The FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

A good drug for gram +ve bacteria?

A

erythromycin

(macrolide)

because they accumulate 100 x of the drug.

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2
Q

What stage of labour does the placenta come away?

A

third

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3
Q

How does intussusception usually present?

A

Even though Intussusception presents with vomiting and abdominal distention, red currant jelly stools are often used to describe the nature of rectal bleeding. The condition is unlikely at 1 week and more common between 3-12 months.

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4
Q

What is achalasia?

What is a dange of this?

A
  1. Oesophageal aperistalsis
  2. Impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.

Progressive overflow of secretions and food, esp. at night and can cause aspiratory pneumonia.

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5
Q

What do you get atherosclerosis with CKD?

A

Associated with
abnormal lipid and
carbohydrate
metabolism
, especially
in diabetics.

tx: Consider statins,
antiplatelets/
anticoagulants

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6
Q

Telangiectasia

A

Also known as spider veins; small dilated blood vessels near the surface of the skin or mucous membranes

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7
Q

Dermatome to medial malleolus

A
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8
Q

What does raised PSA indicate?

A

Prostate cancer/ benign hypertrophy

other examination; PR, biopsy

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9
Q

Causes of hypoalbuminaemia and leukonychia

A

-reduced protein synthesis (cirrhosis),

increased protein excretion (nephrotic syndrome)

digestive tract; protein losing conditions (crohn’s)

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10
Q

What must you rule out if a joint is acutely swollen?

A

Septic arthritis

Common organism: Staphylococcus (this lives on the skin)

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11
Q

What ECG changes do you get with hyperkalaemia?

A

diminished P wave amplitude

increased T wave amplitude

PR prolongation

widened QRS complex

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12
Q

What are striae gravidarum?

A

Stretch marks are caused by tearing of the dermis.

(resilient middle tissue layer that helps the skin retain its shape)

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13
Q

Coagulation and pregnancy

A

Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time remain unchanged in pregnancy, so do not reflect the profound changes that result in a hypercoagulable state

Increased factors VIII, IX and X and fibrinogen, reduced fibrinolytic activity and a decrease in antithrombin and protein S all contribute

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14
Q

motor speech area located on left hemisphere (dominant side)

A

Broca’s area

  • comprehension okay, repetitive of words difficulty.
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15
Q

What is the Mx of a bite with suspected rabies?

And what is the potential complication?

A

immunoglobulin + vaccination

acute encephalitis

rem hydrophobia: water-provoking muscle spasms

hypersalivation

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16
Q

What is diagnosis of DKA based on?

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of Type I DM.

A

Diagnosis based on

diabetes (blood glucose >11 mmol/L)

ketones (urine or blood)

acidosis (pH <7.30 venous blood)

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17
Q

Where does pain radiate with acute cholecystitis?

A

from right hypochondrial region to shoulder/ interscapular region.

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18
Q

Name some cystic lumps

A
  • Branchial cyst
  • Cystic degeneration of tumour
  • Larynogocoele
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19
Q
A

Widespread purpuric rash of septicaemia

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20
Q

What’s the common cause of this?

A

cirrhosis,

the consequences of portal hypertension.

Commonly these bleed.

lower 1/3 of the oesophagus

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21
Q
A

Mean gestational age of onset is 34 weeks

More common in first pregnancy and those with multiple pregnancies

Pruritic, urticarial papules and plaques most commonly on abdomen (but sparing umbilicus) and thighs

Rapid resolution after delivery

No fetal issues

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22
Q

Minimal Change Disease - what’s the story

A

podocytes damaged, most common cause of nephrotic syndrome with children.

Proteinura and oedema of MCD can develop very rapidly- almost overnight

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23
Q

Pathophysiology of pleural effusion due to LVF

A

back up of fluids increases pulmonary pressure resulting in pulmonary oedema in the alveoli, fluid in the interstitial fluid, and finally into the pleural cavity.

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24
Q

80% of breast cancers are oestrogen receptor positive ( ER+ )

what pharmacological treatment is used post op?

NB. progesterone sensitive is PR+ (not common)

A

pre menopausal - tamoxifen (selective oestrogen receptor modulator)

post menopausal - anastrazole (aromatase inhibitor)

(aromatase enzyme is used in body fat to produce oestrogen)

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25
Q

Management of gestational diabetes mellitus

A

Diet, exercise

metformin

Fetal:

regular growth scans

monitor for pre-eclampsia

delivery at 38-39 wks

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26
Q

Always consider ultrasound scan for woman > 55 years if

  • unexplained vaginal discharge

or visible haematuria

combined with…

A

thrombocytosis

(or >> glucose levels - new NICE guideline)

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27
Q

What is the definitive examination for a PE?

A

CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) computed tomography using a contrast dye to obtain an image of the pulmonary arteries.

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28
Q

When would you take a breast cancer history from a patient? (4)

A
  • A person has concerns about their family history of breast cancer.
  • A person has breast symptoms.
    • It is clinically relevant:
      • In women over 35 years of age using an oral contraceptive pill.
      • In women being considered for long-term HRT.
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29
Q

foot bones 1

A
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30
Q

weight faltering implies…

A

conditon is transient, not serious

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31
Q

What’s another name for Post streptococcal GlomeruloNephritis?

A

acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

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32
Q

Name some macrolides (3)

A

erythromycin,, azithromycin and clarithromycin.

bacteriostatic

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33
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

To complicate matters further this has recently been renamed ‘No Special Type (NST)’

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34
Q

Heparin and LMWH can both cause what electrolyte disturbance?

A

hyperkalaemia

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35
Q

Legal requirements for termination before 24 weeks

  • requires two doctors to sign -

For mothers <16 years : Fraser guidelines apply

A

If it reduces the risk to a woman’s life;

or

If it reduces the risk to her physical or mental health;

or

If it reduces the risk to physical or mental health of her existing children;

or

If the baby is at substantial risk of being seriously mentally or physically handicapped.

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36
Q

What is Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, and the symptoms?

A

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is shingles affecting the facial nerve.

This results in ear pain, vesicles in the external ear canal associated with vertigo and deafness.

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37
Q

Which antihypertensives can be used in pregnancy?

A
  • Methyldopa - central action
  • Nifedipine - CCB
  • Labetalol - α- and β- receptors
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38
Q

Stroke tx whilst awaiting CT scan results

A

Px NBM

Nasogastric tube, IV fluids

Oxygen mask, monitor cardiac rhythm (digoxin if needed)

Possibly catheter to monitor output

Aspirin 75mg

Statins (low dose) even if lipid levels normal

TED (thromboembolic disease) stockings

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39
Q

Risk factors for ovarian cancer?

+testing

A

Many ovulations; early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity.

family history of BRAC1/2 gene mutations

CA125 - done initially, then if +ve, urgent ultrasound scan

Protective factors COC (fewer ovulations), many pregnanciies.

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40
Q

Which drugs might need dose reduced with CKD?

A
  • beta blockers
  • digoxin
  • allopurinol
  • opioids
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41
Q

Newly presenting stress incontinence. What do you need to rule out, and what test?

A

a urinalysis should be performed in order to exclude diabetes or a urinary tract infection that could be the cause of, or worsening her symptoms.

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42
Q

What drugs would you stop with hyperkalaemia?

A

ACE inhibitors + others

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43
Q

What is acute glomerulonephritis?

– acute nephritic syndrome

A

Abrupt onset of glomerular haematuria (RBC casts or dysmorphic RBC),

non-nephrotic range proteinuria, oedema (periorbital, leg or sacral), hypertension and

transient renal impairment.

- OFTEN inflammation of glomeruli/ small b. vessels.

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44
Q

ECG changes in pregnancy include:

A

ECG

Findings on a ECG performed during pregnancy that are not pathological include:

Small Q waves and inverted T waves in lead III

ST depression and T wave inversion inferiorly and laterally

Left shift of the axis

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45
Q

What do u waves signify?

A

hypokalaemia

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46
Q

Steroids and growth.. what’s the story

A

Cushing’s disease is rare.

exogenous steroids (eg. asthma) is a big No No.

If steroids required, give on alternate days to minimise damage.

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47
Q
A

A gumma is a soft, non-cancerous growth resulting from the tertiary stage of syphilis.

Gummas are most commonly found in the liver (gumma hepatis), but can also be found in brain, heart, skin, bone, testis, and other tissues.

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48
Q

What’s this?

itchy, papular rash most common on the palms, soles, genitalia and flexor surfaces of arms. Often polygonal in shape, ‘white-lace’ pattern on the surface

A

Lichen planus

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49
Q

Rare but significant side effect of LLETZ?

A

Rare but significant – as it can affect subsequent pregnancy – e.g. <strong>may require c-section</strong>,

and also

increases the risk of premature rupture of membranes, and preterm delivery.

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50
Q

What is the diagnosis of concussion?

A

Diagnosis requires less than 30 minutes of loss of consciousness, memory loss of less than 24 hours, and a GCS score of 13 to 15.

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51
Q

What is the role of Misoprostol?

A

Increases contraction of uterine smooth muscle

Causes cervical effacement

Medical termination of pregnancy

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52
Q

What is one of the main causes of death in pre-eclampsia women?

A

Cerebral haemorrhage

(signs : headaches, visual disturbances, seizures)

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53
Q

Small bony nodules (osteophytes) at the DIP and PIP joints are characteristic of what?

A

OA

DIP - Herberden’s nodes

PIP - Bouchard’s nodes

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54
Q

What are the three stages of labour?

A

Stage 1: from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated

stage 2: from full dilation to delivery of the fetus

stage 3: from delivery of fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered

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55
Q

What side effects are common with Typical antipsychotics?

A

movement disorders

Parkinsonism

Akathisia

Acute dystonic reactions: torticollis, >> muscle tone, oculogyric crisis

tardive dyskinesia

hyperprolactinaemia (including gynaecomastia and << penis/ testicle size)

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56
Q

What is a leiomyoma?

A

A leiomyoma,[fibroid] is a benign smooth muscle tumor that very rarely becomes cancer (0.1%). They can occur in any organ, but the most common forms occur in the uterus, small bowel, and the esophagus.

Polycythemia may occur due to increased erythropoietin production as part of a paraneoplastic syndrome.

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57
Q

What lifestyle would you give a diabetic px to reduce risk of developing ESKD?

A

Stop smoking, do exercise, control BP, address hyperlipidaemia.

If microalbuminuria then start ACE inhibitors or ARBs regardless of BP elevation.

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58
Q

What are the acquired causes of anaemia?

A
  • Reduced RBC production: deficiencies; iron, B12, folate, marrow replacement or aplasia
  • Increased RBC destruction (haemolytic anaemia)
  • Systemic illness; ACD (anaemia of chronic disease), renal failure,
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59
Q

When?

A

Meniscus tear

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60
Q

What three acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs are options for managing mild/ moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

A

donepezil

galantamine

rivastigmine

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61
Q

What and where and how?

A

melanoma - cutaneous malignant melanoma is a cancer of the pigment cells of the skin

common backs (men), legs (women)

Usual skin type suspects. Sunbeds and sudden intense sun exposure BAD.

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62
Q
A

Most common type of breast cancer is

Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)

(infiltrating ductal carcinoma)

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63
Q

Symptoms and management of vaginal candidiasis?

A

Non-offensive cottage cheese discharge.

vulvitis; dyspareunia, dysuria

itch

vulval erythema

Mx: local or oral tx.

local; clotrimazole pessary

oral itraconazole

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64
Q

Lower motor neurone signs

A
  • absence of reflexes
  • muscle fasciculations
  • atrophy of muscles
  • decrease muscular tone
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65
Q
A

Battle’s sign, also mastoid ecchymosis, is an indication of fracture of middle cranial fossa of the skull, and may suggest underlying brain trauma.

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66
Q

What are alternatives to labetalol in pregnancy?

A

methyldopa and nifedipine

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67
Q

Kussmaul breathing is a deep sighing pattern to decrease CO2 levels and is commonly seen with….

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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68
Q
A

Orbital cellulitis; an emergency and requires intravenous (IV) antibiotics.

In contrast to orbital cellulitis, patients with periorbital cellulitis do not have bulging of the eye (proptosis), limited eye movement (ophthalmoplegia), pain on eye movement, or loss of vision.

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69
Q

What is the first line treatment of moderate 150/100 or severe hypertension 160/110 in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol

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70
Q

Gravida

A

Total number of confirmed pregnancies, regardless of the outcome.

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71
Q

What is ecchymosis?

A

a macular red or purple haemorrhage, > 2mm diameter in skin or mucous membrane

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72
Q

A woman’s hormone balance plays a part in the development of most endometrial cancers.

What is the biggest risk factor?

A

Hormones - a shift towards oestrogens. (Including HRT)

Obesity

Oestrogen from fat tissue has a bigger impact after menopause than it does before menopause.

  • “endometrial cancer is twice as common in overweight women,*
  • and more than three times as common in obese women.”*
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73
Q

what are the local effects of inhaled steroids?

A

Oral thrush

Sore mouth

Hoarse voice

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74
Q

Asthma affects boys or girls the most?

Asthma affects men or women the most?

A

BOYS

WOMEN

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75
Q

What’s another name for a bruise?

A

contusion

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76
Q

What three factors can influence eGFR?

A

eating red meat

muscle mass (amputees, body-builders)

pregnancy

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77
Q

Dementia with Lewy bodies; what symptoms?

A

Parkinsonian symptoms

visual hallucinations

fluctuations in symptoms

prone to fainting or funny turns

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78
Q

What is 5-HT?

A

5-HT is short for 5-hydroxy-tryptamine, which is serotonin.

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79
Q
A
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80
Q
A

Ludwig’s angina is a form of severe diffuse cellulitis with bilateral involvement, primarily of the submandibular space.

It presents with an acute onset and spreads very rapidly meaning early diagnosis and immediate treatment planning is key to saving lives

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81
Q

What type of anaemia is usually associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Crohn’s disease classically causes B12 deficiency anaemia due to terminal ileal disease impairing vitamin B12 absorption.

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82
Q

What problems to patients commonly report with antipsychotics?

A

movement disorders, sedation, weight gain, sexual dysfunction

Rem: typical antipsychotics have more potent dopaminergic effects therefore extrapyramidal movement disorders more serious.

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83
Q

Define acute leukaemia

A

Clonal haematopoietic stem cell/ progenitor disorder characterized by the rapid accumulation of immature progenitor cells (blasts) and impaired normal marrow function.

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84
Q

Pre-eclampsia defined

A

Pre-eclampsia is a multisystem disorder related to inadequate placentation. The definition of the disorder is new onset hypertension and proteinuria which develop after 20 weeks of gestation.

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85
Q

Upper motor neurone signs

A

Increase in muscular tone (spasticity)

Increase in reflexes (hyperflexia)

++ Babinski sign

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86
Q

Huntington’s - bare facts

A
  • inherited autosomal dominant disorder
  • hyperkinetic movements. Mean age of 40.
  • characterised by rapid, uncontrolled, flicking movements of the torso and limbs (chorea)
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87
Q

laxative - lactulose

function and indications

A

increase bulk by retaining water.

Takes 48 hrs to act and must be given regularly.

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88
Q

what can preceed a seizure?

A

a sensation or mood change

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89
Q

What’s the primary care first line tx of endometriosis?

A

NSAIDS and/or paracetomal for symptomatic relief

COC or progestogens can be tried.

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90
Q

What’s a cause of loud borborygmi?

(movement of fluid and gas)

A

small-bowel obstruction/ dysmotility if associated with colicky discomfort.

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91
Q

What nerve supplies the lateral rectus muscle?

A

abducens (VI)

long nerve makes it prone to injury.

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92
Q

Name opportunistic HIV infections

A
  • PCP - pneumocystis jirovecii
  • cytomegalovirus (CMV) in late-stage infection (CD4 <50) - main problem progressive retinitis (85%)
  • toxoplasmosis - protozoa infection. Causes encephalitis (80%) in late HIV
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma (herpes virus 8)
    • others
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93
Q

What’s this? And info

A

BCC is a non-melanoma skin cancer, and is the most common type (> 80%) of all skin cancer.

BCC are sometimes referred to as ‘rodent ulcers’.

Common on areas that are exposed to the sun, such as your face, head, neck and ears

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94
Q

How can you check for suspected csf discharge from nose or ear?

A

Test for glucose

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95
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

10% of esophageal perforations which occur due to vomiting.

full-thickness tear in the esophageal wall

high morbidity and mortality and is fatal without treatment

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96
Q

What is petechiae ?

A

Similar to purpura but smaller (1-2mm diameter).

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97
Q

picture of macule

A
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98
Q

why do you get steatorrhoea with cystic fibrosis?

A

due to pancreas insufficiency of lipase enzymes; thus fat malabsorption. Maybe diabetes developing too.

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99
Q

What’s the management for mild, persistent asthma?

A

Corticosteroid inhaler - preventer

Short acting B2 agonist as and when required.

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100
Q

Safe Antihypertensive treatment in pregnancy

A

Labetalol,

nifedipine

and methyldopa

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101
Q

Which part of the GI tract is Crohn’s disease?

A

anywhere

(abdominal cramping + diarrhoea)

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102
Q

What are the three main manifestations of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • fatty change
  • alcoholic hepatitis
  • alcoholic cirrhosis
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103
Q

What is isotretinoin used for?

A

acne

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104
Q

What are the main features of Pre-renal AKI?

A

A decrease in blood perfusion and thus << GFR.

Both Kidneys need to be affected (why? remember?)

common causes; hypovolemia, hypotension, <

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105
Q

symptoms of septic shock

A
  • warm peripherae, bounding pulse with low diastolic pressure, low JVP
  • pyrexia (or hypothermia)
  • history and signs of underlying infection
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106
Q

When should a woman stop the COC pill if having an operation?

A

4 weeks prior

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107
Q

Why to you sometimes get upper right upper side pain with pregnancy/ hypertension?

A

Liver distension

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108
Q

suspected ovarian cancer; what physical examination signs may you find?

A

Persistent abdominal distension (bloating)

Feeling full (early satiety)/ anorexia

pelvic/ abdominal pain

increased urinary urgency/ frequency

(Nice guidelines)

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109
Q
A

Extend the knee whilst the hip is in 90 degree flexion.

  • positive if pain on extension. Sign is absent in local causes of neck stiffness.

NB> absence of this sign does not exclude meningitis.

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110
Q

RPGN features

A

focal necrosis with or without crescents and rapidly progressive renal failure over weeks.

NB> crescents are aggregations of macrophages and epithelial cells in Bowman’s space.

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111
Q

Symptoms of SAH?

A

occipital headache, thunderclap

nausea and vomiting

meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness)

coma/ seizures/ death

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112
Q

Which are the two SNRIs?

(Selective serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors)

A

Venlafaxine

Duloxetine

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113
Q
A

symptoms of Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency)

  • aldosterone
  • corticol
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114
Q

Thiazides

moa

side effects

A

Act on early segment of the distal tubule. Inhibit NaCl reabsorption.

Side effects (due to >> excretion of K+ and H+ ions)

hypokalaemia

metabolic alkalosis

Hyperuricaemia. Increase in uric acid levels may result in gout.

Glucose tolerance; thiazides are contraindicated in patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

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115
Q

organism; bacterial tonsilitis

A

group A beta haemolytic streptococcus

‘Strep throat’

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116
Q

Post menopausal bleeding, red flag for?

A

Endometrial cancer

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117
Q

What is renal mineral bone disorder?

aka Renal Bone Disease

aka Renal Osteodystrophy

A

This involves softening of the bones due
to decalcification and deposition of
calcium at various sites around the body.

The mechanisms involved are complex.

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118
Q

Symptoms of hypovolaemic shock (this includes burns)

A
  • symptoms of fluid loss, eg. melaena, haematemesis
  • cold peripherae; weak, thready pulse, low JVP
  • skin pallor, dry mucous membranes
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119
Q

What is Oxybutynin?

A

drug that decreases muscle spasms of the bladder. Can also help with kidney stone symptoms.

(therefore used for an overactive bladder)

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120
Q

SEs of Hydroxychloroquine

(malaria treatment)

A

GI effects: The most common adverse effects are a mild nausea and occasional stomach cramps with mild diarrhea.

The most serious adverse effects affect the eye.

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121
Q

Le Fort Fractures

A
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122
Q

Clinical manifestations of PCOS

A
  • menstrual irregularies/ anovulation (80%)
  • hirsutism (70%) ; upper lip, chin, chest, back
  • Obesity (50%)
  • Infertility
  • Acanthosis nigricans ; dermatologic marker of insulin resistance and hyperinsulinaema (at neck, groin, axillae)
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123
Q

What factors increase the risk of cervical ectropion?

A

those that increse levels of oestrogen.

eg. COC, menstruating age.

ablation if troublesome.

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124
Q

Diagnostic values of diabetes mellitus - fasting and non-fasting

A

fasting: 7 mmol/l and above

random glucose 11.1 mmol/l and above.

If patient is asymptomatic then must be tested again.

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125
Q

acute glomerulonephritis – acute nephritic syndrome.

A

Abrupt onset of glomerular haematuria (RBC casts or dysmorphic RBC),

non-nephrotic range proteinuria,

oedema,

hypertension and

transient renal impairment (temporarily oliguria and uraemia)

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126
Q

What’s the story?

A

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome (ZES) is a disease in which tumors cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers.

Symptoms include abdominal pain and diarrhea.

The syndrome is caused by a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes a gastrin. The tumor causes excessive production of gastric acid.

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127
Q

Do you get haematuria with nephrotic syndome?

A

Possibly. It depends on the damage to the glomerulus.

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128
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis?

A

A focal appendage transient weakness after a seizure.

It usually subsides completely within 48 hours.

Todd’s paresis may also affect speech, eye position (gaze), or vision.

NB> important to differentiate from ischaemic stroke because seizure is an exclusion criteria for thrombolysis.

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129
Q

What’s the most common cause of macrolytic anaemias?

A

B12 or folate deficiency

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130
Q

xerostomia

A

dry mouth

possible causes; anticholinergic drugs, Sjogren’s syndrome

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131
Q

What two common drugs can cause hypothyroidism?

A

lithium

amiodarone

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132
Q

What investigations?

A

urine dip stick

MSU, FBC

EUC, LFT, Calcium levels

serum (and urine) immunoglobulins to screen for autoimmune diseases.

CXR - pleural effusion/ oedema

ultrasound, biopsy.

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133
Q

Which lung cells secrete surfactant?

A

pneumocytes type II

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134
Q

Odynophagia

A

Pain on swallowing

Possible causes; infection, oesophageal cancer, larnynx or pharynx cancer.

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135
Q

What specific signs are there with intussusception?

A

Recurrant stools

Dance’s sign - absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant.

palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass in the right upper quadrant.

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136
Q

what could be triggers for hypoglycaemia attacks?

A

infections; UTI, pneumonia

physiological stressors including cold, status epilepticus.

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137
Q

what can preceed a seizure?

A

a sensation or mood change

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138
Q

What is this?

A

acanthosis nigricans

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139
Q

Define antepartum haemorrhage

A

bleeding from the birth canal after the 24th week of pregnancy.

[bleeding following the birth of the baby is postpartum haemorrhage.]

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140
Q

Cauda Equina - signs and symptoms

A
  • altered sensation perineal area, bowel/ urine/ sexual dysfunction
  • PR - loss of tone and sensation
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141
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

peritubular complex of the kidneys (90%), and Liver

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142
Q

which hormones, which layer of the adrenal gland?

A
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143
Q
A
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144
Q

Which anti TB drug can cause lupus?

A

Isoniazid can cause drug-induced lupus

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145
Q

What is ACR?

A

albumin concentration (mg) / creatinine concentration (g)

Albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) first method of preference to detect elevated protein

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146
Q

What is uterine rupture?

(rare but high mortality)

A

A catastropic event where a full-thickness tear develops, opening the uterus directly into the abdominal cavity.

Most occur during labour; however, uterine scars following earlier caesarean may rupture during the third trimester before any contractions occur.

keloid scars in the uterine wall from c.s. causes it to ‘unzip’.

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147
Q

Which type of leukaemia has a peak age of onset of four years?

A

ALL - acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

70-80% cure rate for children.

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148
Q

Why do you get peripheral oedema with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Due to loss of protein in urine, therefore hypoalbuminemia.

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149
Q

What are some causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

fibroids, adenomyosis, endometriosis, PID, ovarian caner

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150
Q

Where’s the subdural space, and who’s vulnerable?

A

The elderly; tearing of the veins across the subdural space causing gradual seepage of blood

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151
Q

antibiotic for sepsis?

A

ceftriaxone

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152
Q

Prolonged or heavy menstrual bleeding is called?

A

Menorrhagia

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153
Q

What ACR level would indicate CKD?

A

30-300 mg/g for >3 months

(relative to young adult level)

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154
Q

what does the urine look like in nephrotic syndrome?

