The Neutrophil Response to Infection Flashcards

1
Q

List 2 distinct features of a neutrophil.

A

1 - A multi-lobed nucleus.

2 - Preformed granules.

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2
Q

List the stages of neutrophil maturation.

Which of these are proliferation stages?

A

1 - Myeloblast.

2 - Promyelocyte.

3 - Myelocyte.

4 - Metamyelocyte.

5 - Band cell.

6 - Mature neutrophil.

  • Stages 1-3 are the proliferation stages.
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3
Q

What is the average rate of production of neutrophils?

A

1-2*10^11 per day.

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4
Q

List 3 mediators of neutrophil lifespan.

A

1 - Complement proteins.

2 - Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF).

3 - Pro-inflammatory cytokines.

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5
Q

List 3 changes that you might expect to see on a blood count with a generic infection.

A

1 - Reduced haemoglobin.

2 - Increased white cell count.

3 - Increased C-reactive protein (CRP).

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6
Q

Which leukocyte is the most abundant in the body?

A

Neutrophils (70% of all leukocytes are neutrophils).

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7
Q

What is the name of the process by which the concentration of neutrophils in the blood can increase rapidly (e.g. during infection)?

A

Neutrophil mobilisation.

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8
Q

What is the average half life of neutrophils?

A

8-12 hours.

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9
Q

What is the average neutrophil concentration in the blood?

A

2.5-7.5 *10^9 neutrophils/ml.

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10
Q

Describe the process of chemotaxis.

A

1 - Inflamed or infected tissues release inflammatory cytokines.

2 - The cytokines are released systemically to form a gradient leading back to the site of injury.

3 - Cytokine signals can induce or stop migration of cells and alter the direction of travel, such that cells move up a concentration gradient of chemokine.

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11
Q

List 4 signalling molecules that are involved in chemotaxis.

For each, state their function.

A

1 - IL-10, a molecule that promotes movement away from a site (retrograde chemotaxis).

2 - IL-8, a molecule that promotes chemotaxis towards a site.

3 - LTB4, a molecule that promotes chemotaxis towards a site.

4 - fMLP, a molecule that stops chemotaxis.

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12
Q

List the stages of neutrophil migration from the circulation into tissues.

A

1 - Leukocytes roll on the surface of the endothelium by way of selectins, which looseley bind to carbohydrate selectin ligands on the endothelium.

2 - Triggering occurs when chemokines on the endothelium bind to chemokines receptors on the neutrophil.

3 - Firm adhesion occurs when cell adhesion molecules on the endothelium binds to activated integrins on the neutrophil.

4 - Extravasation occurs.

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13
Q

Which receptors are responsible for the recognition of pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and damage associated molecular patterns (DAMPs)?

A

Pattern recognition receptors such as toll like receptors.

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14
Q

Define phagolysosome.

A

The structure formed by fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome.

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15
Q

List 2 properties of a lysosome that make it effective for killing pathogens.

A

1 - Low pH.

2 - Presence of toxic granules.

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16
Q

List 2 intracellular pathogens (pathogens which can grow inside macrophages).

A

1 - Salmonella.

2 - Mycobacteria.

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17
Q

What type of cell is a neutrophil?

A

A phagocytic granulocyte.

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18
Q

List 3 proteins contained within granules.

A

1 - Proteases.

2 - Bactericidal proteins such as lactoferrin.

3 - Superoxide anions (part of the reactive oxygen species which lower the pH to optimise conditions for proteases).

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19
Q

List the three states in which a neutrophil can exist.

A

1 - Quiescent state.

2 - Primed state.

3 - Activated state.

20
Q

List 2 characteristics of quiescent neutrophils.

A

1 - Rounded shape.

2 - No mobilisation of granules.

21
Q

List 2 characteristics of primed neutrophils.

A

1 - Cytoskeletal mobilisation results in a polarised bullet shape.

2 - Able to amount a fast response that is tenfold larger than activated cells.

22
Q

List 3 characteristics of activated neutrophils.

A

1 - Undergoes chemotaxis.

2 - Undergoes degranulation.

3 - Releases reactive oxygen species.

23
Q

List 4 effects of reactive oxygen species.

