 1

47
Q

Also known as the pyramidal fracture

A

Le fort 2

48
Q

Otherwise known as the craniofacial dissociation fracture.

A

Le fort 3

49
Q

Clinical sign for a basal skull fracture.

A

Raccoon eyes

50
Q

Supports the skull, pectoral girdle, upperlimbs and thoracic cage

A

Vertebral column

51
Q

How many vertebrae are there in the adult spinal column?

A

26

33-7

52
Q

Number of intervertebral discs

A

23

53
Q

Develop as a result of accomodation to the upright posture.

A

Curvature of the spinal column.

54
Q

Primary curvatures are:

A

Kyphotic

55
Q

Where do primary curvatures occur?

A

Thoracic and Sacral

56
Q

Secondary curvatures:

A

Lordotic

57
Q

Lordotic portions of the vertebral column

A
  1. Cervical

2. Lumbar

58
Q

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

Scoliosis

59
Q

Component of the intervertebral disc characterized by a gel-like matrix and high water content

A

Nucleus pulposus

60
Q

Serves as a shock absorber, surrounding the nucleus pulposus.

A

Annulus fibrous

61
Q

A joint formed between the superior and inferior facets of adjacent vertebrae

A

Zygapophyseal joint

62
Q

Runs along the anterolateral portions of the vertebral bodies and helps to prevent hyperextension.

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

63
Q

Prevents hyperflexion and herniation of the intervertebral discs

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

64
Q

Pain sensitive ligament, connecting the laminae of adjaceny vertebrae

A

Ligamentum flavum

65
Q

Connects adjacent spinous process

A

Interspinous ligament

66
Q

Runs between adjacent transverse process

A

Intertransverse ligament

67
Q

Runs between the tips of adjacent spines

A

Supraspinous ligament

68
Q

Transitional vertebra

A

Vertebra prominens

69
Q

Unique structure, common only among cervical vertebrae

A

Foramen transversarium

70
Q

Unique structure common only among thoracic vertebrae.

A

Demifacets for rib articulation.

71
Q

Often site of anesthetic injection given just before childbirth.

A

Sacral hiatus

72
Q

Caused by a powerful hyperflexion resultung to a chipped spinous process

A

Clay-Shoveler’s fracture

73
Q

Degeneration of IV discs . Usually occurs at old age; presence of spurs.

A

Spondylosis

74
Q

Theveins of the spinal cord drain into the:

A

Internal vertebral venous plexus

75
Q

The most external membrane and is a dense, strong, fibrous sheet that encloses the spinal cord and cauda equina

A

Dura mater

76
Q

The dura mater is continuous with the connective tissue surrounding each spinal nerve at the intervertebral foramen. What is this dense connective tissue called?

A

Epineurium

77
Q

A vascular membrane that closely covers the spinal cord

A

Pia mater

78
Q

The pia mater is thickened on either sides of the spinal cord between the nerve roots to form the:

A

Ligamentum denticulatum

79
Q

Is a colorless, clear fluid formed mainly by the choroid plexus.

A

CSF

80
Q

CSF enters the bloodstream by passing thru:

A

Arachnoid villi

81
Q

Back muscles connected with the shoulder. (Collective term)

A

Superficial muscles

82
Q

Back muscles involved in the movements of the thoracic cage (collective term)

A

Intermediate muscles

83
Q

Muscles belonging to the vertebral column. Also known as the postvertebral muscles.

A

Deep muscles

84
Q

What inervates the deep muscles of the back?

A

Posterior rami of spinal nerves

85
Q

Name the deep muscles of the back which function for the ipsilateral spine flexion

A

Collective term: erectoe spinae

Specific: iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis

86
Q

A detached part of the deep muscles of the back

A

Splenius

87
Q

Site on the back where breath sounds may be most easily heard with a steth.

A

Auscultatory triangle

88
Q

The site where pus may emerge from the abdominal wall.

A

Lumbar triangle