A

frothy

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155
Q

What is Asherman’s Syndrome?

(1-2% cases of 2nd amenorrhoea)

Can follow D & C, infections, endometriosis

A

Also referred to as intrauterine adhesions, is an acquired uterine condition that occurs when adhesions form inside the uterus and/or the cervix.

AS can be the cause of menstrual disturbances, infertility, and placental abnormalities

tx: hysteroscopy.

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156
Q

What is the first line treatment for pruritus due to primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Cholestyramine

Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant which means that it binds to bile acids in the gastrointestinal tract and prevents them from being re-absorbed. Instead the bile acids are excreted in the faeces.

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157
Q

What is this?

A

Seborrhoeic keratoses

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158
Q

Which receptors do typical antipsychotics affect?

(antagonists)

A

cholinergic

adrenergic

histaminergic

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159
Q
A
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160
Q

With a CVA, if the patient’s leg is more affected, which artery is occluded?

A

anterior cerebral artery

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161
Q

Immediate management of acute pulmonary oedema during pregnancy

A

Oxygen

diuretics

regular ECGs

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162
Q

Who gets neoplasms of the vagina and vulva?

A

mainly post menopausal and older women

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163
Q

What’s the medical term for irregular tear-like wounds caused by some blunt trauma

A

laceration

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164
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in patients aged 5 months to 3 years?

A

intussusception

Symptoms: paroxysmal (10-20 mins) of colicky abdominal pain

Child may appear well between paroxysms.

Early vomiting.

late sign: bloody ‘redcurrant’ stools.

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165
Q

non-epileptic causes of seizures

A
  • head trauma (sub-dural haematomas)
  • stroke
  • brain tumours
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycaemia
  • fever
  • chronic alcohol withdrawal
  • infections (sepsis, pneumonia)
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166
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Pulmonary heart disease.

Occurs in 25% of patients with COPD.

Caused by pulmonary hypertension causing enlargement of the right ventricle.

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167
Q

What is the criteria for possible Dementia with Lewy Bodies?

(lewy bodies; in brainstem and neocortex)

A

Definitely dementia

and then 2 out of 3 of the following:

  • Fluctuating attention and concentration.
  • Recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations.
  • Spontaneous Parkinsonism.
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168
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is “an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection.”

Which one commonly?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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169
Q

Parity

A

Number of births that a woman has had after 20 weeks gestation.

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170
Q

Why does gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) trigger an asthma attack?

A

If the stomach acid reaches into the throat or airways the
irritation and inflammation can trigger an asthma attack.

Often worse at night when lying down.

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171
Q

What are the two types of leukaemia?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) - lymphoid cell line

myeloid cell line - Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

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172
Q

Persistent fever - causes

A
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173
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Pharmacokinetics is the study of how an organism affects a drug.

Absorption is part of pharmacokinetics.

IV - max bioavailability.

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174
Q

HELLP

H

EL

LP

A

The symptoms and signs of this condition overlap with those of pre-eclampsia

Hypertension and/or proteinuria are not present in 100% of cases and are often mild

Blood tests may show haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

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175
Q

Tx for prolonged seizures

A

Intravenous Lorazepam or

Rectal Diazepam

and if no result

IV phenytoin (if not already on this drug).

BM check, regular neuro obs, GCS updated (drop of two point = serious)

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176
Q

Wrist drop; which nerve extends the wrist?

A

radial nerve

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177
Q

Cockcroft-Gault equation

A

is often used as a method of estimating GFR

from knowledge of serum creatinine, age and weight:

The calculation is unreliable if the patient has unstable renal function, is very obese, or is oedematous.

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178
Q

Which bone is boxer’s fracture?

A

5th metacaral

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179
Q

Tests for diabetes

A

Blood glucose

urine or blood test for ketones

pH (venous fine)

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180
Q

triple therapy for gastric ulcers

A

Omeprazole

amoxicillin

Clarithromycin

or

omeprazole

amoxillin

metronidazole

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181
Q

What could cefuroxime and clarithromycin possibly treat?

A

CAP

+ may need vasopressor drugs to produce peripheral vasoconstriction if px adequately filled (CVP monitoring). Renal output would be poor.

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182
Q

What’s the most common causal organism of a single lobar pneumonia?

A

Steptococcus pneumoniae

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183
Q

HAS-BLED score

A

Assess the bleeding risk of patient with AF,

to support clinical decision regarding antithrombotic therapy.

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184
Q

What is this?

A

ulcerating BCC

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185
Q

How does the pulse change in pregnancy?

A

The pulse rate increases by 10-20 beats per minute early in pregnancy. A pulse rate of up to 105 beats per minute is regarded as normal in pregnancy.

On examination the pulse may be bounding or collapsing in nature.

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186
Q

What does RPGN stand for?

A

Rapidly Progressive GlomeruloNephritis

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187
Q

What’s this? + info.

A

Thyroglossal cysts

asymptomatic midline neck mass at or below the level of the hyoid bone, above the thyroid cartilage.

Most often in the midline

They may present in childhood (less than 50%) or, usually as a young adult

Move up when the tongue is protruded & with swallowing- cysts attached to the base of the tongue by the thyroglossal tract.

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188
Q

Most important management of diabetes

A

very aggressively lower blood pressure (ACE inhibitors, ARBs)

Excellent glycaemic control

stop smoking

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189
Q

What is the ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)

A

The ratio of the blood pressure at the ankle to the blood pressure in the upper arm.

Lower blood pressure in the leg suggests blocked arteries due to peripheral artery disease (PAD)

Unreliable with calcification of arteries (e.g. diabetes)

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190
Q

Fleshy, protuberant, slightly pigmented vulva lesions ; what could they be, and what’s the treatment?

A

Genital warts

Rem types 16,18 - high risk for cervical cancer.

tx: cryotherapy, or topical podophyllum (imiquimod is second line)

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191
Q

CAP - antibiotic

A

amoxicillin

or doxycycline/ clarithromycin

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192
Q

intrauterine/ endometrial polyps

A

They often cause no symptoms, otherwise bleeding related symptoms.

Appear to be affected by hormone levels and grow in response to circulating estrogen.

Polyps can increase the risk of miscarriage in women undergoing IVF treatment.

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193
Q

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

A

progesterone

If pregnancy occurs then embryo takes over from corpus luteum by producing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

Then 7-9 wks the placenta produces progesterone.

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194
Q

Some signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis

A

splinter haemorrhages

Janeway lesions

Osler’s nodes

dental hygiene

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195
Q

What is an inherent problem with Sulfonylurea drugs?

A

Since they increase insulin secretion, can lead to hypoglycaemic episode if px skips or delays meals.

Alcohol increases hypoglycaemic effect.

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196
Q

Symptoms and sign of infectious encephalitis

A
  • focal or diffuse neurological signs may be present
  • fever, headache
  • psychiatric symptoms and seizure
  • alteration in consciousness and focal neurology
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197
Q

What is actinic keratosis? (ak-TIN-ik ker-uh-TOE-sis)

plus treatment

A

An actinic keratosis (ak-TIN-ik ker-uh-TOE-sis) is a rough, scaly patch on your skin that develops from years of exposure to the sun. It’s most commonly found on your face, lips, ears, back of your hands, forearms, scalp or neck

5-fluorouracil (5-FU) cream (Efudix®)

Salicyclic acid

5% imiquimod cream (Aldara®)

cryotherapy

PDT - photodynamic therapy

curettage

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198
Q

Dermatome to Toes 1-3

A
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199
Q

Name the five gynae cancers

A

Ovarian,

endometrial/ uterine

cervical, vaginal,

vulval

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200
Q

When can the foetus perceive sound and light?

A

sound: 24-26 weeks
light: 28 weeks

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201
Q

How often to women get cervical screening?

What age groups?

A

Offer cervical screening to all women between the ages of 25 years and 64 years.

Age 25 years: first invitation.

Age 25-49 years: screening every 3 years.

Age 50-64 years: screening every 5 years.

Women 65 years of age or older if they have not had a cervical screening test since 50 years of age or a recent cervical cytology sample is abnormal.

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202
Q

Definition - Primary haemorrhaging in pregnancy

A

Primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is loss of blood estimated to be >500ml from the genital tract within 24 hours of delivery.

(this is the most common obstetric haemorrhage)

Minor PPH up to 1000ml

Major PPH over 1000ml

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203
Q

Relationship of aldosterone and spironolactone

A

Aldosterone raises BP by stimulating Na+ absorption.

Spironolactone competitively blocks the binding of aldersterone.

* weak diuretic *

SE: severe hyperkalaemia, especially in px with renal impairment.

Indications: Liver disease with ascites, severe heart failure, Conn’s syndrome

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204
Q

Which receptors do atypical antipsychotics affect?

(antagonists)

A

5HT2a

(serotonin)

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205
Q

What are the risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Old term: congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)

A

FEMALE, BREECH

firstborn children,

oligohydramnois (def of amniotic fluid)

birth weight >5kg

20% of cases bilateral

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206
Q

What are the symptoms of hypervolaemia? overfilling

A
  • jugular venous distension
  • S3 gallop
  • dyspnoea
  • ascites
  • pulmonary oedema
  • pleural effusions
  • peripheral oedema
  • hypertension
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207
Q

What does abnormal dopamine transmission cause?

How do antipsychotics work?

A

a false sense of having seen or heard something before. Leads to psychosis

blocks the dopamine D2/3 receptors, thus diminishing abnormal dopamine transmission.

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208
Q

What’s this?

A

Highly contagious, fever >40, coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis, Kopliks spots

Rash starts on forehead/ neck goes to trunk and limbs over 3-4 days.

Mx: Self-limiting. Paracetamol and lots of fluids.

Complications; pneumonia (5%), encephalitis (1/1000)

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209
Q

MOA of carbimazole

A

Carbimazole is a pro-drug; it is converted to the active form, methimazole.

Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

Rashes/ pruritus are common.

Serious side effect; bones marrow suppression.

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210
Q

What factors affect drug availability during pregnancy?

A
  • Increased blood volume (50% increase by 34 weeks)
  • Increased clearance (> GFR 50% by 24 weeks)
  • Increased hepatic metabolism
  • vomiting
  • decreased absorption
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211
Q

Signs/ symptoms of fractured zygomatic arch

A

swelling/ bruising - periorbital

pain, numbness, diplopia, reduced eye movements

altered pupillary reflexes, facial flattening/ symmetry

  • look at jaw from behind and put fingers on zygomatic arches. Compare for differences.
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212
Q

MOA of carbimazole

A

Carbimazole is a pro-drug; it is converted to the active form, methimazole.

Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

Rashes/ pruritus are common.

Serious side effect; bone marrow suppression. AGRANULOCYTOSIS. Monitor

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213
Q

What’s the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)

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214
Q

sudden foot inversion can cause….

A

avulsion fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal.

(tightening of peroneus brevis tendon)

tx. support bandage if can weight-bear

backslab is unable to weight-bear

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215
Q

Tips for diagnosing CKD

A
  • if GFR >60 ml/min/1.73m2, then not CKD unless evidence of kidney damage.
  • features must be present on at least two occasions and for more than three months.
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216
Q

After how many weeks of gestation can you diagnosis pregnancy-induced hypertension?

A

20

Pregnancy related blood pressure problems (such as pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia) do not occur before 20 weeks.

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217
Q

paraparesis

A

partial paralysis of both legs.

(in contrast to paraplegia)

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218
Q

What is seroconversion?

A
  • Period of time during which HIV antibodies develop and become detectable.
  • takes place within a few weeks of initial infection.
  • It is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms including fever, rash, muscle aches and swollen lymph nodes. These symptoms are not a reliable way to identify seroconversion or to diagnose HIV infection.
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219
Q

What is the relationship of breast cancer and HRT?

A

There is a very small risk of breast cancer and this is related to duration of taking HRT, and declines after stopping HRT.

After 5 years the risk is the same as a woman who has never taken HRT.

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220
Q

Some more facts about endometrial cancer

A

10% of post-menopausal bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.

Cause of intermenstrual bleeding in pre-menopausal women.

85% of cases in post-menopausal women

Risk factors; oestrogen! (therefore obesity, nulliparity, tamoxifen use, PCOS, late menopause

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221
Q

What is the most common cause of hypotension?

+ what drugs commonly cause hypotension

A

hypovolaemia

>>> diuretics

alpha/ beta blockers

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222
Q

Parotid tail lump - Solid

What other solid lumps are there?

A
  • lymph node
  • tumours
  • vagal schwannoma
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223
Q
A
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224
Q

New abdo pain in pregnancy. Always consider..

A

Appendicitis in pregnancy should be suspected when a pregnant woman complains of new abdominal pain

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225
Q

Risk factors of PPCM

A

Multiple pregnancy

Pregnancy complicated by hypertension (pre-existing or pre-eclampsia)

Advanced maternal age

Afro-Caribbean race

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226
Q

Salient points of Wilson’s disease

A

A combination of liver and neurological disease.

Onset 10-25 typically.

neurological : basal ganglia degeneration, speech, behavioural, psychiatric problems.

Rem: Kayser-Fleischer rings and blue nails.

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227
Q

Can you gauge severity of attack by the wheeze?

WHY?

A

NO.

Severe attack… very reduced air flow (Silent chest)

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228
Q

Albuminuria; role in CKD diagnosis?

A

Persistent increased protein in the urine (two positive tests over 3 or more months) is the principal marker of kidney damage, acting as an early and sensitive marker in many types of kidney disease.

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229
Q
A

Anatomy

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230
Q
A

peri-orbital cellulitis

painful, unilateral red swollen eyelids

px often systemically unwell

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231
Q

Investigations for CKD

A

U & E, glucose

24-hr creatinine clearance; determine level of renal failure

Casts; glomerulonephritis

Red Cells; can come from anywhere

Check < Calcium, phosphates

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232
Q

Mx of acute asthma attack key points

A

Give oxygen to maintain 94-98% sats

Salbutamol, back to back if needed. Oxygen driven if needed.

Oral prednisolone 45-50mg for five days.

Combine ipratropium with salbutamol if poor response.

Consultant; magnesium/ aminophylline

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233
Q

Life-threatening asthma - possible signs (10), only one needed

A

PEFR <33% of predicted best

Sats <92%

PaO2 <8kPa, normal PaCO2 (4.6-6kPa)

Silent chest, cyanosis

arrthymia

altered mental state/ exhaustion

hypotension

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234
Q

Nerve involved with CTS?

A

median

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235
Q

Oedema in nephrotic syndrome also causes what problems in the thoracic region?

A

breathlessness

pulmonary oedema

pleural effusion

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236
Q

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

A

Cardiac output increases by about 40%, as a result of increased stroke volume and reduced systemic vascular resistance, in combination with an increased heart rate.

The cardiac output is greatest at 24 to 28 weeks of pregnancy. The heart is physiologically dilated and myocardial contractility is increased.

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237
Q

Which AF drug can cause thyrotoxicosis?

A

amiodarone

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238
Q

What is CHA₂DS₂-VASc Score?

A

Risk for stroke for AF patients

helps determine the 1 year risk of a thromboembolic event in a non-anticoagulated patient with non-valvular AF.

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239
Q

Causes of acute abdominal pain

A
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240
Q

Pre-eclampsia

signs and symptoms

A

Hypertension and proteinuria, and oedema

Can get swelling of feet, ankles, and hands

Symptoms such as headache, right upper quadrant/epigastric pain or transient visual disturbance can be reported

On examination, abnormalities such as right upper quadrant tenderness, hyper-reflexia or clonus may be present

The multi-system manifestations result from diffuse vascular endothelial dysfunction

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241
Q

What’s the main marker for near fatal asthma? (2)

A

Raised PaCO2

Requiring mechanical ventilation with increased inflation pressures.

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242
Q

Definition of CKD

A

Abnormalities of kidney function or structure present for more than 3 months.

Includes all individuals with markers of kidney damage or those with an eGFR of less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 on at least 2 occasions 90 days apart

(with or without markers of kidney damage).

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243
Q

RBC and pregnancy - what happens?

A

Fall in haemoglobin concentration, haematocrit and red cell count (as expansion of plasma volume is greater than the increase in red cell mass)

No change in mean cell volume or mean cell haemoglobin concentration

2-3 fold increase in iron requirements

Iron deficiency anaemia is common and requires iron supplementation

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244
Q

ADH

A

made in hypothalamus

released via posterior pituitary gland

osmoreceptors in hypothalamus

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245
Q

What is Placental abruption?

May present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain (usually continuous), uterine contractions, shock or fetal distress.[

A

Abruption is the premature separation of a normally placed placenta before delivery of the fetus, with blood collecting between the placenta and the uterus.

It is one of the two most important causes of antepartum haemorrhage (the other being placenta praevia).

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246
Q

What does gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) release?

A

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

and

luteinizing hormone (LH)

from the

anterior pituitary.

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247
Q

What antibiotic makes urine go orange?

A

Rifampicin may cause orange tears and urine

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248
Q

Acute asthma attack

A

Salbutamol nebs

add ipratropium bromide if not working well.

Give steroids (orally, IM, IV)

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249
Q

In the case of ischaemic stroke, what is the window for treatment?

A

3 hours from onset of symptoms.

(this includes getting a CT scan!)

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250
Q

What antihypertensives cannot be used in pregnancy?

A

ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and fetotoxic.

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251
Q

Reasons to do a lumbar puncture

A
  • investigating bacterial meningitis
    *
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252
Q

Acute SEVERE asthma signs (any one of)

PEFR value?

Resp rate value?

HR value?

name one observation

A

PEFR 33-50% predicted

Resp rate >25/min

HR >110bpm

Inability to complete sentences in one breath

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253
Q

How is HIV infection diagnosed?

A

Detection of anti-HIV antibodies by ELISA (enyme-linked immunosorbent assay).

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254
Q

FSH stimulates follicle develop. As Follicle grows it starts to secrete oestradiol. What does this increase in oestradiol cause?

A

Causes the hypothalamic-pituitary axis to secrete LH

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255
Q

Why is there an increased risk of aspiration with pregnant women? (esp. with general anaesthesia)

A

Reduced gastric motility, in combination with restriction of stomach expansion by the fetus results in gastro-oesophageal reflux, particularly in the third trimester.

Constipation common in pregnancy.

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256
Q

What are typical symptoms of anaemia?

A

SOB (mainly on exertion)

tiredness

headaches

  • pallor, angina in elderly
  • tachycardia
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257
Q
A

osteoma

more in males, unilateral.

often at junction of bony and cartilaginous ear canal.

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258
Q

what is a Keratoacanthoma?

A

Keratoacanthomas (KAs) are very rapidly growing squamo-proliferative lesions that look like well-differentiated squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs) pathologically. KAs are characterised by rapid growth over a few weeks to months, followed by spontaneous resolution over 4-6 months in most cases.

KAs are benign epidermal growths and not a malignant variant of SCC.

They are usually solitary and begin as firm, round, skin-coloured or reddish papules that rapidly progress to dome-shaped nodules with a smooth shiny surface. A central crater of ulceration may develop, or a keratin plug that may project like a horn.

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259
Q

Definition of Asthma

A

Disease characterized by recurrent attacks of breathlessness and wheezing, which varies in frequency from person to person.

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260
Q

Dermatome to the thumb

A
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261
Q

Glucose and pregnancy, what’s the story?

A

Pregnancy is an insulin resistant state.

Hepatic glycogen stores are depleted in pregnancy, thus women can become ketotic quickly.

>> blood glucose associated with maternal age and family history of diabetes

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262
Q

Cellulitis - antibiotic

A

Flucloxacillin

  • clarithromycin for penicillin allergy
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263
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) but also kidney failure.

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264
Q

Cholangitis

A

stone obstructing the common bile duct

causing intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

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265
Q

Management of AF

A

cardioversion if < 48 hour onset

Rate and rhythm control

CCB - verapamil or a Beta Blocker

Rate control; amiodarone

anticoagulants to prevent thromboembolism/ stroke

surgical catheter ablation

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266
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the breast?

A

Paget’s disease of the breast is a rare type of cancer of the nipple area of the breast.

It presents as eczema affecting the nipple.

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267
Q

Classic monoamine group

A
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268
Q

Why can you get sepsis with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Loss of immunoglobulins (proteins) in the urine will compromise the immune system.

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269
Q

Why would you add a LABA?

A

If inhaled corticosteroid therapy is insufficient.

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270
Q

Key symptoms : endometriosis

A

chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea

deep dyspareunia

pelvic examination: < organ mobility and tenderness on palpation.

(rem: laparoscopy is gold standard investigation)

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271
Q

Definition of antepartum haemorrhage

A

Antepartum haemorrhage is defined as any vaginal bleeding from the 24th week of gestation until delivery.

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272
Q

How does type I diabetes initially present?

A
  • polyuria
  • polydipsia
  • weight loss
  • over a few weeks.

Dx: random blood sugar >11.1 mmol/L

or fasting blood glucose > 7mmol/L

PLUS classic symptoms

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273
Q

What are the first line drugs for type 2 diabetes?

A

metformin

sulfonylureas

meglitinides

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274
Q

What are the main causes of heart failure?

A
  • CORONARY HEART DISEASE
  • hypertension
  • valvular disease
  • cardiomyopathy
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275
Q

Role of LH in males?

A

Stimulates the Leydig cells of the testis to produce testosterone.

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276
Q

Where do B Lymphocytes mature?

T- lymphocytes?

A

mainly in the bone marrow

Thymus

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277
Q

T Waves

Three abnormal types

A

Upright in all leads except aVR and V1

  • Flattened T waves (hyperkalaemia)
  • Inverted T waves
  • Hyperacute T waves
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278
Q

Common causes of acute mitral regurgitation

A

infective endocarditis

ruptured chordae tendineae

ischaemic papillary muscle rupture

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279
Q

CRB-65/ CURB-65

A

predicting mortality rate for pneumonia

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280
Q
A
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281
Q

Lab findings with Grave’s disease

A
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282
Q

aphthous ulcer

(mouth ulcer)

Management

A

First-line treatment is usually a topical corticosteroid

Other therapies that can be used include topical anaesthetics such as lidocaine, topical analgesic/anti-inflammatory agents such as benzydamine, and topical antimicrobial agents such as chlorhexidine gluconate oral solution, or doxycycline rinses.

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283
Q

What is a cervical ectropion?

A

The columnar epiethelium is present on the vaginal surface of the cervix (the ectocervix)

Normal physiological state for some women after puberty

There may be a red looking area around the os;

don’t confuse with cervicitis.

It can result in an excess section of mucous, as the columnar epithelium contains mucous secreting glands (normal)

It may also cause post-coital bleeding, due to the presence of delicate blood vessels in the columnar epithelium

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284
Q

What can cause miosis?

NB> latency of pupillary responses increases with age

A

Light

opiates/ opioids

anti-hypertension medication

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285
Q

What are the common causes of maternal death during pregnancy?

A

medical complications rather than obstetric and include cardiac problems, neurological disease, sepsis and thromboembolism

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286
Q

symptoms include sore throat, dysphagia, fever

A

Tonsillitis; a type of pharyngitis.

Usually viral (esp. under 2 years age), if bacterial then usually group A beta-haemolytic streptoccus (strep throat).

Other bacterium:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, or Haemophilus influenzae

* can get abdominal pain due to associated adenitis in the mesenteric nodes.

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287
Q

Foot bones 4

A
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288
Q

Cardinal differences between syncope and epileptic fits?

A

syncope has no post-ictal phase

no tongue biting with syncope

Syncope has a faster recovery period

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289
Q

What are the tests for Coeliac disease?

A

Total immunoglobulin A (IgA)

IgA Tissue transglutaminase antibody (shortened to tTG)

+ eat gluten in more than one meal every day for six weeks prior to testing.

GOLD standard; duodenal biopsies with IEL ( increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes is typical of active celiac disease)

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290
Q

What condition do you see this with?

A

Grave’s disease

  • inflammation
  • induration
  • erythema
  • incidence 1-5%
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291
Q

Symptoms of middle cerebral artery infact

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

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292
Q

What is the most common type of Lung cancer with smokers?

A

Small cell lung carcinomas are more likely than alveolar cell carcinomas of the lung in smokers

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293
Q

Weber’s test - where is the fork placed?

A

middle of forehead

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294
Q
A
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295
Q

Examination fo asthma (things to look for)

A
  • Abilty to speak
  • PEFR is vital to assess severity of attack. Work out % of predicted peak flow.
  • Rountine obs
  • ABCDE approach; A - airway. Can the patient talk?

B - breathing - inspection

C - circulation HR, BP, pulsus paradoxus

E - any rash/ hives to suggest allergic reaction. Exhaustion

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296
Q

What are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

+ main symptoms

A

alcohol or gallstones

  • vomiting
  • severe epigastric pain that may radiate to the back
  • Cullen’s sign (possibly) - periumbilical discolouration
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297
Q

What lumps move with swallowing?