A

1 - Damage to DNA.

2 - Oxidation of fatty acids in lipids.

3 - Oxidation of amino acids in proteins.

4 - Deactivation of specific enzymes.

24
Q

What are neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)?

A

Unraveled DNA coated in bactericidal proteins extruded by neutrophils.

25
Q

When are neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) released?

A

During late infection and inflammation when the cell has reached phagocytic capacity but infection and inflammation is still present.

26
Q

Define efferocytosis.

A

The process by which a neutrophil is phagocytosed by a macrophage.

27
Q

Why is retrograde chemotaxis important?

A

If retrograde chemotaxis does not occur and efferocytosis is overwhelmed, cells will undergo necrosis, allowing their damaging contents to leak.

28
Q

What causes pus formation?

A

When there are too many neutrophils for macrophages to clear.

29
Q

List 2 conditions which prevent pus from forming.

A

1 - Leukocyte adhesion deficiency.

2 - Neutropenia.

30
Q

What is the general effect of neutrophilia?

A

Damage from neutrophil granules.

31
Q

What causes leukocyte adhesion deficiencies?

A

Defects in integrins on leukocytes.

32
Q

List 3 conditions that are caused by failure of granules or granule contents.

A

1 - Chronic granulomatous disease.

2 - MPO deficiency.

3 - Chediak-Higashi syndrome.

33
Q

Which values of neutrophil concentration define mild, moderate and severe neutropenia?

A
  • Mild neutropenia: 1-1.5*10^9 neutrophils/ml.
  • Moderate neutropenia: 0.5-1*10^9 neutrophils/ml.
  • Severe neutropenia: <0.5*10^9 neutrophils/ml.
34
Q

Define chronic neutropenia.

A

Neutropenia that is still present after 3 months.

35
Q

Give an example of a sign of neutropenia.

A

Increased likelihood of infection with extracellular bacteria and fungi.

36
Q

List 3 causes of neutropenia.

A

1 - Decreased production in the bone marrow.

2 - Increased destruction.

3 - Marginalisation and sequestration.

37
Q

List 4 causes of decreased production of neutrophils in the bone marrow.

A

1 - Aplastic anaemia.

2 - Leukaemias.

3 - Hereditary disorders such as congenital neutropenia and cyclic neutropenia.

4 - Radiation.

38
Q

List 2 causes of increased destruction of neutrophils.

A

1 - Autoimmune neutropenia.

2 - Chemotherapy.

39
Q

List 2 causes of marginalisation and sequestration of neutrophils.

A

1 - Haemodialysis.

2 - Hypersplenism.

40
Q

What is benign ethnic neutropenia?

How is benign ethnic neutropenia treated?

A
  • Asymptomatic neutropenia present in African and Middle East populations.
  • No treatment needed as the bone marrow can still produce sufficient cells during challenge.
41
Q

List 6 age-associated chronic diseases whose pathophysiology involves neutrophil function.

Why might these diseases be associated with old age?

A

1 - COPD.

2 - Interstitial lung disease.

3 - Diabetes.

4 - Ischaemic heart disease.

5 - Inflammatory liver disease.

6 - Inflammatory bowel disease.

  • These diseases might be associated with old age due to immunosenescence, causing reduced migration and reduced neutrophil burst.
42
Q

What is an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

Give an example of a complication of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

A
  • A disease where neutrophil action is unopposed due to an abnormal structure of the alpha-1 antitrypsin protein which inhibits neutrophil elastase (a proteolytic enzyme).
  • Often causes lung damage in smokers due to unopposed actions of neutrophil elastase, resulting in emphysema.
43
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of chronic granulomatous disease.

A
  • The disease is caused by a failure to produce reactive oxygen species for the respiratory burst (rapid release of reactive oxygen species).
  • Causes formation of granulomas.
44
Q

Define granuloma.

When do granulomas form?

A
  • A structure formed during inflammation.
  • It is a collection of macrophages.
  • Granulomas form when the immune system attempts to wall off substances it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate.
45
Q

List 2 reasons why neutrophil concentration increases during infections.

A

1 - Increased production in the bone marrow.

2 - Reduced sequestration in the liver and spleen.