A

SOLID:

Goitre

lymph node

CYSTIC:

Thyroid cyst

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298
Q

What is Glomerulopathy?

A

immunologically mediated disorders with involvement of:

cellular immunity

humoral immunity

inflammatory mediators

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299
Q

Is glycosuria is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy?

A

No. Glucose loss during pregnancy is normal

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300
Q

tetanus

A

Anaerobic organism Clostridium tetani.

In soil, enters wounds.

Neurotoxin causes progressive painful muscle spasms.

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301
Q

It’s not just histamine that creates an inflammatory response in the airways; what else?

A

Prostaglandins

Adenosine

Bradykinin

Major basic protein

Leukotrienes

Prostaglandins

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302
Q

Loop diuretic

moa, indications, side effects

A

Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle

Indications; oedema with heart failure.

effective in patients with << GFR

High doses; endolymph disturbances and deafness.

Adverse : 4 hypos; hypokalaemia (little), hyponatraemia, hypotension, hypovolaemia.

IMP. >>> CALCIUM and >>> MAGNESIUM excretion

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303
Q

What is the age group for AML (acute myeloid leukaemia)?

A

more common with increasing age, with peak age onset of 70 years.

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304
Q

non-epileptic causes of seizures

A
  • head trauma
  • stroke
  • brain tumours
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycaemia
  • fever
  • chronic alcohol withdrawal
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305
Q

Some possible red flags for neck lumps

A

Dark colour suggestive of malignant melanoma,

ulceration,

skin fixation,

bleeding, or

hard texture

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306
Q

Is there a screening programme for ovarian cancer?

A

NO because there is no test that reliably picks up ovarian cancer at an early stage.

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307
Q

Name six neurotransmitters that I need to learn

A

GABA

Dopamine

Acetylcholine

Serotonin

Glutamate

Noradrenaline

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308
Q

Name for rectal bleeding

A

haematochezia

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309
Q

Mx tests

A

BMI and waist circumference

ECG

FBC, U & E, Lipids, LFT, glucose, HBA1c, prolactin

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310
Q

What is a common cause of asthma in childen under 10?

A

respiratory infection (viral or bacterial)

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311
Q

What does a collapsing pulse indicate?

A

severe aortic regurgitation

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312
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Also called antibiotic-associated colitis or C. difficile colitis, is inflammation of the colon associated with an overgrowth Clostridium difficile.

This overgrowth of C. difficile is most often related to recent antibiotic use.

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313
Q

Management of Ascending cholangitis?

A

intravenous antibiotics

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction

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314
Q

Eye conditions not to miss

A
  • acute-angle closure glaucoma
  • peri-orbital cellulitis
  • giant cell arteritis
  • keratitis
  • uveitis
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315
Q

What hormone connected to the reproductive system does the hypothalamus make?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

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316
Q

Common causes of pleuritic exudate (>30g/L) protein

A

most common ; infective; pneumonia

TB, subphrenic abscess

connective tissue disease: RhA, SLE,

Cancer

Pancreatitis, pulmoney embolism

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317
Q

Otitis media bugs

A

haemophilus influenzae

streptococcus pneumoniae

moraxella catarrhalis

if viral then short-lived and self-limiting.

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318
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

Cataplexy describes the sudden and transient loss of muscular tone caused by strong emotion (e.g. laughter, being frightened).

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319
Q

RIFLE

A

International consensus classification for AKI.

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320
Q

What vitamins help prevent neural tube defects?

Which drug to avoid?

A

Folic acid and Vit B12

Methotrexate - folate antimetabolite

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321
Q

What is the consequene of an increase in RENIN production with nephrotic syndrome?

A

In response to low renal BP, Renin is released.

Renin-Angiotensin-aldersterone causes Na2+ to be retained and thus increase in BP.

This will result in more oedema because of the hypoalbuminuria.

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322
Q

Function of FSH?

A
  • Stimulates growth of follicles
  • Indirectly causes an increase in oestradiol because as the follicle matures it starts to secrete oestradiol.
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323
Q

What type of cancer is cervical cancer?

A

85% squamous cell

the rest are adrenocarcinoma

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324
Q

What drugs impair kidney autoregulation?

A

ACE inhibitors

NSAIDs

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325
Q

Cervical screening frequency

A

Age 24.5 - First invitation to ensure screening before age 25

Age 25-49 - every 3 years

Age 50-64 - every 5 years

Age 65 + : only if abnormal results, or not had screen since age 50.

Can’t screen if: menstruating, infection, 12 week after pregnancy/ miscarriage/ less 12 weeks post natal, pregnancy.

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326
Q

What is the Schilling test?

A

Determine how well the patient is able to absorb vitamin B12 from their intestinal tract.

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327
Q

Lichenification

A

Chronic thickening of skin

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328
Q
A

Jones fracture is a break between the base and middle part of the fifth metatarsal of the foot.

tx. cast, 6 weeks rest.

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329
Q

Why avoid amoxicilin with tonsillitis?

A

in case causative organism is Epstein-Barr virus (glandular fever); rash

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330
Q

Which patients are at risk of developing HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma)?

A

Carriers of HBV and HCV

cirrhosis patients

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331
Q

Partial (focal) seizure.

Two types.

A

originates in one cerebral hemisphere.

Patient DOESN’T loss consciousness.

(a) Simple partial seizure; conscious not altered.
(b) complex partial seizure - altered consciousness and px exhibits repetitive behaviours.

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332
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis?

A

A focal appendage transient weakness after a seizure.

It usually subsides completely within 48 hours.

Todd’s paresis may also affect speech, eye position (gaze), or vision.

NB> important to differentiate from ischaemic stroke because seizure is an exclusion criteria for thrombolysis.

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333
Q

What is Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome and the treatment?

A

develops in alcoholics with thiamine deficiency.

Unexplained asssociated symptoms; the triad ataxia, acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia

others; nystagmus, polyneuropathy

tx: parenteral thiamine

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334
Q

What is the management of CAP?

A

low-severity - amoxicillin (or macrolide/ tetracycline if allergic) - 5 day course

moderate-high severity - dual antibiotic tx. Amoxicillin (or co-amoxiclav) and a macrolide.

7-10 day course

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335
Q

What is a glioblastoma?

A

most aggressive form of brain cancer

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336
Q
A

Slapped Cheek syndrome

5th disease

parvovirus B19

erythema infectiosum

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337
Q

Upper motor neurone lesion, upper….

A

face sparing.

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338
Q

What are pseudo seizures?

NEAD - Non-epileptic attack disorder

NES - Non-epileptic seizures

A

paroxysmal events that mimic epilepsy, but are not due to an epileptic disorder.

Can be physiological or psychogenic.

Psychogenic is most common; dissociative seizures are involuntary and happen unconsciously.

NB> can cause injury and incontinence.

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339
Q

Can addison’s disease cause hypoglycaemia?

A

YES

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340
Q

Foot bones 3

A
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341
Q

When is MMR given?

A

This currently occurs at 12-15 months and 3-4 years as part of the routine immunisation schedule

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342
Q

What is a Holter monitor?

A

A Holter monitor is a battery-operated portable device that measures and records your heart’s activity (ECG) continuously for 24 to 48 hours or longer .

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343
Q
A
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344
Q
A

Vertical shearing

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345
Q

Whis is Hirschsprung’s disease usually noticed?

A

Hirschsprung’s is usually noticed in the first 24-48 hours when meconium fails to pass

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346
Q

Two main types of conjunctiva based anatomically

A
  • palpebral conjunctiva lines the lids
  • bulbar conjunctiva is over the eyeball
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347
Q

When is the best time to measure troponin levels?

A

12 hours after event - most severe pain (peak time)

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348
Q

What are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms?

A

Aneurysms in the small penetrating blood vessels of the brain.

They are associated with hypertension.

The common artery involved is the lenticulostriate branch of the middle cerebral artery.

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349
Q

Why is it important to treat asymptomatic UTI during pregnancy?

A

Mx: nitrites on urinalysis.

Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated as this can lead to symptomatic urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis.

This can be associated with low birth weight babies and preterm delivery.

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350
Q

Name the two meglitinides drugs that are short-acting and are useful for patients whose meal schedules vary.

A

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

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351
Q

How do MOAIs work?

A

Inhibit the breakdown of serotonin at the synapse by inhibition of MAO-A

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352
Q

What is PPCM?

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM) ; dilated cardiomyopathy

“deterioration in cardiac function presenting typically between the last month of pregnancy and up to six months postpartum. “

Decrease in left ventricular ejection fraction (EF) with associated congestive heart failure and an increased risk of arrhythmias, thromboembolism.

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353
Q

Flat feet

A

normal up to age six. Arches are present when non-weight bearing.

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354
Q

What’s the incidence of diabetes in children?

A

1:500

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355
Q

What is the danger if type I diabetes is not identified in children?

A

DKA

presenting with ABDOMINAL PAIN and VOMITING and COMA.

NB. The mechanism of abdominal pain in DKA is poorly understood but gastric distension, hypovolaemia and electrolyte disturbance may contribute.

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356
Q

Causes of anaemia; inherited

A
  • defects of haemoglobin; sickle cell , thalassaemia
  • defects of red cell metabolism; pyruvate kinase deficiency
  • defects of red cell membrane; hereditary spherocytosis
  • red cell aplasia/ aplastic anaemia
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357
Q

What’s the first line rate control for AF?

A

Digoxin is no longer first-line for rate control in atrial fibrillation.

Beta-blockers - Bisoprolol

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358
Q

What diuretics can you use in severe CKD?

A

Loops

(Thiazides only effective to GFR 20-25 ml/min)

+ remember can be used with Kidney stones

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359
Q

tonic

A

stiffening of all the muscles. back aches. person loses conscious and falls to the floor.

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360
Q

Signs and symptoms of chronic intracranial hypertension

+ causes of chronic IH

(possible causes of acutre IH; head injury, stroke, brain abscess )

A
  • constant throbbing headache
  • blurred vision/ diplopia
  • nausea and vomiting

subdural haematoma, brain tumour, brain injection (meningitis/ encephalitis), hydrocephalus, venous sinus thrombosis

Many cases; idiopathic. no known cause. More common with women 20s-30s

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361
Q

What are koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, and angular stomatitis signs of?

A

iron deficient anaemia

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362
Q

What is macrosomia?

A

The term “fetal macrosomia” is used to describe a newborn who’s significantly larger than average

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363
Q

The transformation zone

A

The transformation zone can be identified by visual inspection as there is a change in colour and texture from the pale, pink, shiny, smooth surface of the ectocervix to a reddish, granular appearance of the columnar cells that line the endocervical canal.

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364
Q

What’s the common cause of esophageal varices?

A

cirrhosis and consequences of portal hypertension

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365
Q

Which anti-psychotic drug is associated with agranulocytosis?

A

clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis

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366
Q

remember: important symptoms of DKA

Triggers: poor compliance/ infections

A

thirst, polyuria

VOMITING and ABDOMINAL PAIN

KUSSMAUL acidotic breathing

Acetone on breath

Hypovolaemic shock

Monitoring; HbA1c test (% of glycosylated haemoglobin)

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367
Q

List the DDs of pulmonary oedema in pregnancy

Cardiogenic (3)

Non Cardiogenic (2)

A

Cardiogenic

  • Undiagnosed congenital heart disease
  • Peripartum cardiomyopathy
  • Cardiac ischaemia
  • Non cardiogenic
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Iatrogenic – medications such as corticosteroids, tocolytics, non-steroidal analgesia
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368
Q

Gestational pemphigoid

A

Can occur any time in pregnancy, but usually in third trimester

Often occurs on abdomen (involving umbilicus), spreading to limbs, palms and soles

Associated with low birthweight, preterm delivery and stillbirth

Neonate can be affected by same eruption, which is mild and transient

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369
Q

Mx and symptoms of otitis externa?

A

otitis externa

Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) or fungal

ear pain, itch, discharge

otoscopy: red, swollen, or eczematous canal
Mx:

topical antibiotic or a combined topical antibiotic with steroid

if there is canal debris then consider removal

Malignant otitis externa is more common in elderly diabetics.

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370
Q

What cardiac problem is associated with both typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A

Prolonged QT interval

arrythmias

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371
Q

Management of Benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

alpha-adrenergic blockers; prazosin

alpha adrenoceptor antagonists; tamsulosin

or finasteride (inhibitor of testosterone, reduces prostatic hypertrophy)

TURP: TransUrethral Resection of the Prostate.

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372
Q

Examples of 2nd generation sulfonylurea drugs (3)

A

glimepiride

glipizide

glyburide

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373
Q

ACNE - antibiotic

A

doxycycline - tetracyclines

if not responding; erythromycin

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374
Q

Why is asthma worse at night?

A
  • Impaired mucoclilary clearance during sleep.
  • Possible increase exposure to allergens (house dust mite in bedding).
  • Diurnal fluatuations in corticosteroids, catecholamines.
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375
Q

What;s the story with (during pregnancy):

Nitrofurantoin

Co-amoxiclav

Trimethoprim

A

Nitrofurantoin: Haemolytic anaemia in the neonate

Co-amoxiclav: Avoid in women at r_isk of preterm labour (20-36/40)_ - including risk of necrotising enterocolitis in neonate

Trimethoprim: Avoid in first trimester (folate antagonist)

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376
Q

infectious esophagitis.

Common cause?

A

Candida albicans

HIV/ cancer patients

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377
Q

What does Pyelonephritis increase the chances of ?

A

pre-term labour.

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378
Q

Some characteristics of CTS

A
  • more common in women
  • tingling in hand
  • symptoms often occur at night
  • px may hand hand and arm out of bed for relief
  • associated with…. (3)
  • thenar muscle wasting
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379
Q

what are common causes of hypocalcaemia?

A

hypoparathyroidism (frequently following surgery)

vitamin D deficiency or abnormal metabolism, chronic kidney disease and hypomagnesaemia

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380
Q

What could cause recurrent abdominal pain?

A

Idiopathic

constipation

inflammatory bowel disease

urine infections

sickle cell disease

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381
Q

which antithyroid drugs can cause aplastic anaemia or agranulocytosis?

A

Carbimazole

propylthiouracil

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382
Q

Hoes hyperthyroidism increase or decrease menstral bleeding?

A

oligomenorrhoea

amenorrhoea

HYPOthyroidism causes heavy bleeding

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383
Q

How does airflow inflammation seen in asthma lead to airflow obstruction?

A

mast cell degranulation releases histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

This causes; vasodilatation and increased vascular permability causing mucosal oedema.

Increase in bronchial secretions.

Smooth muscle contraction, causing bronchospasm.

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384
Q

what drug would you give for acute renal colic?

A

Diclofenac IM (recommended by NICE)

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385
Q

What is a common cause of melaena.

NB> melaena is due to an upper GI bleed

A

peptic ulceration

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386
Q

What could CTS be associated with?

A

pregnancy

diabetes

hypothyroidism

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387
Q
A
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388
Q

Most common type of renal stone

A

Calcium oxalate

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389
Q

What is Von Willebrand disease?

A

is the most common hereditary blood-clotting disorder

It arises from a deficiency of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that is required for platelet adhesion.

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390
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome; varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox) becomes reactivated in the geniculate ganglion of the VIIth cranial nerve (facial nerve) causing facial paralysis, loss of taste, vestibulocochlear dysfunction and pain.

As a general rule, shingles is a disease of sensory nerves but Ramsay Hunt syndrome is distinctive in that there is a motor component.

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391
Q

How long does it typically take for CIN to progress to cervical cancer?

A

15 years

although could be 3-40 years.

There is usually a linear progression from CIN stages 1,2, and 3.

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392
Q

Why do you get lipiduria with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Passing of lipoproteins in the urine due to kidney damage (thus also hypoalbuminaemia)

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393
Q

What does the Cockcroft-Gault formula measure, and when is it used?

A
  • Preferred method for estimating renal function or calculating drug dosages in patients with renal impairment e.g. elderly or extremes of muscle mass.
  • Estimate of CrCl

(NB> use ideal weights for obese px)

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394
Q

What factors cause cause a hypoglycaemic attack?

A

Too high a dose of medication (insulin or hypo causing tablets)

Delayed meals

Exercise

Alcohol

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395
Q

tonic

A

stiffening of all the muscles. back aches. person loses conscious and falls to the floor.

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396
Q

Papilloedema

A

Optic disc swelling; increased intracranial pressure.

Usually bilateral and can occur over a period of hours to weeks. Unilateral presentation is extremely rare.

May be asymptomatic or with a headache.

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397
Q

What are some risks factors for UTI in pregnancy?

A

GDM

use of systemic corticosteroids

history of UTI

Problem: untreated can lead to symptomatic UTI or pyelonephritis

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398
Q

What are the features of well-controlled asthma?

A

minimal symptoms at day and night

minimal need for reliever medication

no exacerbations

no limitation of physical activity

normal lung function PEFR >80% predicted/ best

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399
Q

What in the family history could suggest maturational delay?

A

Late maternal menarche

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400
Q

What could cause wrist drop?

A

Radial nerve compression

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401
Q

What kind of seizure activities are there?

A
  • motor
  • sensory
  • cognitive and psychic
  • autonomic disturbances
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402
Q

What’s the MOA of benzodiazepines?

A

Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutric acid,

GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter.

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403
Q

FIGO staging system

A

Need to know that >>> platelets (called thrombocytosis) is closely linked to endometrial cancer.

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404
Q

What is orthopnoea?

A

orthopnoea is shortness of breath (dyspnea) that occurs when lying flat, causing the person to have to sleep propped up in bed or sitting in a chair.

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405
Q

What is Proctitis?

A

Proctitis is an inflammation of the lining of the rectum.

Proctitis can cause rectal pain and the continuous sensation that you need to have a bowel movement

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406
Q

Acute fever - causes

A
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407
Q

What diuretic group could be used to help with reducing the incidence of renal stones?

A

thiazide diuretics because they cause hypercalcaemia (i.e. hypocalciuria)

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408
Q

Which AF drug can cause thyrotoxicosis?

A

amiodarone

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409
Q

Dermatome to little finger?

A
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410
Q

Why don’t you treat HT immediately following a stroke?

A
  1. cerebral autoregulation of blood flow is disturbed and therefore risk of hypoperfusion.
  2. Watershed infarction; there can be an extension of the stroke due to reduced blood supply around area of infarction.

NB. continue with regular BP meds if taken previously.

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411
Q

How does an acoustic neuroma present?

A

should always be considered in patients with unilateral sensorineural deafness or tinnitus.

NB. otosclerosis causes a conductive deafness, and symptoms are bilateral.

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412
Q

Loss of proteins with nephrotic syndrome predisposes patient to what?

A

Thromboembolisms (due to loss of clotting proteins)

Sepsis/ infections (due to loss of immunoglobulins)

Lipid abnormalities - can accelerate atheromas

Anaemia (loss of transferrin)

Oedema (lower limbs, sacrum) + can be periorbital & hands

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413
Q

Syphilis - antibiotic

A

Benzylpenicillin

or

Doxycycline

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414
Q

Hamstring injury management

A

crutches and refer to fracture clinic

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415
Q

What is this?

A

nodular malignant melanoma

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416
Q

Some key points of motor neuron disease; what’s the worse type and what’s the most common?

A

Progressive bulbar palsy - worse. Affects tongue, muscles of mastication, facial muscles, brainstem motor nuclei. Nasty one.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ; 50% of patients. Mixture of LMN and UMN signs in legs.

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417
Q

protozoan parasite that causes malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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418
Q

Breast cancer risk factors (5)

A

Female sex (75 male deaths from breast cancer in 2004)

Increasing age (80% of breast cancers in post menopausal women)

Family history of breast cancer-BRCA1 and BRCA2

Obesity (post menopausal women only)

High alcohol consumption

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419
Q

Name some potentially damaging Kidney drug groups

A
  • ACEIs, ARBs,
  • PPIs
  • diuretics
  • antibiotics
  • NSAIDs
  • Lithium
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420
Q

What’s the story with rubella (german measles) and pregnancy?

A

NO WOMAN should try to conceive unless the have had rubella, or been immunised.

Most dangerous in 1st trimester.

Can cause blindess, deafness, cardiac abnormalities, mental retardation.

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421
Q
A

The hallux dorsiflexes, and the other toes fan out; this is Babinski’s sign;

damage to the central nervous system.

Stimulate from heel upwards.

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422
Q

HIV is caused by what type of virus?

A

blood-borne RNA retrovirus

  • intercourse, drug use
  • maternal-child transmission
  • transfusion of blood products
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423
Q

Which coexisting illnesses increase risk of CKD?

A

Diabetes,

Hypertension

CVD,

structural renal tract disease

multisystem diseases that affect the kidneys, eg. SLE

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424
Q

Management of Otitis media

A

analgesia. 80% improve spontaneously.

>48hrs require antibiotics

amoxiciliin/ clarithromycin

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425
Q

Describe the respiratory tract effect of anticholinergics (eg. ipratropium, tiotropium)

A

Helps prevent the bronchoconstriction of smooth muscle by inhibiting acetylcholine and the activation of parasympathetic n.s.

** they block the bronchoconstricting effect of the vagus (parasympathetic) nerve stimulation.

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426
Q

When would you perform a ABG analysis?

A

When O2 sats are < 92%

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427
Q

How does placenta praevia present?

A

incidental finding on ultrasound

Painless bleeding starting after the 28th week; Typically, it is sudden and profuse but usually does not last for long and so is only rarely life-threatening.

bleeding during intercourse

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428
Q

What’s the difference between hemiparesis and hemiplegia?

A

Hemiparesis ; unilateral weakness

Hemiplegia; complete loss of power on one side

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429
Q

What’s the 1st line antibiotic for mastitis?

A

flucloxacillin for 10-14 days.

Breast feeding or expressing should continue during treatment.

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430
Q

What is the pathophysiology of asthma? (3)

A

Bronchospasm

mucosal oedema

mucus hypersecretion

  • causing airway obstruction
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431
Q

What is Argyll Robertson (AR) pupil and what’s the most important cause (and very specific)?

A

bilateral small pupils that reduce in size on a near object (i.e., they accommodate), but do not constrict when exposed to bright light

Syphilis

+ diabetic neuropathy

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432
Q

What is Terlipressin?

A

a vasopressor analogue that acts as a vasoconstrictor to management low blood pressure.

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433
Q

If an egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum eventually decays cand stops secreting progesterone.

What does it decay into?

A

a mass of fibrous scar tissue; corpus albicans

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434
Q

What can cause sudden loss of vision?

A

retinal detachment

central retinal artery occlusion

vitreous detachment/ haemorrhage

+ full neurological examination for cv event

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435
Q

Diabetes; what is the initial sign of renal involvement?

A

microalbuminuria

.. progressing to >> proteinuria or even nephrotic syndrome.

*** Note: diabetic nephropathy usually suffer from diabetic retinopathy or neuropathy. Look for this! ***

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436
Q

What is vancomycin used for?

+ what happens if >> infusion rate?

A

MRSA (rem. staphlococcus) - given orally.

Adminstered parenterally to treat systemic infections.

>>> infusion rate = hypotension, erythematous rash on face/ upper body “red man syndrome”

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437
Q

Domperidone

A

D2 antagonist

Similar to metoclopramide but doesn’t cross the blood-brain barrier and rarely causes sedation or extrapyramidal effects.

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438
Q

What is CA-125?

A

Cancer Antigen 125

a protein that may be found in high amounts in the blood of patients with ovarian cancer.

Only 50% sensitive with early-stage cancer.

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439
Q

Atopic eruption of pregnancy

A

Commonest pregnancy specific dermatosis, and is associated with atopy. It mainly occurs in the second or third trimester, more commonly in multiparous women. It is characterised by patches of intensely itchy papules which become excoriated. Treatment includes emollients, antihistamines and topical steroids.

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440
Q

What type of headache is common first thing in the morning?

A

migraine

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441
Q

CVA; what’s a typical characteristic of middle cerebral artery (MCA) occlusion?

A

FACE or ARM is more affected than the leg.

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442
Q

Target BP for T2DM

A

<140/80

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443
Q

Mx of bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive; humidified oxygen if <92%

nasogastric if unable to drink/ feed

suction if needed.

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444
Q

MCQ - important facts about Metformin

MOA, adverse effects, contraindications

A

Mechanism of action

  • increases insulin sensitivity
  • decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
  • may also reduce gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates

Adverse effects

gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20%

lactic acidosis* with severe liver disease or renal failure (rare but important to know for exams)

Contraindications**

chronic kidney disease: NICE recommend that the dose should be reviewed if the creatinine is > 130 µmol/l (or eGFR < 45 ml/min) and stopped if the creatinine is > 150 µmol/l (or eGFR < 30 ml/min)

metformin may cause lactic acidosis if taken during a period where there is tissue hypoxia. Examples include a recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury and severe dehydration, iodine-containing x-ray contrast media: there is an increasing risk of provoking renal impairment due to contrast nephropathy; metformin should be discontinued on the day of the procedure and for 48 hours thereafter

**metformin is now sometimes used in pregnancy, for example in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome

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445
Q

What are the values of CRB-65?

(essential assessment of pneumonia in the community)

A

Confusion (abbreviated mental test scote <= 8/10)

Resp Rate >= 30/min

BP systolic <=90 and/or diastolic <=60mmHg

Aged <=65

(NB urea > 7 mmol/l)

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446
Q

What are sulfonylureas and meglitinides examples of?

A

hypoglycaemic drugs

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447
Q

What is an inherent problem with Sulfonylurea drugs?

A

Since they increase insulin secretion, can lead to hypoglycaemic episode if px skips or delays meals.

Alcohol increases hypoglycaemic effect.

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448
Q

Stopping antipsychotics, what’s the story.

A

Very gradual due to relapses.

Ideally should continue with medication for two years after relapse.

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449
Q

What is cervical excitation?

(chandelier sign)

A

Positive for PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) or ectopic pregnancy and it is useful to differentiate from appendicitis.

Put a finger each side of the cervix and push the cervix from side to side – this in turn stretches the tubes

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450
Q

If membranes rupture, baby needs to be delivered quickly. WHY?

A

Risk of infection

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451
Q

What is uterine atony?

A

Uterine atony is a loss of tone in the uterine musculature. Normally, contraction of the uterine muscles during labor compresses the blood vessels and reduces flow, thereby increasing the likelihood of coagulation and preventing hemorrhage.

Clinically, 75-80% of postpartum hemorrhages are due to uterine atony.

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452
Q

tx of rhabdomyolysis

A

Rapid IV fluid rehydration (saline)

properly perfuse the kidneys and limit damage to the kidneys due to myoglobin.

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453
Q

What’s the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

-autoimmune disease

associated with T1DM

Can cause transient thyrotoxicosis in the acute phase.

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454
Q

What is myeloma

+ common symptoms

A

Blood cancer - most common (15%), from the plasma cells.

CRAB - Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bone lesions

Pain, Fractures, hypercalcaemia

Fatigue - anaemia

Recurring infection

Kidney damage

Peripheral neuropathy

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455
Q
A

AOM

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456
Q

How does mianserin and mirtazaline work?

A

block presynaptic alpha2 -receptors increases monoamine output

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457
Q

EM tx of hypoglycaemia

A

50ml of glucose 50% if IV access available.

otherwise 1 mg glucagon

(as PAs 10% glucose IV okay)

non-emergency; dextrose, then more complex carbohydrates.

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458
Q

What age is typical for pyloric stenosis, and what’s the cut off age?

A

2-8 weeks, rare above 6 months

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459
Q

Partial (focal) seizure.

Two types.

A

originates in one cerebral hemisphere.

Patient DOESN’T loss consciousness.

(a) Simple partial seizure; conscious not altered.
(b) complex partial seizure - altered consciousness and px exhibits repetitive behaviours.

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460
Q

Most common cause of aortic stenosis and physiological effect

A

senile calcification

Heart has to work harder to push blood through the stenotic valve.

>> Volume load = hypertrophy + myocardial dysfunction, arrhythmias, heart failure.

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461
Q

Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

After a few days a rash appears, which may look like a target – darker in the middle and lighter around the outside. The rash isn’t usually itchy, and spreads over a number of hours or days. Large blisters then develop on the skin, which after bursting leave painful sores.

EMERGENCY

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462
Q

Why give 400IU daily Vit D to pregnant women?

A
  • Vit D is common during pregnancy and post partum causing transient osteoporosis of pregnancy.
  • Vit D def causes fetal morbities; growth restriction, skeletal deformities, tooth and bone problems
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463
Q

Peptic ulcers location

A

stomach

upper part of duodenum

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464
Q

Risk factors for OA of the hips

+ scoring system

A

Female - twice as common

Obesity

Increasing age

developmental dysplasia of the hip

Oxford Hip Score

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465
Q

General advice for facial fractures

A

no nose blowing

no sneezing

knocked out teeth; keep in saline or milk. 1-4 hour window to reimplant.

Bites; Augmentin antibiotic

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466
Q

What benign things can increase urinary protein output?

A

Pyrexia

exercise

adoption of upright posture(postural proteinuria)

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467
Q

What’s this, and management?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

It typically affects the scalp (‘Cradle cap’), nappy area, face and limb flexures.

an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

Mx: mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils

severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

468
Q

What are the following acronyms?

TACI

LACI

A

TACI: Total Anterior Circulation Infarction

LACI: Lacunar Infarction

469
Q

Angina drug management

A

First step: Nitrates - reduce preload

Second step: Diltiazem; vasodilator of arteries incl. coronary. Thus reduces afterload. Also < cardiac rate and contractility (reducing oxygen demand)

Statins - reduce atherosclerotic plaque risk

Beta-blockers (less popular) if tachycardic.

470
Q

Area on dominant side involved with understanding language.

Symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia are.. (30

A

Wernicke’s area

symptoms; profound word-finding difficulty,

impaired repetition of words

profound loss of comprehension

471
Q

NYHA

A
472
Q

Investigations for bedwetting?

A
  • urine microscopy and culture (UTIs)
  • urine dipstick (glycosuria)
  • renal ultrasound (if ectopic ureter is suspected)
473
Q

what are the type main types of generalized seizures?

A

(a) tonic-clonic (grand mal)

(b) absence (petit mal)

474
Q

What other things can cause >> creatinine?

A

>> muscle mass

>> red meat ingestion

muscle damage (rhabdomyolysis)

decreased tubular secretion (eg. cimetidine, trimethoprim tx)

475
Q

What could epileptic fits and syncope have in common?

A

they both may have myoclonic jerks (shaking), and even urinary incontinence.

476
Q

Clavicle management

A

Broad arm sling and let heal.

477
Q

Why do 70% of asthma-related deaths occur at night?

A

circadian variation in bronchial responsiveness

478
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

the transformation of one type of tissue into another

479
Q

What is a pharyneal pouch?

A

A diverticulum of the mucosa of the pharynx.

Dysphagia, and sense of a lump in the throat

Trapped food:

Regurgitation, r_eappearance of ingested food in the mouth_

Cough, due to food regurgitated into the airway

Halitosis, smelly breath, as stagnant food is digested by microorganisms

Infection

480
Q

Causes of delirium in the elderly

PINCHME

A

Pain

infection

Nutrition

Constipation

Hydration

Medication

Environment

481
Q

No limit on gestation time (for termination) if:

A

Risk to the mother’s life.

Risk of grave, permanent injury to the mother’s physical/mental health

Substantial risk that, if the child were born, it would have such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

482
Q

Dermatome to Inner Forearm

A
483
Q

Felty’s syndrome (important)

A

Rare autoimmune disease

Splenomegaly

neutropenia

RhA

484
Q

That is the transformation zone on the cervix?

A

The site where the columnar epithelium is undergoing metaplasia due to the columnar epithelium being exposed to the low pH of the vagina.

485
Q

What are the symptoms of acute asthma?

A
  • Feels like they can’t breathe
  • not enough air to cough
  • Can be gradual or rapid onset
  • anxiety
  • Feel unable to breathe out
  • (cough)
  • Wheezing
  • tight chest/ shortness of breath
486
Q

What’s the most common causes of microlytic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency

487
Q
A
488
Q

What’s the criteria for malignant melanoma?

A
489
Q

POUND mneumonic

A
  • Pulsatile
  • 4-72 hOurs duration
  • Unilateral
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Disabling intensity
490
Q

What drug is used for first line treatment of peripheral arterial disease?

A

Clopidogrel

491
Q

Chlamydia - antibiotic

A

Azithromycin

492
Q

What % of px presenting to hospital with strokes, fulfill criteria for thrombolytic tx, and what is the drug?

A

2%

Actilyse; recombinant tissue plasminogen activator alteplase

493
Q

Normal heart sounds in pregnancy

A

Normal findings in pregnancy include an ejection systolic murmur, a loud first heart sound, a third heart sound and ectopic beats.

494
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for endometriosis?

A

laparoscopy

(combine with biopsy)

495
Q

What is the cause of most URTI?

A

common cold virus

496
Q

What must never be missed and could cause avascular necrosis?

A

septal haematoma

(swelling from the medial side of a fractured nose)

497
Q

What is the management of type II Diabetes?

A

Patient education: reduce risk factors -

smoking, sedentary life style, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and obesity.

Discuss dietary advice. Encourage exercise.

HbA1c testing until glucose levels stabilised.

Drug tx: standard-release metformin. Consider dual therapy if ineffective, or triple therapy.

BP: Aim for 140/80 and below

498
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors used to treat nephrotic syndrome?

A

to reduce urinary albumin excretion when px ingests > protein.

499
Q

Macrolides

moa, drugs, indications, side effects

A

erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin

500
Q

ABCD2

A

Evulate risk of occurence of a stroke in the days following a TIA.

501
Q

What is a big danger of late response asthma?

A
  • Increased airway resistance leads to air trapping in alveoli and hyperinflation of the lungs
  • If airway inflammation is not treated or does

not resolve, these reactions may lead to
irreversible lung damage

502
Q
A
503
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

genetic disorder associated with excessive iron absorption.

(maybe caused by repeated blood transfusions)

504
Q

Typically symptoms of intestinal obstruction

A
  • abdominal colic
  • vomiting
  • constipation WITHOUT the passing of wind
  • distension
  • increased bowel sounds
  • Marked tenderness
505
Q

What would you include in an assessment of asthma?

A
  • known triggers/ allergies
  • family history
  • medication
  • presenting symptoms
  • post history of astham management
  • Anything to suggest INFECTION?
  • Normal PEFR (if known)
  • other medical complaints
506
Q

Treatment of uterine atony?

A

Bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction.

Oxytocin

Ergometrine 0.5 mg slow IV or IM unless there is a history of hypertension

507
Q

Types of wrist fracture

A

Smith’s - surgery

Colle’s (often due to FOOSH). Tx in A & E

508
Q

Endocarditis - antibiotic

A

Gentamicin and Penicillin G

509
Q

dysarthria

A

slurred speech caused by articulation problems due to a motor deficit.

510
Q

What two cancers >> risk with COC Pill?

A

B and C

Breast and cervical

511
Q

Managing BP with CKD

NICE BP targets

A

CKD + NO diabetes

120-139/ <90mmHg

CKD + diabetes and people with ACR >70mg/n/mmol

120-129<80mmHg

512
Q

Glomerulonephritis (GN) accounts for up to 1/3 of patients requiring dialysis.

What are the cardinal symptoms?

A
  • proteinuria
  • haematuria
  • urinary casts
513
Q

Reticulocyte count; what does this indicate?

A

indication of output of young red cells by the bone marrow.

  • raised after haemorrhage or haemolysis
  • low if marrow is incapable of normal cell production (e.g. aplastic anaemia)
514
Q

Chicken pox

A
515
Q

Why rehydrate gradually with DKA?

A

to avoid rapid intracellular osmotic/ sodium shifts that may cause fatal CNS oedema.

Remember: with DKA and polydipsia, rapid fluid shift from intracellular compartments.

516
Q

Foetus can “breathe” amniotic fluid into the lungs at what gestational age?

A

16-22 weeks

  • this “breathing” is important for normal lung development (prevents pulmonary hypoplasia).
517
Q

CHA2DS2-VASc

A

Risk of ischaemic stroke in px

with AF

without

anticoagulation therapy.

518
Q

What do red cell casts suggest?

A

glomerulonephritis

519
Q

What is Charcot’s triad and what can it diagnosis?

A

right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever and jaundice occurs in about 20-50% of patients with ascending cholangitis.

Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection of the biliary tree.

520
Q

What is the most common type of painful periods?

A

Primary dysmenorrhoea

(but only diagnosis once secondary dysmenorrhoea has been discounted)

Most common in teenagers and women in their 20s.

521
Q

Which part of the GI tract is ulcerative colitis?

A

colon and rectum only

(abdominal cramping + diarrhoea)

522
Q

What the the two groups of antidiabetic drugs?

A

hypoglycaemic agents

antihyperglycaemic agents

523
Q

Oligomenorrhoea - defined

A

Def: infrequent menstruation defined by a cycle length between 6 weeks and 6 months.

524
Q
A
525
Q

periovulatory unilateral pelvic pain that some women consistently experience.

What’s it called?

A

Mittelschmerz

526
Q

What anti-emetics can you use in pregnancy?

A

A lack of teratogenesis with; promethazine, cyclizine, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine, metoclopramide and domperidone.

Ondansetron is a newer agent, and has been successful in cases of severe hyperemesis.

Acid suppression

There is no evidence of teratogenesis with the use of H2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors.

527
Q
A
528
Q

Acute asthma treatment; what O2 levels should be maintained?

What should be continued after discharge?

A

94-98%

40-50mg prednisolone for 5 days minimum.

529
Q

Symptoms?

and Treatment

A

Pelvic floor muscle exercises (Kegel)

vaginal pessaries

symptoms: pain/ urinary leakage during sexual intercourse

Incomplete bladder emptying

worse for ; standing long periods/ straining

530
Q

Cocaine toxicity is known to cause seizures

True or False?

A

True

531
Q
A

It transmits the infraorbital artery and vein, and the infraorbital nerve, a branch of the maxillary nerve

Can be palpated during an examination.

532
Q

A Colle’s fracture is a fracture of the distal radius. Which nerve is commonly affected?

A

median nerve

  • affects thumb abduction
533
Q

warts

A
534
Q

Pregnancy-induced hypertension defined

A

development of hypertension in the absence of proteinuria or other features of pre-eclampsia.

Usually occurs after 20 weeks gestation and resolves within 6 weeks postpartum, (can remain elevated for up to 3 months postpartum).

535
Q

What conditions can lead to nephrotic syndrome?

A

Glomerular disease (e.g. minimal change disease in childhood), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous nephropathy.

Diabetes

SLE

Amyloidosis

(Hep B and C, HIV) - check this

536
Q

What’s the Blatchford scoring system used for?

A

upper GI bleeds for outpatient management.

537
Q
A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) bacterium Staphylococcus aureus.

This bacterium produces an exfoliative toxin that causes the outer layers of skin to blister and peel, as if they’ve been doused with a hot liquid

538
Q

What’s the story with toxoplasmosis and pregnancy?

A
  • Causes eye and brain damage during first trimester
  • induces miscarriage later in pregnancy

(caused by eating undercooked meat, handling cat feces)

539
Q

Iris contraction/ pupil smaller

A

miosis

(pilocarpine causes this)

540
Q

Bleeding in between periods is called?

A

Metrorrhagia

541
Q

What is triple assessment? (ref breast cancer)

A

Breast examination

Breast imaging (mammogram/ ultrasound)

Tissue sampling (core biopsy or FNA)

  • for a definite diagnosis
542
Q

meningitis - antibiotic

A

benzylpenicillin

543
Q

What do all these have in common:

mydriasis

vasoconstriction

salivation

urinary retention

ejaculation

A

They all have alpha 1 adrenoceptors (sympathetic ns

544
Q

picture - lichen planus (buccal mucosa)

A
545
Q

Rhonchi

A

Continuous low pitched, rattling lung sounds that often resemble snoring.

Obstruction or secretions in larger airways.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), bronchiectasis, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis, or cystic fibrosis.

Rhonchi usually clear after coughing.

546
Q

What happens to RBC after 120 days?

A

removed by macrophages of reticuloendothelial system

547
Q

Target population for breast mammography screening

A

All women between the ages of 50 and 70 years are invited to attend for screening every three years. It is a rolling programme, which means that not all women will be invited when they reach 50 years, but all will be invited before their 53rd birthday

548
Q

Takayasu’s disease (rare)

A

Takayasu arteritis is a rare, systemic, inflammatory large-vessel vasculitis of unknown etiology; affects women of childbearing age.

Gradual stenosis of arteries dues to inflammatory attacks.

  • Pain with use of an arm or leg (called “claudication”),
  • high BP

distinguish between narrowing due to vasculitis and due to atherosclerosis

Diagnosis; angiogram (X-ray with dye), CT angiography

Tx: steroids, immune suppresants

549
Q

Type I defined

A

autoimmune condition causing destruction of the pancreatic B cells resulting in absolute insulin deficiency.

(70-90% of cells must be destroyed before symptoms)

550
Q

Immediate management of chest pain - cardiac type

A & E setting

A
  • High flow oxygen
  • opioids and anti-emetics IV (morphine + cyclizine)
  • 300mg aspirin + 300mg clopidogrel
551
Q

Where’s the extradural space?

A

between the skull and the dura. Especially at the frontoparietal area. Other areas dura can be tightly bound to the skull.

cause: often tearing of middle meningeal artery.

552
Q

Lung volumes diagram

A
553
Q

What’s the story with chickenpox and pregnancy?

A

1:10 pregnant women with chickenpox develop pneumonia. 1:100 women die from this condition. Other serious infections possible.

Unborn baby: Small chance of developing Fetal Varicella Syndrome (FVS) that causes serious abnormalities. More common during 2nd trimester.

Most dangerous time for babies is within seven days before or after birth. iImmunoglobulins are given to the baby to stop this happening.

Babies can catch chickenpox before birth. Aciclovir can be prescribed by specialists.

554
Q

What is Lichen planus (LIE-kun PLAY-nus)

A

an inflammatory condition that can affect the skin, hair, nails and mucous membranes.

lichen planus usually appears as purplish, often itchy, flat-topped bumps, developing over several weeks.

most often on the inner forearm, wrist or ankle, (sometimes external genitalia)

555
Q

What’s the advantages of LMWH over normal heparin?

A

Can be given SC (heparin is injected)

Has a long duration of action (heparin is short)

lower risk of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), and reduced risk of osteoporosis

Routine monitoring isn’t required (Heparin requires APTT - activated partial thromboplastin time)

standard tx for DVT and acute coronary syndromes

556
Q

What is FNAC?

A

Fine Needle Aspiration for Cytology

  • may be used for neck lumps
557
Q

Which part of the orbit do the cranial nerves IV, III, VI pass?

A

Superior orbital fissure

558
Q

Why are ACEI drugs good for heart failure?

A

lower BOTH arterial and venous resistance.

559
Q

Cycloplegia

A

paralysis of accommodation

560
Q

Dermatome to middle finger

A
561
Q

What is a haematoma block?

A

Analgesic technique used to allow painless manipulation of fractures while avoiding the need for full anesthesia.

This procedure is normally only appropriate for fractures of the radius and ulna.

562
Q

When would I refer a patient to ICU?

A
  • Failing to respond to therapy, worsening PEFR, worsening hypoxia, development of hypercapnia, exhaustion/ feeble respiration, confusion, respiratory arrest.
  • requiring ventilatory support
563
Q

Venn diagram of causes of thyroid dysfunction

A
564
Q

What’s the function of the choroid?

A

Dark pigmentation to prevent internal light reflection, supplies blood to the retina

565
Q

What can cause erythema nodosum?

(NB. not just on the skins)

A

IBD,

infections; TB, streptococci, brucellosis

malignancy/ lymphoma

drugs; penicillins, sulphonamides, COC pill

pregnancy

566
Q

Can you get AKI with pre-eclampsia?

A

Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a common consequence of pre-eclampsia.

This ranges from a mild increase in creatinine, to significant AKI requiring renal replacement therapy (rare)

An elevated serum urate concentration and oliguria can also be seen.

567
Q

What genetic condition is an important cause of short stature and delayed puberty in girls?

A

Turner’s syndrome - absence of one X chromosome

Turner babies often have webbing of the neck and lymphoedematous hands and feet.

Tx: GH and Oestrogen in childhood.

568
Q

Risk factors for CIN

NB. women with previous CIN have a higher risk of cervical disease in future

A

Smoking

young age commencing sexual activity

giving birth under 16

multiple sexual partners

immunosuppresant drugs

569
Q

What is this?

A

acne vulgaris

570
Q

If uncontrolled hypertension in CKD then add:

A

non-dihydropyridine CCB
e.g. diltiazem

  • If oedema consider loop diuretic
571
Q

Causes of purpura

(pathophysiology)

A

Platelet disorders (thrombocytopenic purpura)

Vascular disorders (nonthrombocytopenic purpura)

Microvascular injury, as seen in senile (old age) purpura, when blood vessels are more easily damaged

Hypertensive states

Vasculitis, as in the case of Henoch–Schönlein purpura

Coagulation disorders

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency) - defect in collagen synthesis results in weakened capillary walls and cells

Meningococcemia

Cocaine use with concomitant use of the one-time chemotherapy drug and now veterinary deworming agent levamisole can cause purpura of the ears, face, trunk, or extremities. Levamisole is purportedly a common cutting agent.

572
Q

Deformities of the finger in RhA

(diagram)

A
573
Q

What drugs commonly damage the kidneys?

A

NSAIDs,

lithium,

some antibiotics,

bisphophonates

574
Q

What is dyskaryosis?

A

Abnormal cytologic changes of squamous epithelial cells.

May be followed by the development of a malignant neoplasm.

Used synonymously with dysplasia.

575
Q

White-Eyed Blowout

A

Greenstick fracture of the orbital floor or medial orbital wall resulting in ischemic entrapment of an extraocular muscle.

  • Typically children
  • Minimal external signs of trauma mask the severity of the orbital injury.

Commonly due to sports injuries.

576
Q

Coeliac disease and gluten… what’s the story?

A

gluten > villous atrophy > malabsorption

  • Familial component
  • T Cell mediated autoimmune inflammation of the small bowel.
577
Q

What are Salmeterol and Formoterol examples of?

A

Long-acting B2 agonists. Half-life 15 hours.

578
Q

Signs and symptoms of concussion

mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI)

A

a headache that doesn’t go away or isn’t relieved with painkillers

dizziness

feeling sick or vomiting

feeling stunned, dazed or confused

memory loss – you may not remember what happened before or after the injury

clumsiness or trouble with balance

unusual behaviour – you may become irritated easily or have sudden mood swings

changes in your vision – such as blurred vision, double vision or “seeing stars”

being knocked out or struggling to stay awake

579
Q

Where do you find keratinocytes and melanocytes?

A

epidermis of the skin

keratinocytes - keratin production

melanocytes - melanin production

580
Q

Why aren’t mammagraphs very useful for women under 35 years old?

A

dense breast tissue, poor x-ray penetration.

Ultrasound shows breast cysts well.

Aspiration for solid lesions.

581
Q

Maternal diabetes and fetal health…

A

Poor glycaemic control in the first trimester is associated with an increased rate of congenital abnormalities (particularly neural tube defects and congenital heart disease) and miscarriage.

Studies have shown that the rate of congenital abnormalities increases as the HbA1c increases.

The risk of miscarriage is higher with co-existent renal disease or hypertension.

582
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary nocturnal enuresis?

A

primary; child has never been continence.

secondary; child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

583
Q

Fluid challenge and central venous cannula/ measurement of CVP; what’s that about?

A

If CVP doesn’t rise or rises transiently and then falls, then px is ‘underfilled’.

584
Q

What changes occur with chronic asthma?

A

>> goblet cells (increase mucus).

thickening of basement membrane.

Smooth muscle hyperplasia and hypertrophy.

585
Q

Immediate Stroke/ TIA management

A
  • CT scan to rule out haemorrhagic cause
  • thrombolysis (3 hr window from onset of symptoms?)
  • antiplatelet therapy
586
Q

What is the mx of erythema nodosum?

(inflammation of subcutaneous fat)

A

usually resolves within 6 weeks, lesions heal without scarring. Therefore no active treatment.

587
Q

What is the most common problem of POP to advise patients?

A

irregular vaginal bleeding

NB. Must take every day at the same time (within 3 hour window)

588
Q

What symptoms could indicate a median nerve pathology?

A

the thumb and lateral two and a half fingers affected (numbness)

wasting of thenar eminence

weakness of thumb abduction

589
Q

What are the following acronyms?

TACI

LACI

A

TACI: Total Anterior Circulation Infarction

LACI: Lacunar Infarction

590
Q

What are the symptoms of balanitis?

A

redness, irritation and soreness of the end of the penis

Balanitis is a skin irritation on the head of the penis that can affect men and boys.

591
Q

What causes the airways to become constricted?

A
  • constriction of the smooth muscle in the bronchioles
  • inflammed/ thickened epithelium
  • mucous production blocking the airways
592
Q

Advice following bone operations (2)

A

No Ibuprofen

Don’t smoke

593
Q

What four signs makes up nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteinuria >> 4.5 g/ 24hr

dyslipidemia (hypercholesteraemia specifically)

hypoalbuminaemia

peripheral oedema

*** rem. haematuria is rare, and BP may be normal or slighly elevated ***

594
Q

How is Hashimoto’s disease diagnosed?

A
  • detecting elevated levels of anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb) in the serum, but seronegative (without circulating autoantibodies) thyroiditis is also possible.
  • Often misdiagnosed as depression
595
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

A fibroadenoma is mostly seen in women aged <30 years of age.

They are discrete, non-tender, highly mobile lumps.

596
Q

Burns - when to give IV fluids?

A

In adults, IV fluids should be given in second or third degree burns that cover 15% body surface area or more.

In children, IV fluids are recommended when burns cover 10% body surface area.

597
Q

Recurrent abdo pain with children is likely to be…

A

functional rather than organic.

mebeverine: helps smooth spasms.

ASK:

  • history of colic as a baby?
  • keep diary of episodes
  • history of stress/ overachievement at school?
598
Q

Dermatome to dorsum of foot

A
599
Q

PPPP

stop bleeding

A

Pressure

Posture

Patient - time

Pray

600
Q

What is the definition of postpartum haemorrhage?

and the most common cause?

A

blood loss of 500ml or more within 24 hours of birth of baby.

uterine atony

601
Q

Diagram of Lung Volumes

A
602
Q

What is a post dural puncture headache?

A

After epidural; positional (worse on standing), and most frequently occur in the frontal and occipital regions. Symptoms such as neck stiffness, tinnitus, photophobia and nausea can be associated. They usually develop in the five days after the procedure.

Management is conservative (hydration, rest, oral analgesia) but occasionally an epidural blood patch is required.

603
Q

What’s this? + info.

A

Thyroglossal cysts

asymptomatic midline neck mass at or below the level of the hyoid bone, above the thyroid cartilage.

Most often in the midline

They may present in childhood (less than 50%) or, usually as a young adult

Move up when the tongue is protruded & with swallowing- cysts attached to the base of the tongue by the thyroglossal tract.

604
Q

What are some common symptoms of URI?

A

fever

dysuria

urinary frequency

suprapubic pain

605
Q

Dangers of SSRIs

A

Inhibit platelet aggregation; associated with >> GI bleeding in the elderly.

Can cause hyponatraemia in older people.

SSRIs and venlafaxine may be associated with increased suicide ideation and aggression. Except for fluoxetine, they are contraindicated in children under 18.

SNRI: Venlafaxine may cause hypo/hypertension

606
Q
A
607
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

Type of cancer that develops from epithelial cells. Specifically, a carcinoma is a cancer that begins in a tissue that lines the inner or outer surfaces of the body

608
Q
A

Stress fracture - metatarsals

Can occur from running or significant walking

can be hairline fracture with no displacement.

tx. review 7-10 days. analgesia and << activity. Possibly x-ray.

609
Q

Developmental milestones of an embryo

A
610
Q
A

Addison’s signs

611
Q

Does respiratory rate change with pregnancy?

A

No

Tidal volume increases up to 45%.

Functional residual capacity is reduced due to diaphramatic elevation (late pregnancy)

612
Q

Definition of cerebral palsy

A

An umbrella term used to describe disorder of movement and posture caused by permanent and non-progressive cerebral lesion early in brain development.

613
Q

Coronary arteries territories

A
614
Q

Three layers to the skin

A

epidermis - stratified squamous epithelium

dermis - supportive connective tissue matrix. 70% collagen. Also elastin. Contains specialised structures.

subcutis - loose layer of connective tissue (3cm thick on abdomen)

615
Q

Why is obesity in post menopausal woman a risk factor in breast cancer?

A

due to oestrogen exposure

616
Q

Name a type of headache that can mimic migraine during pregnancy

A

Cerebral venuos thrombosis

variable presentations; headache, focal neurological deficits, vomiting or seizures.

An important cause of symptoms that can overlap with those of migraine.

CT or MRI venography is used to make the diagnosis. When diagnosed, 6-12 months of therapeutic anticoagulation is required.

617
Q

Characteristics of migraines

A
  • often unilateral. Recurrent
  • usually pulsatile
  • builds up over minutes to hours
  • occurs with or with aura
  • associations include; nausea & vomiting, photophobia, sound sensitivity, family history
  • exacerbation with physical activity
  • triggers; cheese, chocolate, etc.

NB. neurological exam should be negative

618
Q

What stimulates EPO?

A

hypoxia and anaemia

619
Q

What is pramlintide acetate?

A

Analogue of amylin.

Amylin; co-secreted with insulin. It slows gastric emptying and reduces appetite.

Subcutaneous at mealtimes for type I and 2 diabetes. SE; nausea, vomiting, anorexia, headache.

620
Q

NSAIDs and pregnancy?

A

exposure to NSAIDs after 30 weeks’ gestation is associated with an increased risk of premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus

621
Q

Epworth sleepiness scale

A

Primarily for obstructive sleep apnoea patients; meaure of excessive daytime sleepiness

622
Q

What is the consequence to the heart of the increase in peripheral oedema with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Reduction in venous return, therefore a reduction in stroke volume.

This reduction in blood flow reduces the GFR.

In addition there is inflammation in the Kidneys that also reduce GFR. THIS STIMULATES RENIN.

623
Q

What is azotemia?

A

azot = “nitrogen”, -emia=”blood”

>> nitrogen-rich compounds in the blood (urea, creatinine), due to << kidney filtering.

Can cause uremia and AKI

ATI - acute tubular injury (acute tubular necrosis ATN) is most common cause of intrinsic renal azotemia

624
Q

What’s a macule?

A

a localised area of colour or textural change in the skin.

625
Q

Which group of drugs are indicated for unusual organisms such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionnaire’s disease?

A

Macrolides

626
Q

What is CRAO and what are some of the risk factors?

A

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

Equivalent of a cerebral stroke; end-organ ischaemia.

Embolism is the most common cause; atherosclerotic plaques.

hypertension and diabetes common.

627
Q
A

bilateral - basilar skull fracture

Bilateral hemorrhage occurs when damage at the time of a facial fracture tears the meninges and causes the venous sinuses to bleed into the arachnoid villi and the cranial sinuses

628
Q

Diagram of mesengial cells between arterioles and bowman’s capsule.

A
629
Q

Which receptors are abundant in the CTZ of the medulla?

A

D2 dopamine receptors

5HT3 receptors

630
Q

What is the goal of CKD care?

A
  • prevent cardiovascular problems
  • prevent ESKD
  • prevent complications of CKD
  • prevent dialysis
631
Q

Which drugs are used to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

Carbimazole

Propylthiouracil

Propranolol (for symptoms of anxiety, palpitations, tremor, heat intolerance)

632
Q

Myoclonic seizures

A

brief, shock-like jerks of a muscle or a group of muscles.

can be quite normal (eg. when falling asleep)

633
Q

What are the characteristics of non-organic abdominal pain?

A
  • periodic pain with intervening good health
  • periumbilical
  • may be related to school hours
634
Q

Where is the most common site of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Long bone - metaphysis because it is a highly vascular area (contains growth plate)

Found between the epiphysis and diaphysis

For adults, osteomyelitis is more common in the epiphysis

635
Q

What’s the most common cause of underactive thyroid gland?

A

autoimmune; Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

(T cell-mediated disease)

636
Q

What’s the most common psychiatric problem with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Depression

637
Q

RhA diagnostic criteria

A

morning stiffness >> 60 mins

stiffness after rest

>> six weeks duration

DIP joints spared

Volar subluxation

Swan neck/ boutonniere, guttering between bones

RhA attacks connective tissue (therefore tendinous sheaths); fingers stay in flexion/ extension

638
Q

When would you use a collar and Cuff sling?

A
  • gravity assist
  • eg. impacted head of humerus (refer if impacted head)
639
Q
A

Rectocele

Rectal Symptoms

Difficulty having a complete bowel movement

Stool getting stuck in the bulge of the rectum

The need to press against the vagina and/or space between the rectum and the vagina to have a bowel movement

Straining with bowel movements

The urge to have multiple bowel movements throughout the day

Constipation

Rectal pain

Vaginal Symptoms

Pain with sexual intercourse (dyspareunia)

Vaginal bleeding

A sense of fullness in the vagina

640
Q

What is the most common cause of macrocytosis? (large RBC)

A

Alcohol

(Hb level is usuallly normal)

Also.. RBC are usually circular

641
Q

What other conditions can antidepressants be used for?

A

phobic anxiety

panic disorder

PTSD

general anxiety disorder (GAD)

Buliminia nervosa and OCD

642
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolone group

Effective for many gram -ve bacteria.

Used to treat anthrax - postexposure prophylaxis of inhalational anthrax.

serious adverse effects; tendonitis and tendon rupture.

alters blood glucose, phototoxicity, prolongation of QT interval

Contraindicated; children, adolescents, pregnant and lactating women.

643
Q

What is found here?

A
  • SOLID:
  • lymph nodes, cervical rib
    • CYSTIC:
  • cystic hygroma (lymphangioma)
  • Pharyngeal pouch
  • Subclavian aneurysm
    *
644
Q

What is diagnosis of DKA based on?

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of Type I DM.

A

Diagnosis based on

diabetes (blood glucose >11 mmol/L)

ketones (urine or blood)

acidosis (pH <7.30 venous blood)

645
Q

name four strict contraindications of taking The Combined Pill

A
  • more than 35 years old and smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day
  • migraine with aura
  • history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation
  • uncontrolled hypertension
646
Q

If peptic ulcer suspected with children then…

A
  • trial a PPI - omeprazole
  • investigate H. Pylori (stool examination, hydrogen breath test, endoscopy)

Tx if positive: triple therapy: omeprazole, amoxicillin, metronidazole.

647
Q

What is RDS? (common in premature babies)

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Tx: Corticosteroid therapy promotes surfactant production and decreases risk of RDS by 50%

NB> surfactant is made by type II pneumocytes.

648
Q

How does PCP present? - pneumocystis carinii (jirovecii) pneumonia

A
  • non-productive cough
  • fever
  • dyspnoea
  • subacute, symptoms last 3-4 weeks.

CXR normal in 90% of cases.

649
Q

What do red cell casts always indicate?

A

renal disease

WC casts may indicate acute pyelonephritis

650
Q

Obese px; type I or type II diabetes more likely?

A

type II

651
Q

What is glipizide?

SE: weight gain

Can be combined with metformin for better control.

A

Sulfonylurea drug; increases the secretion of insulin and secondarily decreases the secretion of glucagon.

hypoglycaemic drug’

652
Q

Sudden onset of a rash following a dermatome that is painful (most rashes aren’t painful) is which virus?

+ tx

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)

tx: aciclovir

(vaccine offered after age 70)

653
Q

what could be triggers for hypoglycaemia attacks?

A

infections; UTI, pneumonia

physiological stressors including cold, status epilepticus.

654
Q

How could toxic shock syndrome present?

A
  • >> temperature. Can progress to life-threatening very quickly.
  • Rash
  • hypotension; suppressiong of myocardial contractility by the toxin.
  • Very red mucosal surfaces; palms, soles of feel, tongue
  • weakness, myalgia, nausa, vomiting, diarrhoea
  • encephalopathy symptoms
655
Q

What lifestyle advise would you give a woman who is considering HRT?

A

Stop smoking

lose weight

limit alcohol

656
Q

What is HONK?

A

hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma

induced by prolonged hyperglycaemia and dehydration and hypernatraemia.

* require careful management with fluid replacement and small doses of insulin to restore euvolaemia and euglycaemia.

657
Q

Definition of premature ovarian failure

A

Onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years.

Common cause - idiopathic

658
Q

What is glipizide?

SE: weight gain

Can be combined with metformin for better control.

A

Sulfonylurea drug; increases the secretion of insulin and secondarily decreases the secretion of glucagon.

hypoglycaemic drug’

659
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor?

(also called tinea versicolor)

(The patches may be darker or lighter than your normal skin colour, or may be red, brown or pink.)

Tx:?

A

common fungal infection that causes small patches of skin to become scaly and discoloured.

The areas most often affected by pityriasis versicolor include the back, chest, upper arms, neck and tummy.

Pityriasis versicolor is caused by a type of yeast called Malassezia.

anti-fungals, eg. clotrimazole TOPICALLY!!!

NO STEROIDS

660
Q

What group does clarithromycin belong to?

Indications?

A

Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic

It’s used to treat chest infections, such as pneumonia, skin problems such as cellulitis, and ear infections.

It’s also used to get rid of Helicobacter pylori,

661
Q

What lumps move with swallowing?

A

SOLID:

Goitre

lymph node

CYSTIC:

Thyroid cyst

662
Q

Why is glycaemic control difficult in first trimester?

A

nausea and vomiting

Increase in insulin sensitivity

Low glycogen stores; ketoacidosis common

663
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of asthma? ()

A
  1. Wheezing attacks
  2. episodic shortness of breath
  3. symptoms usually worse at night
  4. cough - nocturnal and often in children
  5. Diurnal variations in PEFR
  6. Revesible; 15% improvement if FEV1 after using a bronchodilator.
664
Q

When would you ask for a Bence Jones urine test?

A

Bence Jones protein urine test (within 48 hours) to assess for myeloma in people aged 60 and over with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia and a presentation that is consistent with possible myeloma.

665
Q

What’s this?

A

Purpura :

red or purple non-blanching spots.

Bleeding underneath the skin usually secondary to vasculitis or dietary deficiency of vitamin C

meningococcus (Neisseria meningitidis), a Gram-negative diplococcus organism, releases endotoxin when it lyses. Endotoxin activates the Hageman factor (clotting factor XII), which causes disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

666
Q

Management of Otitis media

A

analgesia. 80% improve spontaneously.

>48hrs require antibiotics

667
Q

What’s the function of cholecystokinin?

A

stimulates pancreatic secretions when food enters the duodenum, and stimulates bile release from gall bladder.

Cholecystokinin is synthesized and secreted by cells in the duodenum.

668
Q

Characteristics of essential/ benign/ idiopathic tremor.

A
  • cause unknown
  • symmetrical (Parkinson’s is asymmetric)
  • happens on movement or postural (due to sustained muscular tone). EG. Rattling of a teacup.
  • DOESN’T HAPPEN AT REST (unlike PARKINSON’S)
669
Q

What class of group for lowering nephrotic associated hyperlipidaemia?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

670
Q

QRISK3

A

Risk of developing a heart attack or stroke if NO previous diagnosis of CHD or stroke/ TIA

671
Q

What do D cells (pancreas) produce?

A

somatostatin

672
Q

Name some lower motor neurone conditions

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

C. botulism

polio

cauda equina syndrome

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

673
Q

conception rate graph

A

Two types of infertility:

Primary infertility – never had a child

Secondary infertility – previous pregnancy, struggling with fertility later.

674
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

A birth defect in which nerves are missing from parts of the intestine.

The most prominent symptom is constipation.

Other symptoms may include vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and slow growth.

Symptoms usually become apparent in the first two months of life.

The disorder may occur by itself or in association with other genetic disorders such as Down syndrome.

675
Q

Which conditions do you find Mallory bodies?

A

Alcoholic liver disease

WIlson’s disease

PBC (primary biliary cirrhosis)

676
Q

What is the common cause of cervical dysplasia?

A

Cervical dysplasia generally develops after infection of the cervix with the human papillomavirus (HPV).

677
Q

How does metformin (biguanide drug) work?

NB> stop if acidosis suspected due to rare effect of lactic acidosis.

A

increases insulin receptor affinity in peripheral tissues.

1st line drug for type 2 diabetes. Can be used alone or in combo.

DOES NOT; stimulate insulin secretion, or cause hypoglycaemia, or weight gain.

DIARRHOEA common in 30% of px.

678
Q

What’s the most common pathogen for bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

679
Q

What drugs treat TB? (mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Rifampicin (prevents RNA transcription). Resistance develops quickly, therefore needs to be combined with other drugs; isoniazid

680
Q

What is the TIMI score?

A

Estimates mortality for patients with unstable angina and non-ST elevation MI.

681
Q

What are typical symptoms of guillain-barre syndrome?

A

progressive weakness of all four limbs that starts in the lower extremities.

Tends to affect proximal muscles earlier than the distal ones.

Sensory symptoms tend to be mild (e.g. distal paraesthesia) with very few sensory signs.

682
Q

Ataxia

A

A term for a group of disorders that affect co-ordination, balance and speech.

683
Q

Why use ACE inhibitors or ARBs for nephrotic syndrome?

A

reduce proteinuria by lowering pressure in glomerulus.

684
Q

What is VITAL in management of epileptic fit?

A

maintain a patent airway

(may need to insert a nasophargyeal tube)

High flow oxygen

Check BM

685
Q

Lesser known functions of the kidneys

A
  • activation of Vit D
  • metabolism of insulin
    *
686
Q

definitive tx of acute leukaemia and side effects?

A

cytotoxic drugs

  • hair loss, nausea & vomiting, sore mouth, bone marrow failure.
  • severe infection

radiotherapy, & some cases; stem cell transplantation. Destroy stem cells and reinfuse.

687
Q

How could retinal detachment present?

A

New onset of floaters

New onset of flashes (flashing lights in vision)

Sudden onset, painless, usually progressive visual field loss

[dark curtain or shadow which starts in the periphery)

Peripheral curtain over vision + spider webs + flashing lights in vision think retinal detachment

688
Q

Common cause of metatarsal fractures?

A

stress fractures; don’t need trauma history

689
Q

What neurological signs are associated with B12 deficiency?

A
  • tingling in the feet (more than the hands)
  • difficulty in gait, visual or psychiatric disorders
  • pregnancy >> neural tube defects
690
Q

Dysphonia

A

loss of volume caused by laryngeal disorders.

691
Q

Name some causes of pleural effusion transudate (<30g/L)

A

Most common; heart failure

hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption)

692
Q

What would you use for impacted stool?

A

Glycerol suppository

Glycerol suppositories stimulate the rectum because glycerol is mildly irritant.

May need to be repeated. Digital assistance needed.

693
Q

Cold sores

A
694
Q

what is scotoma

A

a partial loss of vision or blind spot in an otherwise normal visual field

695
Q

Px advise for type II diabetes to reduce risk?

A

lose weight

stop smoking

  • these are additional risk factors for hypertension and CV disease, both common in type II diabetes.
696
Q

What’s this?

A

under green light, red blood vessels show up black.

697
Q

When is endometrial cancer most common?

A

After menopause

  • Immediate referral (NICE guidelines)
698
Q
A
699
Q

What is found here?

A
  • SOLID:
  • lymph nodes, cervical rib
    • CYSTIC:
  • cystic hygroma (lymphangioma)
  • Pharyngeal pouch
  • Subclavian aneurysm
    *
700
Q

Why perform a blood film?

A

red blood cell abnormalities eg. sickle cell anemia and spherocytosis

Look for parasites; malaria, Filariasis

701
Q

Organisms related with meningitis (bacterial)

A

Neisseria meningtidis

streptococcus pneumoniae

haemophilus influenzae

702
Q

sling for elbow fracture?

A

Broad arm sling,

and backslab up to the shoulder.

703
Q

What can cause weight faltering?

A

eating difficulties, difficulties in home environment

limited parenting skills, illness

SERIOUS: neglect, mental disorders (child/ parent)

704
Q

What passes through the optic canal?

A

optic nerve

ophthalmic artery

ophthalmic vein

705
Q

What condition could give you this?

A

Vitiligo often seen in autoimmune endocrine diseases; in particular primary hypothyroidism

706
Q

Why must LABAs be taken with steroids?

A

>> risk of death. Mechanism unknown.

Suggested that LABAs reduce the sensitivity of B2-receptors, making short-acting B2-agonists less effective during an acute attack.

707
Q

What does CIN stand for (with cervical screening)

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

708
Q

MOA of propylthiouracil?

A

works outside of the thyroid gland, preventing conversion of (mostly inactive form) T4 to T3

709
Q

hyphaema

A

Hyphaema

refer.

710
Q

Sever’s disease

A

Calcaneal apophysitis

inflammation of the growth plates.

NB. Calcaneus developed by age 14.

711
Q

pericarditis ECG changes (findings in first two weeks)

A

saddleback ST elevation and PR depression throughout most of the leads.

RECIPROCAL deviation in lead aVR

712
Q

Signs of scaphoid fracture?

A
  • tenderness at anatomical snuff box.
  • pain when pressing thumb proximally

IMP. Danger of avascular necrosis

713
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for bladder cancer?

A

cystoscopy.

All patient with symptoms suggestive of bladder cancer.

714
Q

What concerns might you have for a child who wets the bed?

A
  • Has the child ever been dry? (if so, what age)
  • Was there a trigger for bedwetting?
  • Any stress or sexual abuse?
  • Any symptoms suggesting a UTI?
  • History of constipation?
  • Any symptoms of diabetes mellitus?
  • What methods have the parents tried to stop bedwetting? Punishments? Fluid restrictions? Rewards?
  • What is the pattern? Diurnal or Nocturnal?
715
Q

What happens to Functional Residual Capacity with emphysema?

A

Increased because

REDUCED elastic recoil, and therefore less resistance to the elastic recoil of the chest.

716
Q

Clinical features of HCC

A

Ache in right hypochrondrial area

tender nodular liver on palpation

rapid onset with cirrhosis px

weight loss, anorexia, fever

717
Q

What’s this?

A

koilonychia

Associated with hypochromic anaemia, especially iron-deficiency anaemia

718
Q

What types of oedema can you get with nephrotic syndome?

A

periorbital oedema

ascites

peripheral oedema

719
Q

APKD - Adult polycystic kidney disease

General info

(picture needed)

A

Most common inherited condition to affect the kidneys, usually presenting in adult life.

Renal cysts can bleed, create haematuria, loin pain and become infected. Cysts enlarge and renal function declines.

Dx: FH, clinical features, CT, ultrasonography.

Tx:control BP, antibiotics, painkillers, dialysis, transplant

720
Q

How does metformin (biguanide drug) work?

NB> stop if acidosis suspected due to rare effect of lactic acidosis.

A

increases insulin receptor affinity in peripheral tissues.

1st line drug for type 2 diabetes. Can be used alone or in combo.

DOES NOT; stimulate insulin secretion, or cause hypoglycaemia, or weight gain.

DIARRHOEA common in 30% of px.

721
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) but also kidney failure.

722
Q

What are the three branches of trigeminal nerve (V)?

A

the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve (V2), and the mandibular nerve (V3).

The ophthalmic and maxillary nerves are purely sensory, whereas the mandibular nerve supplies motor as well as sensory functions

723
Q
A
724
Q

Commonest cause of mesothelioma?

+ symptoms

A

asbestos esposure

  • persistent chest wall pain
  • pleural effusion
725
Q

When is a CT scan URGENT following a stroke?

A
  • if 3 hour window to start thrombolytics
  • evidence of head injury
  • severe headache at the time of onset of weakness
  • GCS score deteriorating
  • prior anticoagulation treatment
726
Q

What are the classic symptoms of endometriosis?

A

pelvic pain

dysmenorrhoea

dyspareunia

subfertility

727
Q

What are the QRS complexed like with LBBB?

A

WIDE

Sometimes W-shaped complex in V1

Sometimes M pattern in V4-V6

728
Q

Why do you get chest tightness with asthma?

A

It is difficult to expire, and so air gets trapped in the lungs leading to chest. tightness.

This increase in air also increases resistance, resulting in difficulty breathing.

729
Q

Management of chronic gout

A

Allopurinol is first-line.

(xanthine-oxidase inhibitor)

730
Q

CKD definition (albumin level, GFR)

A

albumin excretion of > 30mg/ day

or

GFR <60 ml/min/1.73 m2

for >3 mtns

** damage needs to be >3mtn to distinguish CKD from acute kidney disease.

731
Q

Treatment and definition of primary ovarian failure

A

loss of ovarian function before the age of 45 years.

>> FSH (taken on day 2-4) and low oestradiol levels. Repeat in four weeks to confirm diagnosis.

>> risk of CV disease

>> risk of OA

Tx: HRT for bone and CV protection

732
Q

What is dalteparin?

A

low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

733
Q

Common antibiotics for UTIs?

A

Nitrofurantoin

Trimethoprim - CAUTION with PREGNANCY. Need to take Folic acid. NOT first choice.

734
Q

What investigations might you consider for a child with fever?

A

FBC; leucocytosis with neutrophilia suggestions bacterial infection

Throat swab

Blood culture

Lumbar puncture (if meningitis suspected)

Urine analysis ; protein, RBCs, leucocytes, nitrates, protein

CXR

735
Q

Liver metabolism changes in pregnancy

A

Albumin – decreases, (increased blood volume)

Alkaline phosphatase – >> 2-4 fold, mostly as a result of the increasing production of placental alkaline phosphatase

736
Q

suspected meningococcal infection; which antibiotics in the community and in hospitals?

A

community; benzyl penicillin

hospital; ceftriaxone

737
Q

Stages of labour (1-4)

A

1st stage : contractions 10-15 minutes apart, cervix dilated.

2nd stage: pushing and birth of baby

3rd stage: delivery of placenta

4th stage: postpartum

738
Q

Common causes of hypotension (6)

A
  • sepsis
  • acidosis
  • medications
  • nitrates (GTN)
  • CCBs
  • many anaesthetic agents
739
Q

Signs of aortic regurgitation

A

collapsing pulse

investiations; echocardiography

740
Q

What is the most common cause of visible haematuria? (glomerular origin)

A

Immunoglobulin (IgA) nephropathy; often preceded by a non-specific upper resp tract infection.

741
Q

What is the test for H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test

742
Q

Cockcroft-Gault Equation

A

The most common formula for determining creatinine clearance, ; creatinine clearance may over-estimate GFR by 10-20%, but still remains the standard for drug dosing adjustments.

Less accurate in weight extremes (underweight and particularly overweight/obesity).

743
Q
A
744
Q

Key symptoms of meningitis

A

headache

fever

sore neck

rash

745
Q

High BP two weeks after stroke. Which meds?

A

ACE inhibitors (perindopril - take at bedtime because can become dizzy)

thiazide diuretics

746
Q

Scaphoid fracture management

A

Cast if suspected (scaphoid backslab)

Refer to review clinic in 10-12 days

747
Q

What are antipsychotics used for?

A

treatment and relapse prevention in schizophenia and other psychoses (eg. mania, psychotic depression).

  • Most effective at alleviating positive symptoms; delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder.
  • Used for violent or agitated behaviour that does not respond to de-esculation. (Haloperidol + a benzodiazepine)
748
Q

What are the high risk criteria for sepsis?

A

Behaviour; objective changes

Resp Rate; >25 OR new need for oxygen to maintain sats (>92%)

HR above 130

BP 90mmHg or less, or more than 40mmHg below normal

oliguria

mottled/ ashen appearance

cyanosis

non-blanching skin rash

749
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot (4) Don’t DROP the baby

most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Defect (VSD)

RV hypertrophy

Overriding aorta

Pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow tract obstruction)

750
Q

Suspected ovarian cancer - when would you definitely refer?

A

If physical examination identifies ascites and/ or abdominal mass

(when it is clearly not a fibroid)

751
Q

What are the initial symptoms of motor neurone disease?

A

In 2/3s, the first symptos occur in mthe arm or leg. This is sometimes called limb-onset disease. These symptoms include:

a weakened grip, which can cause difficulties picking up or holding objects

weakness at the shoulder, making lifting the arm above the head difficult

tripping up over a foot because of weakness at the ankle or hip

May be accompanied by widespread twitching of the muscles (fasciculations) or muscle cramps, and there may be visible wasting of the muscles with significant weight loss.

Bulbar-onset disease

1/4 of px, problems initially affect the muscles used for speech and swallowing. Increasingly slurred speech (dysarthria) is usually the first sign of this type of motor neurone disease, and may be misdiagnosed as a stroke.

As the condition progresses, it may become increasingly difficult to swallow (dysphagia), and be misdiagnosed as a blockage in the throat.

752
Q

Indications and management of antidepressants

A

moderate or severe depression.

Takes a few weeks to take effect (up to eight), should be taken for 4-6 months after symptoms are resolved.

753
Q
A
754
Q

Differences between UC and CD

A
755
Q

Risk factors for CVD?

A

hypertension

hyperlipidaemia

diabetes mellitus

obesity

family history

smoking

756
Q

What are the three big causes of ESKD?

A

Diabetes (number ONE)

Hypertension

Glomerulopathy

757
Q

What is Placenta accreta?

Placenta accreta: chorionic villi penetrate the decidua basalis to attach to the myometrium.

A

These are conditions where the placenta is morbidly attached to the uterine wall.

All are associated with retained placenta requiring surgical management and have high risk of massive postpartum haemorrhage.

758
Q

Fracture at base of 1st metacarpal bone is….?

(i.e. thumb)

+ common causes

A

Bennett’s fracture

Punching a hard object, falling off a bike

759
Q

What are the side effects of B2-adenoceptor agonists?

A

Tremor, tachycardia,

anxiety, hypokalaemia.

760
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A
  • high temperature of 38C or more
  • headache
  • blotchy rash that doesn’t fade when a glass is rolled over - septicaemia (
  • often not present)
  • stiff neck
  • photophobia, drowsiness, seizures, confusion,
  • aching muscles & joints,
  • cold hands & feet, tachypnoea
761
Q

Indications for senna; stimulant laxative

+ side effect

A

Increase mobility by stimulating the myenteric plexus.

mobility maybe damaged due to drug use.

Side effect: abdominal cramps

* don’t use for impacted feces *

762
Q

What is FNAC?

A

Fine Needle Aspiration for Cytology

  • may be used for neck lumps
763
Q

Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage headache diagnosis

A

CT scan (reliability 90% only)

If CT negative, LP > 12 hours following onset of symptoms.

LP: uniform RBC in bottles suggests SAH

Presence of bilirubin suggests bleed (and not trauma)

764
Q

What’s the relationship of SLE and renal disease?

A

Renal disease occurs in 1/3 of SLE patients,

25% of these reach end-stage CKD within 10 years.

SLE is an autoimmune disorder creating immune deposits in the glomeruli and mesangium.

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) that affects the kidneys is called lupus nephritis.

765
Q

Otitis Externa

A

Otitis externa results from a disturbance of the lipid/acid balance of the ear canal.

It is most usually infectious but may be caused by allergies, irritants or inflammatory conditions (all of which may also underlie bacterial infection).

Infection of the outer ear is usually bacterial (90%) or fungal (10%)[4]. Staphylococcus aureus and/or P. aeruginosa.

Fungal infection usually follows prolonged treatment with antibiotics, with or without steroids. About 10% of cases are fungal. 90% of fungal infections involve Aspergillus spp. and the rest are Candida spp.

Herpes zoster (Ramsay Hunt syndrome).

Infection may be localised to an infected hair follicle, causing a furuncle or localised otitis externa (S. aureus is the usual infecting organism).

766
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a disease in which blood vessels throughout the body become inflamed.

  • Coronary artery aneurysms occur as a sequela of the vasculitis in 20–25% of untreated children
767
Q

APGAR score

A

a measure of the physical condition of a newborn infant.

768
Q

What’s the difference between hemiparesis and hemiplegia?

A

Hemiparesis ; unilateral weakness

Hemiplegia; complete loss of power on one side

769
Q

What could blood clotting abnormalities and platelet consumption indicate with a septic px?

A

development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC); clotting factors and platelets are consumed by clot formation in the peripheral circulation.

770
Q

What is the GRACE score?

A

A scoring system to risk stratifiy patients with diagnosed ACS to estimate their in-hospital and 6-month to 3-year mortality

771
Q

Is it safe to discharge following an anaphylactic shock?

A

NICE guidelines state that patients who have had emergency treatment for anaphylaxis should be observed for 6–12 hours from the onset of symptoms.

Patients who have had an anaphylactic reaction are at risk of having a biphasic reaction

772
Q

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric acid)

773
Q

What are the symptoms of hypovolaemia?

A
  • pallor
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • absence of JVP at 45 degrees
  • dry mucous membranes
  • absent axillary sweat
  • decreaed skin turgor
  • oliguria
  • organ failure
774
Q

Why do you get hypoalbuminemia with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Which protein is lost in the urine due to kidney damage

775
Q

Parotid tail lump - Solid

What other solid lumps are there?

A
  • lymph node
  • tumours
  • vagal schwannoma
776
Q

What common endocrine disorder can cause fall-off growth across centiles?

A

acquired hypothyroidism

(aka Hashimoto’s autoimmune thyroiditis) - more common in girls

Dx: low T4, high TSH, + antithyroid antibodies.

Possible goitre.

777
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition

Tumors form in your pancreas or duodenum.

Gastrinomas, secrete large amounts of gastrin,

causes your stomach to produce too much acid.

The excess acid then leads to peptic ulcers, as well as to diarrhea and other symptoms.

778
Q

What must you check when giving hypovolaemic px fluids?

A

BP

signs of jugular venous pressure >>

signs of pulmonary oedema

779
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Acidosis due to an inability of the lungs to excrete CO2 adequately.

780
Q

DUKE Criteria

A

Used to establish the diagnosis of endocarditis

781
Q

What type of dementia is associated with motor neurone disease?

A

Frontotemporal dementia is associated with motor neurone disease

782
Q

Diagnosis - Cerebral Palsy

A

Clinically based:

  • abnormalities of tone
  • delays in motor development
  • abnormal movement patterns
  • persistent primitive reflexes

NB> diagnosis may be suspected in neonates, but can only be made months later.

783
Q

Seizures definition

A

episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain that cause involuntary movements, sensations, or thoughts.

784
Q

Why do you often see scratch marks with CKD?

A

Uremic pruritus

785
Q
A

Cystocele

“dropped bladder” or an anterior prolapse. Anterior wall of vagina has collapsed and bladder bulges downward into the vagina.

Causes; pregnancy, pelvic surgery, obesity, aging

Do pelvic floot (Kegel) exercises

Symptoms: stress incontinence, feeling of not emptied bladder, frequent bladder infections possible

786
Q

What is CIN?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (cervical dysplasia).

The abnormal growth of cells on the surface of the cervix that could potentially lead to cervical cancer.

CIN refers to the potentially premalignant transformation of cells of the cervix.

787
Q

Possible antibiotics for meningitis

A

Cefolaxime

Benzylpenicillin

Chloramphenicol

788
Q

Uterine Fibroids

Risk factors, presentation, management

A

50% asymptomatic, 30% menorrhagia

Oestrogen and progesterone dependent growth

Risk factors; increasing age, increase BMI, Afro Caribbean

Investigations; bimanual examination, ultrasound scan

Medical tx: tranexamic/ mefenamic acid

otherwise surgery.

789
Q

What is the dominant cause of B12 deficiency in Western countries?

A

PA - pernicious anaemia

790
Q

What drug can be used for emergency treatment of acute-angle closure glaucoma

A

pilocarpine

NB. causes miosis

791
Q

COPD - what’s the first line bronchodilator therapy?

A

a SABA or a SAMA (short-acting muscarinic antagonist)

THEN if NO ASTHMATIC FEATURES:

add LABA + LABA

if asthmatic features then LABA +ICS

792
Q

Dermatome to knee

A
793
Q

When to refer to a specialist? Re GFR

A

if GFR <30ml/min/1.73 m2

Sustained decrease of GFR of 25% or more

794
Q

What are typical signs and symptoms of acute leukaemia?

A
  1. Bone marrow failure symptoms; anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia. Therefore; SOB, fatigue, bacterial infections, bleeding, bruises. Possibly DIC.
  2. Systemic; malaise, weight loss, sweats are common
795
Q

management of corneal abrasion

A

remove FB with damp cotton bud/ bevel of needle (with slit lamp)

antibiotic ointment

review 2-3 if not improving.

796
Q

Scabies

A
797
Q
A

Anterior compression/ Open book

Look at SI joint and pubic symphysis

798
Q

What are coup and contrecoup injuries?

A

head injuries associated with cerebral contusion due to rapid acceleration/ deceleration.

brain collides with inside of skull; diffuse axonal injury, focal neurological symptoms, damage to b. vessels.

Contrecoup can occur in shaken baby syndrome.

799
Q

C. diff - antibiotic

A

metronidazole

or vancomycin (glycopeptide) . Nephrotoxic

800
Q

Tender points for knee - ottawa

other factors

> 55 yrs

can’t weight bear

can’t flex 90 o

A
801
Q

What are some important adverse effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

The three H’s

hypokalaemia

hypocalcaemia

hyponatraemia

GOUT

impaired glucose tolerance

802
Q

Common cause of poor weight gain:

A

Malabsorption (diarrhoea and colic often present)

  • Coeliac disease
  • cystic fibrosis
803
Q

What is this?

A

bulbous pemphigoid

804
Q

Pancreatitis

A

stones in the common bile duct or the ampulla of Vater causing obstruction and cholangitis and pancreatitis.

805
Q

What the the two groups of antidiabetic drugs?

A

hypoglycaemic agents

antihyperglycaemic agents

806
Q

Why do you get metabolic acidosis with CKD? And what’s the treatment?

A

Due to increasing inability of distal convoluted tubule to excrete hydrogen ions

Tx: Oral Sodium Bicarbonate

807
Q

What is the biggest modifiable risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A

Obesity - well documented.

Fat cells - oestrogen levels

808
Q

How does a ruptured ovarian cyst present?

A

a sharp unilateral pain immediately following intercourse or strenuous exercise.

(other DDs; ovarian, or adnexal torsion - this is tender on bimanual exam)

809
Q

What is a Salter-Harris Fracture?

A

A fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate.

810
Q

What are the EM physiological side effects of NO insulin causing hypoglycaemia? (3)

A

>>> sugar in blood, none in cells.

Breakdown of fats and proteins; ketones and acidosis

leads to dehydration, Potassium loss and acidosis.

Dehydration because water follows excretion of sugar (osmotic diuresis)

811
Q
A

usually bilateral.

Refer to orthopaedics ; other injuries likely.

812
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer?

Name two important risk factors

A

adenocarcinoma

History of GORD or Barrett’s

Dysphagia ; most common presenting symptom

813
Q

Investigations for acute leukaemia

A

FBC; anaemia and thrombocytopenia, << WBCs (or normal , or raised). If raised then cells are mainly primitive white cells (blasts).

Coagulation profile; prolonged clotting times

Blood cultures; infection risk

CXR; mediastinal mass on ALL of T-cell lineage.

+ others

GOLD standards to differentiate ALL from AML; bone marrow aspirations, trephine biopsy.

814
Q

What’s the medical management of epilepsy with children?

A
  • monotherapy of most effective medication.
  • Second drug added if tx ineffective, and first drug is gradually discontinued.
  • drugs should be given no longer than one half-life, and peak level should be timed to coincide with seizures.

common drugs: sodium valproate, carbamazepine

Absence seizures: ethosuximide

815
Q

Can you get anaemia with SLE?

A

Yes; autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

816
Q
A

Breast tissue begins to form in the fourth week of fetal life. In the fetus, breast tissue develops along two “milk lines” that start at the armpit and extend to the groin.

817
Q

what is the Truelove and Witts’ severity index?

A

assesses the severity of ulcerative colitis in adults

(if needing hospital admisstion)

818
Q

What’s this?

A

Cervicitis can be caused by any of a number of infections, of which the most common are chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia accounting for approximately 40% of cases.

Can be mucopurulent with exudate.

819
Q

managment for sprains

A

Ice 20 mins every two hours. elevate << swelling.

Increase in pain 48 hours after injury. Takes 6-8 weeks to heal.

820
Q

How does cervical cancer present?

A

Often symptomatic

Non-menstrual bleeding - typical presentation.

Later: post coital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, post menopausal bleeding, offensive blood stained discharge.

821
Q

drainage of aqueous humour

A

Formed in the anterior portion of the ciliary process in the posterior chamber of the eye.

Drains into the scleral venous sinus (Schlemm’s canal)

Blockage = glaucoma

822
Q

What is Toxic shock syndrome? (TSS)

A

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a multisystem inflammatory response to the presence of bacterial exotoxins.

Associated with tampon use in menstruating women and Group A streptococcal infections - the streptococcal toxic shock-like syndrome (STSS).

823
Q

What is an important side effect of nitrofurantoin?

A

haemolytic anaemia

824
Q

Children and type I diabetes;

any specific symptoms?

A

usual symptoms + secondary enuresis (bedwetting)

825
Q
A

Dacryoadenitis

  • Swelling of the outer portion of the upper lid, with possible redness and tenderness
  • Pain in the area of swelling
  • Excess tearing or discharge
  • Swelling of lymph nodes in front of the ear

Common causes include mumps, Epstein-Barr virus, staphylococcus, and gonococcus.

826
Q

What are some of the DISadvantages of breast screening?

(done 3 yearly, from 50-70 years age)

A
  • false positives; unnecessary further examinations, and unnecessary anxiety.
  • over-diagnosis; some breast cancers would not be life-threatening.
  • Missed cancers
  • pain & discomfort of the procedure
  • >> radiation exposure
  • << follow up mammograms if women has anxiety of false positive.
827
Q

symptoms of cardiogenic shock

A
  • chest pain, palpitations, history of IHD, AF
  • Cold sweaty peripherae; weak pulse, JVP raised, tachycardia
  • pulmonary oedema
828
Q

Sudden onset headache could be:

A

meningitis

subarachnoid haemorrhage

migraine

829
Q

Which inhaled steroids can be given for asthma?

A

Beclometasone

Budesonide

Fluticasone (more potent, and given at half dose compared to the above)

NB. Budesonide is a dry powder inhaler.

830
Q

What is the GRACE score?

A

A scoring system to risk stratifiy patients with diagnosed ACS to estimate their in-hospital and 6-month to 3-year mortality

831
Q

What is the treatment of acute asthma?

A
  • Oxygen (maintain 94-98%). Nebulisers should be driven by oxygen
  • Bronchodilator (Beta 2 agonists) by nebuliser every 15 mins, back to back if needed.
  • Steroids oral or IV and continue for 5 days
  • Consultants; ipratropium bromide neb 0.5mg (4-6 hrly), magnesium, aminophylline

NB> Salbutamol can be given IV if airway compromised.

832
Q

Why is prophylactic anticoagulation desirable with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Due to loss of clotting factors (eg. antithrombin) in the urine and an increase in hepatic production of fibrinogen.

Avoid bed rest. Thromboembolism is very common in nephrotic syndrome.

833
Q

What is the most common (but still rare) inborn error of metabolism that is routinely screened for in all neonates?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

  • newborn blood spot screening

People with PKU can’t break down the amino acid phenylalanine, which then builds up in the blood and brain. This can lead to brain damage.

834
Q
A
  • Heart beats at 4-5 weeks gestation
  • After birth, change in PaO2 causes constriction of umbilical vessels, ductus arteriosus, foramen ovale, ductus venosus
    *
835
Q

Why is there a delay between Streptococcal infection (maybe throat) and onset of nephritic disorders?

And what’s the outcome? Lifestyle advice?

A

it takes time for immune complex formation & deposition,

and for glomerular injury to occur.

Usually spontaneously resolves.

Strongly limit Sodium and Potassium.

Restrict protein

Loop diuretics usually very useful.

836
Q

Dangers of Tricyclic antidepressants

A

Cardiac arrhythmias ; often fatal in overdose

Seizures

837
Q

UTI - antibiotic

A

nitrofurantoin

trimethoprim

838
Q

What’s this?

A

Cervical ectropion (ectrophy)

(or cervical eversion)

Internal columnar cells present on the ectocervix.

These cells are more fragile causing vaginal discharge or bleeding, especially when having sex.

It is related to oestrogen. More common in young women, pregnant women and those taking combined oral contraceptive pills.

Ectropion treatment : Silver nitrate to cauterise the friable cells

This treatment is under local anaesthetic

It is not associated with cervical cancer.

839
Q

What is the most common serious lower respiratory tract infection in < 1yr old babies?

A

bronchiolitis

symptoms:

coryzal precede

dry cough, > breathlessness,

wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)

840
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

recurrent episodes of tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness or normal muscle movement between episodes.

841
Q

Syntometrine; role in labour?

A

Oxytocin/ergometrine (trade name Syntometrine) is an obstetric combination drug. oxytocin (produced by hypothalamus) and ergometrine (an alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic and serotonin (5-HT2) receptor agonist.)

Both substances cause the uterus to contract.

Given just after the birth of the child to facilitate delivery of the placenta and to prevent postpartum hemorrhage[ by causing smooth muscle tissue in the blood vessel walls to narrow.

842
Q
A
843
Q

What is this?

A

SCC

844
Q

What is this?

A

Rosacea

845
Q

After HCC, which is the second most common cancer of the liver?

A

secondary metastatic tumours.

Particularly from:

GI tract (via portal blood supply)

Breast

Bronchus

846
Q

What are some symptoms of hypodelirium?

A

Symptoms include being withdrawn, lethargic, and slow to respond.

847
Q
A

Acute-angle closure glaucoma

acutely painful red eye.

Px usually > 60, other symptoms; headache, nausea, blurred vision and haloes around lights.

848
Q

What is adenomyosis?

How does it present?

(risk group 40-50s)

endometriosis is a common co-morbidity.

A

endometrial tissue within the myometrium.

Symptoms vary from asymptomatic (33%) to severe pain.

  • chronic pelvic pain (77%)
  • heavy menstrual bleeding (40-60%)
  • uterine enlargement (30%)
  • abnormal uterine bleeding, painful cramping menstruation, dyspareunia (7%)

Responsive to hormones, thus can improve post-menopausal, otherwise surgery.

849
Q

Name the two meglitinides drugs that are short-acting and are useful for patients whose meal schedules vary.

A

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

850
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty swallowing

possible causes; pharyngitis, oesophageal disease

851
Q

What is Ergometrine used for in pregnancy?

(Acts on adrenergic, dopaminergic and 5-HT2 receptors)

A

Increases contraction of uterine smooth muscle

Postpartum to reduce bleeding

Risks: >> peripherial vascular resistance

(use Carboprost if Ergometrine ineffective)

852
Q

What are catecholamines?

A

Monoamines, derived from the amino acid tyrosine, which is derived from dietary sources as well as synthesis from phenylalanine.

Catecholamines are water-soluble and are 50%-bound to plasma proteins in circulation.

Examples; epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine

853
Q
A

Acromegaly

Excess GH.

In more than 95% of cases the excess production is due to a benign tumor, known as a pituitary adenoma.

854
Q

what is used for benzodiazapine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

855
Q
A

Exostoses

broad based and bilateral.

wax can collect behind.

cold water swimmers; inflammatory response to extremes of temperature.

856
Q

Recurrent abdo pain, could be a parasite. Which is most common?

A

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis)

flagellated parasite that colonizes and reproduces in the small intestine, causing giardiasis

857
Q

What factors cause cause a hypoglycaemic attack?

A

Too high a dose of medication (insulin or hypo causing tablets)

Delayed meals

Exercise

Alcohol

858
Q

what are the type main types of generalized seizures?

A

(a) tonic-clonic (grand mal)

(b) absence (petit mal)

859
Q

What is a big danger of px with long-standing diabetes and neuropathy?

A

MI or abdominal conditions such as infection or pancreatitis may be painless. Maybe osteomyelitis in the feet..

860
Q

EM tx of hypoglycaemia

A

50ml of glucose 50% if IV access available.

otherwise 1 mg glucagon

(as PAs 10% glucose IV okay)

non-emergency; dextrose, then more complex carbohydrates.

861
Q

What happens to platelets during pregnancy?

A

These fall progressively throughout gestation

gestational thrombocytopenia

5-10% of pregnant women have platelet count of 100-150 x109/L by term

862
Q

What are some possible causes of cervical stenosis?

A

Surgical procedures performed on the cervix such as colposcopy, cone biopsy, or a cryosurgery procedure

Trauma to the cervix

Repeated vaginal infections

Atrophy of the cervix after menopause

Cervical cancer, Radiation

Cervical nabothian cysts

863
Q

What is pretibial myxoedema associated with (in 1-5% of cases)

A

Graves’ dermopathies.

864
Q

When is Percutaneous Nephrostomy indicated?

A

In all cases of upper urinary tract obstruction causing hydronephrosis.

(need to depressurize the system before stone removal)

Ix: USS- identifies presence of hydronephrosis and can assess the kidneys, CT scan for stones - renal colic.

865
Q

Does inflammation in the bronchioles during asthma result in increase in mucus production?

A

YES - hypersecretion of mucus from bronchial epithelium..

866
Q

If a clear, fluid-filled blister is <5mm in diameter is it a bulla or vesicle?

A

vesicle

867
Q

What are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms?

A

Aneurysms in the small penetrating blood vessels of the brain.

They are associated with hypertension.

The common artery involved is the lenticulostriate branch of the middle cerebral artery.

868
Q

How does achalasia present?

A

inability to swallow liquids and solids from the outset.

869
Q

generalized seizure

A

BOTH cerebral hemispheres.

LOSS of CONSCIOUSNESS

870
Q

What anti-emetic meds could be used for acute attack of migraine?

A

metoclopramide

or

cyclizine

871
Q

What are the symptoms of pre-syncope?

(hypoperfusion)

  • a state of lightheadedness (often a symptom of orthostatic hypotension)
A
  • light headedness
  • tunnel vision, or blury vision
  • nausea/ vomiting
  • headache/ sweating/ palpitations
  • clammy, pale complexion
    *
872
Q

What is the term used to decribe an idiopathic acute lower motor neurone VII nerve paralysis?

A

Bell’s palsy

873
Q

If self help tips don’t help a child with nocturnal enuresis, what’s the next step?

A

enuresis alarm for children under 7 years

desmopressin for children over age 7.

874
Q

What are marked histological changes with diabetic renal disease?

A

glomerular basement membrane thickening

mesangial expansion

progressive depletion of podocytes

later … glomerulosclerosis

IMP> renal injury in diabetes is clinically silent.

875
Q
A

Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

876
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

Placenta praevia exists when the placenta is inserted wholly or in part into the lower segment of the uterus.

ultrasound diagnosis (transvaginal)

  • Major, if the placenta covers the internal os of the cervix.
  • Minor or partial, if the leading edge is in the lower segment but not covering the os.
877
Q

Eclampsia

A

Eclampsia is when seizures occur;

usually preceded by hypertension, proteinuria, or the symptoms listed previously (pre-eclampsia symptoms)

878
Q

Which type of cells does HIV virus infect?

A

CD4-bearing T lymphocytes and monocytes/ macrophages

879
Q

What is the signifance of a lack of consensual pupillary response?

A
  • problem with motor connection
  • could be; oculomotor nerve or Edinger-Westphal nucleus
880
Q

The causes of PPH have been described as the “four T’s”

What’s the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhaging?

A

Uterine atony

followed by retained placenta

  • Tone: uterine atony, distended bladder.
  • Trauma: lacerations of the uterus, cervix, or vagina.
  • Tissue: retained placenta or clots.
  • Thrombin: pre-existing or acquired coagulopathy.
881
Q

Mesenteric adenitis

A

Inflammation of intra-abdominal lymph nodes following an upper respiratory tract infection or gastroenteritis.

Enlarged nodes can cause pain which can mimic appendicitis, but there is no peritonism or guarding.

Maybe evidence of throat/ chest infection.

882
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary bedwetting?

NB. 15% of 5-year olds wet the bed. There is rarely an organic cause.

A

Secondary bedwetting refers to wetting in a child who had previously been dry; often psychological stress underpining.

883
Q

What does the reticuloendothelial system consist of?

A
  • Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, mesangial cells, microglial, macrophages
  • macrophages in ; bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, skin
884
Q

Typical antipsychotics cause more extrapyrimidal problems.

What are the main problems associted with Atypical antipsychotics?

A

metabolic

Increased insulin resistance.

885
Q

What level of Hb is anaemia?

A

Hb < 11 g/dL

886
Q

hypocalaemia affects the muscle and nerve cells; what are the symptoms?

A

paraesthesia (usually fingers, toes and around mouth), tetany

carpopedal spasm (rem Trousseau’s sign ), muscle cramps

seizures

prolonged QT interval

laryngospasm, bronchospasm

887
Q

What’s the story; STi and pregnancy?

Syphilis, Genital Herpes, HIV?

A
  • Syphilis; cannot be transmitted to fetus until 18th week, early tx prevents harm. Can can miscarriage.
  • Genital herpes; Can cross placenta, most infections during birth (C.S. prevents infection)
  • AIDS; ZDV reduces transmission by 70%, passed through placenta, whilst giving birth, or whilst breast-feeding.
888
Q

what’s the most common malignant skin tumour?

A

BCCs

Multiple BCCs in Gorlin’s syndrome

10-20 times more common in immunosuppressed patients

889
Q

Presents as sore throat and fever

A

Pharyngitis - inflammation of back of the throat

Mostly viral.

Strep throat is cause in 25% of children and 10% of adults.

: tonsillar fauces and palate are inflammed, cervical lymph nodes enlarged, tympanic membrane inflammed.

Tx: paracetamol, no antibiotics for viral.

890
Q

Do you need to investigate pruritus in pregnancy?

A

Liver function tests should be checked, particularly if it is mainly the palms and soles that are affected and/or it occurs in the third trimester.

These symptoms make obstetric cholestasis more likely.

891
Q

What type of cancer is endometrial, and who gets it?

A

adenocarcinoma (oestrogen-dependent)

(remember that cervical cancer is squamous cell carcinoma)

90% of cases are women over 50.

Risk factor: prolonged exposure to unopposed oestrogen.

892
Q

What lab investigations could be performed for acute asthma attack?

A
  • Sats - maintain between 94-98%
  • ABG if SpO2 <92%
  • CXR is NOT routinely recommended unless; suspected infection, pneumothorax, life-threatening asthma, failure to respond to tx.
893
Q

Type II Diabetes, children. What’s the story?

A

WAS RARE in children.

On the increase with << exercise and increase in carb intake.

894
Q

Apart from conserving water via >> reabsorption, what else does ADH do?

A

<< sweat in glands

>> arteriole constriction, therefore BP rises

895
Q

What are pseudohallucinations?

A

The key difference between pseudohallucinations and true hallucinations is that patients with pseudohallucinations understand that what they are seeing isn’t real. Pseudohallucinations can be a frightening and confusing part of the grief reaction, but are considered non-pathological.

896
Q

How do you treat nephrotic syndrome?

A

Restrict sodium and use a thiazide diuretic.

(May have to be parenteral administration because of gut mucosal oedema)

Normal protein diet

897
Q

aminoglycerides

A

injection only

narrow therapeutic index

Renal excretion + nephrotoxic

ototoxicity (VIIIth cranial nerve)

898
Q

What’s the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic asthma?

A

Intrinsic; childhood and adolescent onset, atopic and and driven by allergen exposure.

Extrinsic; late-onset with adults,often following viral URTI.

899
Q

What does LH do?

A
  • Rise in LH releases the ovum
  • stimulates the formation of the luteal body
900
Q

Acute otitis media

pic: bulging tympanic membrane

A

organisms: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and viruses

Common with Eustachian tube dysfunction

Symptoms: fever, deafness, pain in ear. Otoscope examination.

Tx: paracetamol

Complications: mastoiditis, conductive deafness, secretory otitis media (glue ear).

901
Q

What are the adverse effects of supraphysiologic doses of glucocorticoids?

A

“moon face” ; fat moves from the extremities to the face and trunk.

buffalo bump”; fat accumulation

Hirsutism, weight gain, muscle wasting, weakness.

Dermatological: acne (steroid acne, bruising, skin thinning)

Hyperglycaemia

Hypertension; sodium retention, potassium loss

Osteoporosis (> bone catabolism, and influences Vit D)

euphoria/ psychosis

exacerabates peptic ulcers (stimulates gastric acid and pepin production - high doses)

children; growth retardation

Reduces TSH and FSH by pituitary gland

902
Q

What is the cause of most normocytic anaemias?

A

ACD

most haemolytic anaemias

903
Q

Headache; red flags

A
  • new onset or changes in headache in px over 50 years old
  • thunderclap
  • focal neurological symptoms
  • abnormal neurological examination
  • headache that changes with posture
  • wakes up px during night
  • worse for valsalva manoeuvre
  • thrombosis risks
  • jaw claudication
  • neck stiffness with fever
  • new onset with cancer/ HIV px
904
Q

Tonsillitis DDs

A

viral/ bacterial tonsillitis

hypertrophied but non-inflammed tonsils (common in preschool children)

infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

905
Q

Confused patient; why would you consider a CT scan?

A
  • evidence of focal neurological deficit
  • significant head injury
  • no alternative explanation for the confusion
  • deterioration in conscious levels
906
Q

What’s a common symptom of a fractured orbit?

A

Diplopia

due to obstruction of rectus muscles, or suspensory ligament is not fixed.

907
Q

Loss of proteins in the urine. The liver tries to compensate by….

A

producing more albumin

It also produces more cholesterol (hypercholesterolemia)

908
Q

What is a big danger of px with long-standing diabetes and neuropathy?

A

MI or abdominal conditions such as infection or pancreatitis may be painless. Maybe osteomyelitis in the feet..

909
Q

What is pulmonary consolidation?

Possible causes?

A

Alveolar space that contains liquid (could be oedema, blood, pus)

Pulmonary oedema

inflammation

pneumonia

pulmonary haemorrhaging

910
Q

Concerns about growth when:

A
  • weight below second centile
  • height is below second centile
  • OR when height or weight crosses down two centiles.
911
Q

How does CRAO present?

A

Sudden (over a few seconds), unilateral painless visual loss.

94% of cases, vision is usually reduced to counting fingers.

10% have history of amaurosis fugax

1-2% of patients, the loss is bilateral.

912
Q

Future pregnosis of PPCM?

A

Left ventricular function does not recover in all affected women.

Further pregnancies can cause a recurrence of the cardiomyopathy, which can lead to significant left ventricular impairment, particularly if left ventricular function did not return to normal after the first affected pregnancy.

913
Q

Myoclonic seizures

A

brief, shock-like jerks of a muscle or a group of muscles.

can be quite normal (eg. when falling asleep)

914
Q

Stages of cervical cancer (4)

FIGO staging of Cervical carcinomas

A
  • Stage I ; strictly confined to the cervix.
  • Stage II ; extends beyond the cervix, but does not extend into the pelvic wall. The carcinoma involves the vagina, (but not lower 1/3)
  • Stage III ; extended into the pelvic sidewall. On rectal examination, there is no cancer-free space between the tumour and the pelvic sidewall. The tumour involves the lower third of the vagina.
  • Stage IV ; extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved the mucosa of the bladder and/or rectum.
915
Q

When to use Equinus cast

A

Ruptured achilles tendon

916
Q

Salbutamol and Terbutaline are examples of?

A

short-acting B2-agonists, and have a biological half-life of 2-3 hours.

917
Q
A

Polyneuropathy ; affects peripheral nerves

same areas on both sides of the body; featuring weakness, numbness, and burning pain.

It usually begins in the hands and feet and may progress to the arms and legs; May be caused by diabetes and Guillain–Barré syndrome.

918
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia? (VT)

A

Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is broad-complex tachycardia originating from a ventricular ectopic focus.

It has the potential to precipitate ventricular fibrillation and hence r_equires urgent treatment_.

919
Q

Dermatome to Toes 4 and 5; lateral malleolus

A
920
Q

How does pregnancy affect the thyroid gland?

A

50% more thyroid hormone is required to maintain circulating levels of free T4.

Maternal iodine requirements increase due to increased renal clearance.

Usual TFT tests in early pregnancy may suggest hyperthroidism. This is because HCG is structurally similar to TSH, thus early pregnancy causes >> T4 production and TSH suppression.

921
Q

What conditions can cause upper motor neurone symptoms?

A
  • stroke
  • MS
  • traumatic brain injury
  • cerebral palsy
922
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for developing breast cancer?

A

The risk of breast cancer increases with the number of affected relatives, and increases as the age of those affected decreases.

Only a minority of this increase in risk is due to the presence of gene mutations such as BRCA1, BRCA2 or TP53.

The presence of malignancies such as ovarian, prostate, pancreatic cancer, or male breast cancer in a family in addition to female breast cancer increases the likelihood of having a BRCA1/2 mutation.​

Views are conflicting on; protective effects of CHC against ovarian cancer outweighing the increased risk of breast cancer.

The progestogen-only pill is the safest option.

923
Q

What is the ROME III criteria?

A

Criteria for diagnosing IBS

Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort at least 3 days/month in the last 3 months associated with two or more of the following:

  • Improvement with defecation
  • Onset associated with a change in frequency of stool
  • Onset associated with a change in appearance of stool.
924
Q

tx drug for hypocalcaemia?

A

calcium gluconate 10% by slow IV.

Repeat as necessary or follow with infusion of calcium gluconate 10% infusion - 40 ml (9 mmol)/24 hours.

925
Q
A

Sometimes it can cause a sensation of needing to empty the bowels during intercourse.

They may need to put a finger into the vagina to help the bowels to empty

Common (10% of women)

926
Q

What’s the first line tx of a clinically suspected TIA?2

A

immediately 300mg aspirin - loading dose

immediate referal. UNLESS; patient has bleeding disorder or taking anticoagulant.

ABCD2 ; no longer recommended by NICE, performs poorly.

927
Q

What’s the first line tx of new onset psychosis?

A

Atypical anti psychotics (second gen)

928
Q

New back ache ? Any red flag?

A

could be cervical cancer

or prostate cancer in men

929
Q

RhA nodules characteristics

A

Made from fibroblasts.

Pinky colour.

Blood supply on the outside only; can become necrotic.

Locations; extensor surfaces of elbows, forearms and hands

930
Q

allergic conjunctivitis

A

bilateral, often related to hay-fever.

Chemosis (oedema of the conjunctiva) is a classic sign.

tx. antihistamines

931
Q

Presentation of placenta praevia.

A

Painless bleeding (pain with 10% of cases) starting after the 28th week (although spotting may occur earlier) is usually the main sign:

25% risk of spontaneous labour in subsequent few days.

Suspect if: vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks of gestation, bleeding provoked by sexual intercourse.

Migration of the placenta can occur in 2nd and 3ed trimesters.

932
Q

What’s the 1st line tx for one secondary pneumothorax?

A

1-2cm ; aspirate

>2cm; chest drain

933
Q

How does heparin work?

A

Heparins generally act by activating antithrombin III

934
Q

what is a cardinal feature of bronchitis?

A

a productive cough.

(usually self resolving and viral)

  • an infection of the main airways (bronchi)

Chronic bronchitis features in COPD

935
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A

confusion, sweating, fatigue and feeling dizzy.

maybe pale, weak, blurred vision, tachycardia, unconsciousness

936
Q
A

Addison’s disease

autoimmunal destruction of adrenal tissue.

Can present as an ‘adrenal crisis’

Largest cause of adrenal insufficiency in the west.

937
Q

Name some cystic lumps

A
  • Branchial cyst
  • Cystic degeneration of tumour
  • Larynogocoele
938
Q

Some cardinal symptoms of asthma (7)

A
  • Cough

Expiratory Wheeze

Breathlessness

Chest tightness

Nocturnal cough (especially children)

Exercise induced wheeze

Diurnal variation (worse at night and early morning)

939
Q

Diagnositic symptoms of DKA?

A

polydipsia

weight loss

dehydration

+ Kussmaul breathing

940
Q

Risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

unopposed oestrogen

therefore:

nulliparous women, anovulatory cycles.

Obesity (very important - 50% of endometrial cancers related to >> weight).

tamoxifen.

REDUCED with COC pill.

941
Q

Romberg’s sign

A

Can’t stand steadily with eyes closed.

942
Q
A

dentritic ulcer - not common

presents as red eye with FB sensation.

seen with fluoroscein , caused by herpes-simplex virus

943
Q

RhA on XR - characteristics

A

White sclerotic changes - spongy bone looks whiter.

Subluxation of MCP

Wrist/ hand displacement

Thumb - Z deformity

944
Q

Another name for Broca’s aphasia?

A

Expressive aphasia

945
Q

Are px with carotid artery stenosis at risk of embolic stroke?

+ exclusions?

A

Yes, especially if stenosis 70-99% (very high risk). Also: is px well enough to receive tx?

Carotid stenosis diagnosis; doppler

Exclusions?

haemorrhagic strokes - TACI or POCI

946
Q

If asthma diagnosis is uncertain, what further test could you do?

A

NICE now recommend the FeNO (Fractional Exhaled Nitrous Oxide)

The FeNO test uses exhaled levels of nitric oxide to assess for inflammation in the lungs - it will therefore be elevated in cases of asthma.

947
Q

D

A
948
Q

What’s the management of an acute flare-up of diverticulitis?

A

oral antibiotics at home.

No improvement within 72 hours; IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole is indicated

949
Q
A

Rinne test

950
Q

Dermatome to Upper inner arm

A
951
Q

What is Gestational Trophoblastic Disease?

A

Def: A spectrum of histologially distinct diseases originating from the placenta.

a group of disorders which range from molar pregnancies to malignant conditions such as choriocarcinoma.

If there is any evidence of persistence of GTD the condition is referred to as gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).

Levels of hCG can be of diagnostic value, and ultrasound.

referral for follow-up to a trophoblastic screening centre

952
Q

Why do you get >> urea in upper GI bleeds, compared to lower GI bleeds?

A

In upper GI bleeding, an increased urea level occurs due to the breakdown of red blood cells in the stomach

953
Q
A
954
Q

How effective is prophylaxic treatment of AF with warfarin in preventing strokes?

A

yearly risk of cerebral embolism reduced from 3% to 1%.

955
Q

Symptoms of Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

Tend to be gradually worsening and worse with position (bending over) or Valsalva manoeuvres.

Papilloedema and visual changes can also occur.

Management options in pregnancy include:

Regular lumbar puncture

Acetazolamide

956
Q

Pre-eclampsia- inadequate placentation; what’s the worry?

A

Fetal growth restriction and/or intrauterine death can result from pre-eclampsia.

Placental abruption is also more common.

957
Q

Referred pain (diagram)

A
958
Q

What is Traztusamab (Herceptin) used to treat?

(monoclona antibody therapy)

A

HER2 positive breast cancer

959
Q

Lorazepam

A

IV only. Indicated for status epilepticus.

960
Q

What is a secondary pneumothorax?

A

one that presents with a background history of lung disease that could predispose the patient to developing pneumothoraces, such as COPD.

961
Q

Symptoms of uraemia?

A

Dermatological – itching, skin pigmentation

Gastrointestinal – nausea, anorexia (ondansetron,
metoclopramide)

Neurological – peripheral neuropathy, restless
legs
(clonazepam, pramipexole, gabapentin),

cramps (quinine).

(antihistamines, emollients, Eurax, ondansetron, etc)

962
Q
A
963
Q

what usually prevents protein loss in the urine?

A

podocytes

fenestrated membrane

964
Q

What is an unusual protective factor for endometrial cancer in postmenopausal women?

A

smoking

965
Q

Testing the median nerve

NB. Thumb opposition; C8, T1 nerve roots

A
  • test; altered sensation over thumb, index, middle fingers
  • any thenar eminence wasting?
  • hand palm up on flat surface. Px moves thumb vertically against resistance (abductor pollicis brevis)
  • opponens pollicis; try and pull thumb and ring finger apart
966
Q

What side effects are common with Atypical antipsychotics?

eg. clozapine, risperidone, quetiapine, olanzapine

A

Weight gain (esp. olanzapine and clozapine)

impaired glucose control

dyslipidaemia

967
Q

menstrual cycle

A

Cigarette smoking was found to be significantly associated with a reduced risk of endometrial cancer, especially among postmenopausal women.

968
Q

What pneumonia can gentamicin treat?

A

Life-threatening Gram -ve infections, eg. pseudomonas aeruginosa

969
Q

Wells score

A

Risk calculator for patients AT RISK of developing DVT

970
Q

notes needed for the nationals

A
971
Q
A

an injury to the spine in which the vertebral body is severely compressed.

  • severe trauma, such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall from a height.
972
Q

Otitis media bugs

A

haemophilus influenzae

streptococcus pneumoniae

moraxella catarrhalis

973
Q

MOA: what do typical and atypical antipsychotics have in common?

A

ALL antipsychotics reduce transmission of dopamine.

MOST are antagonists.

974
Q

What is the TIMI score?

A

Estimates mortality for patients with unstable angina and non-ST elevation MI.

975
Q

How do thiazide diuretics work?

A

Inhibit Na reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule (DCT).

Have a roe in the tx of mild heart failure, although loops are better for reducing overload.

Examples: bendroflumethiazide and indapamide

976
Q

where is cervical cancer likely to start?

(squamous cell carcinoma)

A

In the transformation zone.

977
Q

When is urgent CT scan required for epilepsy?

A
  • recent head injury
  • focal neurological deficit on examination
  • prior neurological symptoms
  • suspicion of meningitis
  • status epilepticus or or prolonged unconsciousness
978
Q

What are the clinical features of a PE?

A
  • sudden and unexplained dyspnoea. This maybe the only symptom, especially in the elderly.
  • IMP> pleuritic chest pain and haemoptyosis are present only when infarction has occured. PE can be silent!
979
Q

Periorbital puffiness and difficulty in putting on rings is a sign of what?

A

nephrotic syndrome

980
Q

Aspirin, stroke, no CT scan results. What’s the story?

A

No evidence that starting aspirin before CT findings are known adversely affects prognosis.

981
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage defined

(incidence 5% of all deliveries)

A

a 10% drop in hemacrit from admission, or bleeding requiring blood transfusion

old definition: an estimated blood loss of > 500ml

NB> the AVERAGE blood losee after vaginal delivery is 500ml. Blood loss after c.s. averages 1000ml.

982
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for suspected urolithiasis?

A

CT KUB

Non-contrast computerised tomography of the kidneys, ureters and bladder.

983
Q

What do splinter haemorrhages indicate?

A

infective endocarditis

984
Q

What can cause mydriasis?

A

anticholinergic drugs

MDMA

cocaine

amphetamines

some hallucinogens

985
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of peritonitis?

A

severe abdominal pain, tenderness and guarding.

(rigidity - invol contraction of abdo muscles)

Worse for movement as the inflammed peritoneum moves.

REBOUND pain (Blumberg sign) as the peritoneum snaps back into place after palpation.

fever, weight loss

986
Q

Beta blockers and asthma?

A

Don’t do it!

(bronchospasm potential)

987
Q

mild dyskaryosis and negative HPV, what’s the management?

A

return to 3 yearsly smear testing.

CIN 1 often returns to normal

988
Q

Types of brain hernia

A
989
Q

short stature versus fall-off growth

A

Fall-off growth is the concern because is suggests a pathological cause.

Are the parents short?

990
Q

What’s this?

A

Acetic acid added during colposcopy; turns areas of dysplasia white.

991
Q

Name some triggers of asthma (8)

A
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflex esp at night
  • viral infections
  • cold
  • exercise
  • pollen
  • certain chemicals
  • animal dander
  • house mite dust
992
Q

PCOS - Rotterdam criteria

(also remember that insulin resistance is a pathophysiological feaure of PCOS, and along with this can come obesity and diabetes)

NB acanthosis nigricans is thought to be a sign of insulin resistance.

A

Requires 2/3 of the following:

Oligo/ anovulation

hyperandrogenism (hirsutism/ male pattern balding, upper lip, chin, around the nipples and in a line beneath the umbilicus)

polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

993
Q

Seizures definition

A

episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain that cause involuntary movements, sensations, or thoughts.

994
Q

Tx for DKA

(Sickness and vomiting, abdominal pain, muscular weakness)

A

500ml then another 500ml then another 500ml (saline). MUST ensure patient is rehydrated before giving insulin. 0.1units per kilo per hour.

As sugar moves into cells (insulin taking effect) potassium follows therefore px becomes hypokalaemic. Normal potassium 3.5 to 5.

Watch urine output to check hydration.

Red flag; peds until 22-23 yr old. Can die from cerebral oedema; therefore don’t give insulin until properly hydrated.

995
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

Impaired water resorption by the kidneys due to lack of ADH secretion by the posterior pituituary

or reduced sensitivity of the kidneys to the action of ADH.

996
Q

what is the screening test for alcohol consumption?

A

AUDIT

997
Q

THREE pathogenetic process in asthma. Name them.

A
  1. bronchoconstriction
  2. swelling (and therefore narrowing of lumen) of epithelium
  3. hypersecretion of mucus (therefore << lumen)
998
Q

Signs/ symptoms fractured mandible

A

pain/ restricted movement

missing teeth, numbness, teeth not meeting properly

Sublingual haematoma; often indicative of fractures.

999
Q
A
1000
Q
A

otomycosis

1001
Q

Refer or don’t refer?

Vaginal bleeding post menpausal

A

RED FLAG

1002
Q

Ticarcillin and be combined with clavulanate to treat……

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

(ticarcillin is an antipseudomonal penicillin)

1003
Q

Severe acute asthma attack.

any one of…

PFR?

Resp Rate?

HR?

general observation…

A

Any one of the following:

Peak flow 33–50% best or predicted

Respiratory rate ≥ 25/min

Heart rate ≥ 110/min

Inability to complete sentences in one breath

1004
Q

Diabetes is a risk factor for what type of ear problem?

A

Malignant otitis externa

1005
Q

Failure to thrive (FTT) implies…

A

growth failure combined with

failure of emotional and developmental progress.

often use to neglect. Non-organic cause.

1006
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A

confusion, sweating, fatigue and feeling dizzy.

maybe pale, weak, blurred vision, tachycardia, unconsciousness

1007
Q

Extragastrointestinal manifestations of IBD

A

Joint problems

Skin rashes; pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum

Iritis/ uveitis

Aphthous ulcers.

1008
Q

Buerger’s disease

(thomboangiitis obliterans)

A

Occurs in young men who smoke

This pain may occur when you use your hands or feet and eases when you stop that activity (claudication), or when you’re at rest

Inflammation along a vein just below the skin’s surface (due to a blood clot in the vein)

Gangrene

1009
Q

Symptoms of bronchiolitis?

A

coryzal preceeding, dry cough, >> sob.

sometimes wheezing and fine inspiratory crackles

feeding difficulties due to >> sob

999 if: >> resp distress, or oxygen sats <92%

1010
Q

Which drugs are used to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

Carbimazole

Propylthiouracil

Propranolol (for symptoms of anxiety, palpitations, tremor, heat intolerance). Also inhibits peripheral conversion of T4-T3

1011
Q

Neisseria Gonorrhoea - antibiotic

A

Ceftriaxone

1012
Q

What drugs would a patient be on, following an MI (hospital inpatient)

A

antiplatelets, blood pressure, beta blockers, lipid lowering, DVT prevention, pain meds., anti-emetics, GTN

75mg aspirin + 75mg clopidogrel daily

e. g. ramipril (starting dose 2.5mg daily)
eg. atenolol 25-50mg daily

simvastatin 40mg daily

enoxaparin 40mg SC (after completion of heparin)

morphine sulphate 5-10mg IV

cyclizine,GTN PRN

1013
Q

What happens to BP in pregnancy?

A

Blood pressure decreases in first and second trimesters, but increases in the third. By term the blood pressure has returned to the pre-pregnancy level, but does not exceed this.

1014
Q

Name four common Atypical anti-psychoticss

A

clozapine

risperidone

quetiapine

olanzapine

1015
Q

Geneva Score

A

The Geneva score is an accepted alternative to the Wells’ PE criteria used to risk-stratify patients with concern for PE.

(both are used for PE)

1016
Q

Metoclopramide

moa, indications, side effects

A

D2 antagonist

Also has prokinetic effect on the gut, and increases the absorption of many drugs.

1017
Q

What are the risk factors for coronary artery disease? (7)

A

hypertension

diabetes mellitus

obesity

FH

Hyperlipidaemia

smoking

alcohol

1018
Q

Which shoulder dislocation is most common?

A

Anterior - 95%

Usually caused by a direct blow to, or fall on, an outstretched arm.

The patient typically holds his/her arm externally rotated and slightly abducted.

1019
Q

What happens to blood gases in pregnancy?

A

Increase in tidal volume (from 1st trimester onwards) causing increased PaO2 and decreased PaCO2

Compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

1020
Q

orthostatic hypotension values

A

20 mmHg drop of systolic pressure

20 beats per minute increase in HR

(remember two min delay between position changes)

1021
Q

Retained placenta definition

A

Failure of the placents to deliver within 30 minutes

1022
Q
A

Compression fracture.

collapse of a vertebra.

Trauma or a weakening of the vertebra (compare with burst fracture). This weakening is seen in patients with osteoporosis

Wedge deformities, with greater loss of height anteriorly than posteriorly

1023
Q

What are the most important causes of antepartum haemorrhage, (>50% of cases) (two)

A

Placenta Praevia

&

Placental Abruption

1024
Q

What is tenesmus?

A

Sensation of needing to defaecate although the rectum is empty.

(could be rectal inflammation of tumour)

1025
Q

What is De Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

Subacute thyroiditis

thoughts to follow viral infection, and presents with hyperthyroidism.

Can have a painful goitre, usually self-limiting.

1026
Q

What drugs can interfer with warfarin?

A

P450 enzyme inhibitors

P450 enzyme inducers (Cause decrease in INR)

  • antiepileptics; phenytoin, carbamazepine

barbiturates; phenobarbitone

rifampicin, St John’s Wort, griseofulvin

NSAIDs; inbihit platelet function

1027
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in less than 1% and is when vomiting is severe enough to cause dehydration and biochemical derangement.

1028
Q

What are the three main infections of the vulva?

A
  • genital warts - HPV infection, most common viral STI, cryotherapy
  • genital herpes (vesicles, ulcers, burning pain and local pruritis)
  • Herpes Simplex (HSV) Type II most common (85%). aciclovir
  • bartholin gland abscess (tender, red mass, occurs at 5o or 70 clock. fever, unilateral vulvar pain)
1029
Q

Tx for DKA

(Sickness and vomiting, abdominal pain, muscular weakness)

A

500ml then another 500ml then another 500ml (saline). MUST ensure patient is rehydrated before giving insulin. 0.1units per kilo per hour.

As sugar moves into cells (insulin taking effect) potassium follows therefore px becomes hypokalaemic. Normal potassium 3.5 to 5.

Watch urine output to check hydration.

Red flag; peds until 22-23 yr old. Can die from cerebral oedema; therefore don’t give insulin until properly hydrated.

1030
Q

What is this?

itchy, vesicular skin lesions on the extensor surfaces (e.g. elbows, knees, buttocks)

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering skin disorder associated with coeliac disease.

skin biopsy: direct immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis

1031
Q

What’s this called?

A

leukonychia

  • indicates hypoalbuminaemia (e.g. associated with cirrhosis)
1032
Q

Aortic regurgitation

  • causes
A

Blood flows back into the ventricle at start of diastole.

causes; infective endocarditis

rheumatic disease.

Usually asymptomatic until LVF

1033
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute life-threatening asthma

(any ONE of the following)

A

Peak flow < 33% best or predicted
Arterial oxygen saturation (Sp02) < 92%
Partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) < 8 kPa
Normal partial arterial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCo2) (4.6–6.0 kPa)
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Poor respiratory effort
Arrhythmia
Exhaustion
Altered conscious level

hypotension

1034
Q

What is pretibial myxoedema associated with (in 1-5% of cases)

A

Graves’ dermopathies.

1035
Q

Symptoms of temporal arteritis

A

visual loss; blood supply to retina is affected.

One-sided headache, very tender scalp; tender brushing hair

Typically new and continuous headache with those over 50 yrs. Gradual onset (wks-mtns)

Pain in jaw with chewing; jaw claudication

Can cause clots leading to stroke.

  • ESR often raised (>100)
1036
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

group of diseases in which abnormal protein, known as amyloid fibrils (insoluble), is deposited extracellularly. Acquired or inherited disorder of protein folding.

In the kidneys the amyloid deposition reduces the kidney’s ability to filter and hold on to proteins (nephrotic syndrome). Heart also affected (and Liver).

1037
Q

Meningococcal septicaemia

A
1038
Q

which extraoccular muscle attaches nasally?

A

Inferior Oblique

1039
Q

What does ART stand for (with HIV topic)

and associated problems?

A

anti-retroviral therapy

  • resistance to drugs
  • side effects, drug intolerance
  • adherence problems from complex regime
  • drug interactions
  • cost
1040
Q

Where does lymph from the breast drain?

A

Majority axillary

also

Behind sternum

NB Montgomery’s glands is the name of the modified sweat glands found on the areola.

1041
Q

Management of advanced breast cancer

A

endocrine therapy - for ER positive breast cancer

Chemotherapy

Bisphosphonates

1042
Q

Treatment, presentation and organism of malignant otitis externa

A

tympanic membrane normal

Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection which becomes invasive and erodes the temporal bone.

(diabetics are risk group)

>> Offensive discharge, chronic, pain, headaches

abx: ciprofloxacin

(amoxicillin for otitis media)

Flucloxacillin if uncomplicated otitis externa + signs of systemic infection

1043
Q

Bronchiolitis; when to call 999?

A

Looks unwell, cyanosis

severe respiratory distress (e.g. grunting, marked chest recession)

RR over 70 breaths/ minute

oxygen sats <92% on air.

Consider if; resp rate over 60.

difficulty breastfeeding/ inadequate fluid intake.

1044
Q

Diagnositic symptoms of DKA?

A

polydipsia

weight loss

dehydration

+ Kussmaul breathing

1045
Q

Emphysema and Lung volumes - what’s the story

A

Emphysema, functional respiratory capacity is increased, because the lungs are more compliant. Total lung capacity also increases, largely as a result of increased functional residual capacity.

1046
Q

Acute gout management

A

Lifestyle advice

NSAIDs at maximum dose as early as possible and continue for 1-2 days after attack finished.

(give PPI for protection)

Cholchicine

1047
Q

SLE and pregnancy; what’s the problem?

A

If there is renal involvement or if antiphospholipid antibodies are present,

there is an increased risk of miscarriage,

fetal death,

pre-eclampsia and preterm delivery.

1048
Q
A
1049
Q

Why rehydrate gradually with DKA?

A

to avoid rapid intracellular osmotic/ sodium shifts that may cause fatal CNS oedema.

Remember: with DKA and polydipsia, rapid fluid shift from intracellular compartments.

1050
Q

Differential diagnoses of iliac fossa pain

A
1051
Q

Pleural exudate.. what are the protein levels?

A

>30g/L

1052
Q

which is the steriod given IV for severe asthma?

A

prednisolone

40–50 mg daily for at least 5 days.

1053
Q

Characteristics of tension headaches

A
  • mild to moderate (fuzzy head); dull generalized headache
  • bilateral
  • non-pulsatile
  • exert bandlike pressure
  • no nausea

poor response to over the counter analgesia

1054
Q

Fever in infants less that 8 weeks… what’s the story?

A

Could be sepsis; at this age other signs of sepsis may not be evident.

1055
Q

Which HPV types cause 70% of cervical cancers?

A

types 16 and 18

1056
Q

Clonic definition

A

Fast stiffening and relaxing of a muscle that happens repeatedly.

Repeated jerking.

The movements cannot be stopped by restraining or repositioning the arms or legs.

1057
Q

What is the main causal organism of Bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

1058
Q
A

cyst develops from occlusion of the excretory duct.

1059
Q

B lymphocytes; which type of immunity?

A

humoral or antibody-mediated immunity

The mature B cells that manufacture immunoglobulin are called plasma cells.

1060
Q

If pre-eclampsia is asymptomatically, what other investigation?

A

Uterine artery Doppler measurements can aid the identification of women at high risk of pre-eclampsia.

1061
Q

Why can you get normochromic, normocytic anaemia with kidney disease?

(anaemia of chronic disease)

A

< erythropoietin

1062
Q

What is the important of lactate in ABG?

A

by-product of anaerobic respiration.

Good indicator of poor tissue perfusion.

1063
Q

What could cause primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

stress/ weight loss/ excessive exercise, body dysmorphia, chronic systemic illness: HPA axis

pregnancy!!!

consitutional delay (as about menarche with mother/ sisters)

Genetics (e.g. Turner’s, congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

Drugs; cocaine, chemo, anti-psychotics

1064
Q

Clozapine (atypical antipsychotic)

  • only drug that substantially reduces overall mortality from schizoprenia because of a reduction in the rate of suicide.

Dangerous SE therefore only prescribed if two different antipsychotics have failed.

Side Effects? + Monitoring?

A
  • risk of fatal agranulocytosis (1: 10 000)
  • risk of seizures
  • hypo/ hypertension (MCQ)
  • weight gain
  • fever, nausa
  • constipation, noctural enuresis

Mx: FBC weekly for 18 wks, then fortnightly for a year, then monthly.

1065
Q

What is xanthochromia?

A

Yellow discoloration indicating the presence of bilirubin in the CSF

differentiate in vivo hemorrhage from a traumatic LP

1066
Q

What could a unilateral nasal polyp be a red flag sign for?

A

nasopharyngeal cancer and therefore warrant an urgent referral to ENT.

bilateral nasal polyps require non-urgent referral and topical corticosteroid therapy is first-line management.

1067
Q

Tests for diabetes

A

Blood glucose

urine or blood test for ketones

pH (venous fine)

1068
Q

What is Purpura?

A

a condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin that do not blanch on applying pressure. (wikipedia)

1069
Q

What are ossible causes of shortness of breath in a pregnant woman? (7)

A
  1. Physiological
  2. Anaemia
  3. Asthma
  4. Pulmonary embolism
  5. Pneumonia
  6. Pneumothorax
  7. Pulmonary oedema
1070
Q

What risk groups and factors for breast cancer?

A

no history of breast-feeding, having no children, having children at late ages (especially over the age of 30 years), l

long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) use,

obesity (for postmenopausal women only)

and high consumption of alcohol

1071
Q

T-lymphocytes; which type of immunity?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

1072
Q

How do SSRI and SNRI work?

A

inhibit reuptake of monoamine neurotransmitters

1073
Q

What are the risks of warfarin in pregnancy?

A

>> chance of fetal intracranial haemorrhaging because warfarin cross the placenta.

Options: switch to LMWH (unless px is very high risk of thrombosis)

1074
Q

What is the Schiller’s test?

Sensitive test, but not specific because abnormalities can occur with simple inflammation.

A

Schiller’s iodine solution is applied to the cervix.

Normal cervical mucosa contains glycogen (this is used as an energy source to fight off infection) and stains brown, whereas abnormal areas do not take up the stain.

The composition of Schiller’s iodine is the same as Lugol’s iodine, the latter being more concentrated.

1075
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A

Massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day),

hypoalbuminaemia, oedema,

lipuria and hyperlipidaemia

NO RBCs in the urine

1076
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Commonest cause of vaginal discharge (often recurrent)
  • Overgrowth of commensals - anaerobes, mycoplasmas & Gardnerella vaginalis
  • NOT sexually transmitted though may exacerbate

METRONIDAZOLE

1077
Q

Facts about uterine inversion

(rare but serious obstetric complication)

  • occurs in second stage of labour

Big risk factor - multiparity 6+

A

Presents as:

Postpartum haemorrhage, which occurs in 65-94% of cases and can be massive.

Lower abdominal pain (extreme), Sudden appearance of a vaginal mass.

“The sudden appearance of a large dark red mass accompanying the placenta is alarming.”

hypovolaemia, hypotension

Chronic cases are unusual and difficult to diagnose. They may present with spotting, discharge and low back pain.

1078
Q

Mx of type I diabetes

A

monitor HbA1c every 3-6 months

self-monitoring of blood glucose levels

(5-7mmol/l on waking)

4-7 mmol/l before meals

1079
Q

Red flags concerns with fever and children

A
  • serious infections; meningitis, urinary tract infection, pneumonia.
  • fever in babies < 8 weeks old
  • NB. commonest causes; otitis media and tonsillitis
1080
Q

Rotterdam 2003 PCOS criteria

A

Two out of three of the following criteria:

  1. oligo-ovulation and/or anovulation
  2. excess androgen activity
  3. polycystic ovaries by sonogram, other endocrine disorders excluded.
1081
Q

Prophylactic tx for angina

A

Aspirin + Clopidogrel (anti-platelet)

Dabigatran - doesn’t need monitoring. Fixed dose. MOA: direct thrombin inhibitor.

Problem: no antidote if bleeding occurs.

1082
Q

How does Trichomonas vaginalis present?

A

Offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge
Vulvovaginitis
Strawberry cervix

1083
Q

What is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement in herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Vesicles on tip of nose = Hutchinson’s sign

Can cause anterior uveitis

1084
Q

What’s the problem with taking nitrates for angina?

A

Headaches

Reflex tachycardia (prevented by taking beta blockers)

Tolerance to nitrates can occur.

1085
Q

Menstrual hypothalamus pituitary axis

A

GnRH - hypothalamus

releases from anterior pituitary

FSH and LH

1086
Q

Definition - Secondary haemorrhaging in pregnancy

A

Secondary PPH abnormal bleeding from the genital tract, from 24 hours after delivey until six weeks postpartum.

1087
Q

Epigastric pain that is not tender on palpation and has autonomic symptoms could be….

A

MI

1088
Q

PSGN stands for?

A

Post streptococcal GlomeruloNephritis

1089
Q

Central upper abdominal radiating through to the back and partially relieved by sitting forwards is…

A

pancreatitis

1090
Q

What is the anatomical signifiance of the central artery of the retina?

A

It runs WITHIN the optic nerve.

It’s an end artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery.

1091
Q

Why aren’t antipsychotics used for behavioural problems with dementia patients?

A
  • >> risk of stroke
  • impaired glycaemic control

(except for risperidone that is licensed for short-term use)

1092
Q

Three rules of fluid replacement

A
  • Replace blood with blood
  • Replace extracellular fluid depletion with saline
  • REHDRATE with DEXTROSE. NOT FOR RESUSCITATION
1093
Q

Name the five common SSRI - Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

Citalopram

Fluvoxamine

Fluoxetine

Sertraline

Paroxetine

1094
Q

Grave’s disease tx?

A

Methimazole

PTU (propyl thiouracil)

radioiodine

surgery

1095
Q

Thrombolysis; remember that…

A

lots of exclusion criteria!!!

Including:

  • seizures
  • px on warfarin
  • previous stroke within three month
  • BP >110 diastolic, > 185 systolic
  • hypoglycaemic/ hyperglycaemic
1096
Q

NYHA

A

I : No limitation of physical activity.

II: Slight limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Some SoB, fatigue, palpitations with ordinary physical activities.

III: Marked limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea.

IV: Unable to carry out physical activites. Symptoms of heart failure at rest.

1097
Q

what’s this?

A

cervix incompetence

May be caused by a previous injury to this area, usually after a surgical procedure. The muscle weakness can cause the cervix to open too early during pregnancy, leading to a miscarriage.

tx. big stitch

1098
Q

Which endocrine conditions are autoimmune?

A

Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency)

Graves’ disease

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

1099
Q

Ovarian cancer

  • most deaths (gynae cancers)

Risk factors?

Protective factors?

A

Risk factors

Low parity

family history of breast cancer or ovarian cancer

Protective factors:

Multiparity! Breast feeding, chronic anovulation.

Also oral contraception. Remember

1100
Q

Growing pains (recurrent limb pain in children)

A

usually in the lower legs, and develop in the evening or night, usually after more active days. Children 3-12 most affected.

No evidence to relate with growth spurts.

Intense, cramp-like pain in both legs.

Tx: paracetamol, ibuprofen, massage, heat packs.

1101
Q

Where are B12 -Intrinsic Factor complexes absorbed?

A

terminal ileum

1102
Q

What causes hot potato voice and tender, swollen lymph nodes?

A

A progressively severe sore throat on one side, odynophagia, usually are the earliest symptoms.

As the abscess develops, persistent pain in the peritonsillar area, fever, a general sense of feeling unwell, headache and a distortion of vowels informally known as “hot potato voice” may appear. Neck pain associated with tender, swollen lymph nodes, referred ear pain and foul breath are also common.

PTA should be specifically considered if there is limited ability to open the mouth (trismus).

1103
Q

What is a pannus?

A

hypertrophied synovium,

containing inflammatory cells that release collagenolytic enzymes

causing loss of bone and cartilage (chronic RhA)

1104
Q

Danger of MAOIs

(Phenelzine, Tranylcypromine)

A

occasional fatal syndrome of hypertension and throbbing headache if foods containing large quantities of tyramine (e.g. cheese, red wine) are eaten.

1105
Q

Common AIDS-defining illnesses in the West

A
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • oesophageal candidiasis
  • tuberculosis
  • herpes simplex/ zoster - repeated infections
    • others

ALONG WITH; systemic features weight loss, persistent fever or persistent diarrhoea.

1106
Q

Mumps - notifiable disease.

How does it present?

Mumps is an acute, generalised infection caused by a paramyxovirus, usually in children and young adults.

The incubation period is between 14-25 days

The virus is highly infectious with transmission by droplets spread in saliva via close personal contact.

A

Nonspecific symptoms lasting a few days, such as fever, headache, malaise, myalgia and anorexia, can precede parotitis (usually bilateral). May be pain near angle of jaw.

Fever without rigors in small children.

Orchitis may occur four or five days after the start of parotitis but it often appears without it.

Meningism occurs in around 15% of patients. Usually self-limiting.

1107
Q

Mallory-Weiss tears

  • when?
A

alcoholic ‘dry heaves’, retching, severe coughing.

tears at the oesophagogastric junction by a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure

1108
Q

what are theca cells , and their function?

A

Endocrine cells in the ovary surrounding the follicle that synthesis androgens.

hyperactivity of theca cells causes hyperandrogenism

1109
Q

Clonic definition

A

Fast stiffening and relaxing of a muscle that happens repeatedly.

Repeated jerking.

The movements cannot be stopped by restraining or repositioning the arms or legs.

1110
Q

What is the direct Coombs test?

A

The direct Coombs test is used to test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia—that is, a condition where the immune system breaks down red blood cells, leading to anemia.

1111
Q

What is different about the management of children with acute asthma?

A
  • Life-threatening if O2 Sata below 94%
  • use spacers
  • can add ipratropium to Salbutamol neb
1112
Q

What is the risk of thrombolytic tx of ischaemic stroke?

And the incidence?

A

significant risk of primary intracerebral haemorrhage

1 in 30

1113
Q

If usual meds are ineffective for acute asthma attack, what is worth trying?

A

magnesium sulphate

2g over 20 minutes via 200ml saline (mark saline bag with time)

1114
Q

Mx of Keratoacanthoma

A

refer because hard to distinguish from SCCs

Complete Excision is tx of choice

1115
Q

What is this?

A

The rolled, pearly edges with telangiectasia surrounding a central crater make basal cell carcinoma the most likely diagnosis

1116
Q

Characteristics of cluster headaches

A

severe, unilateral, retro-orbital

clustered over time

variable duration (10-60 mins)

autonomic symptoms; tearing, red eye, nasal congestion.

attacks often at night

much more commen in MEN (9:1)

1117
Q

Important things that affect vit D absorption (except for the obvious)

A
  • age
  • absorption is in first part of SI, therefore digestive disorders
  • condition of the Kidneys
1118
Q

What side effects to typical (1st gen) antipsychotics drugs have (generally)

A

EPSE - extrapyramidal side effects

hyperprolactinaemia

tardive dyskinesia

1119
Q

Which thyroid autoantibodies will differentiate Grave’s disease from other forms of hyperthyroidism?

A

TRAb in serum

and

orbitopathy

1120
Q

Pertussis (whooping cough)

  • high morbidity and mortality in children <2 years age.
A

Bacterium Bordetella pertussis

Lasts 6-8 weeks and has three stages:

catarrhal

paroxysmal

convalescent

whoop - caused by sudden inspiratory effort against a narrowed glottis.

1121
Q

Toes - x-ray or not?

A

If associated wound present, or injury is with the great toe.

1122
Q

What are sulfonylureas and meglitinides examples of?

A

hypoglycaemic drugs

1123
Q
A
1124
Q

MOA of diazepam, lorazepam and midazolam

A

Facilitate GABA transmission that counteracts the excessive excitatory neurotransmission. (i.e. neural inhibiton)

“enhances GABA-mediated chloride flux”

1125
Q

what could an absent radial pulse indicate?

Also may be unequal blood pressure in the upper limbs

20% have aortic regurgitation

associated with renal artery stenosis

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

(large vessel vasculitis)

1126
Q

What’s the relationship between Metformin and CKD?

A

Metformin should be
avoided if eGFR
below
30ml/min/1.73m2

1127
Q

What are leiomyoma?

A

benign smooth muscle tumor that very rarely becomes cancer”

Uterine fibroids are leiomyomata of the uterine smooth muscle.

Benign, but may lead to excessive menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia),

often cause anemia and may lead to infertility.

1128
Q

Where does small cell carcinoma most commonly spread?

ribs, spine, skull, pelvis?

A

spine

1129
Q

Endometriosis - possible sites

A
1130
Q

What are the causes of CKD?

A

could be systemic; diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia

chronic damage following renal diseases

autoimmune, e.g. SLE, Goodpasture’s

genetic; polycystic kidney disease

1131
Q

elbow fracture - what will you find on x-ray?

A

The sail sign.

Never a posterior fat pad unless there is a fracture.

1132
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s

1133
Q

What skin/ hair changes happen in pregnancy?

A
  • pruritus (without a rash - 20% occurence)
  • hair loss (common between 4-20 wks)
  • palmar erythema
  • striae gravidarum
  • spider naevi
  • melasma
1134
Q

What are the EM physiological side effects of type I diabetes causing hypoglycaemia? (3)

A

>>> sugar in blood, none in cells.

Breakdown of fats and proteins; ketones and acidosis

leads to dehydration, Potassium loss and acidosis.

Dehydration because water follows excretion of sugar (osmotic diuresis)

1135
Q

Some possible red flags for neck lumps

A

Dark colour suggestive of malignant melanoma,

ulceration,

skin fixation,

bleeding, or

hard texture

1136
Q

What’s the antidote to Heparin overdose?

A

protamine sulphate

1137
Q

What initiates the menstrual cycle?

A

neuronal stimuli from the cerebral cortex - hypothalamus - GnRH

GnRH

releases FSH and LH from anterior pituitary

1138
Q

what class of drug can cause rhabdomyolysis?

A

statins

1139
Q

cholecystitis

A

a stone in the cystic duct

obstructing the GB which leads to infection.

1140
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis (ATN)? - acute tubular injury (ATI)

A
1141
Q

Asthma classification figures

A
  • moderate: 50-75% PEF, no other symptoms
  • acute severe 33-50% PEF, Resp >25, Heart rate >110. Can’t complete breaths in one sentence
  • life-threatening <33% O2Sats <92%
1142
Q

BUN

A

Bloode urea nitrogen; medical test.

NB. Liver produces urea as a waste product of protein digestion.

1143
Q

What do you prescribe a pregnant woman for nausea and vomiting?

A

antihistamines should be used first-line (BNF suggests promethazine as first-line)

1144
Q

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A
1145
Q

Immediate management of acute leukaemia

A
  • often very ill px vulnerable to infections and/or bleeding.
  • IV antibiotics
  • platelets and fresh frozen plasma for bleeding
  • blood transfusion for anaemia

* even if fever is caused by disease and not infection, treat with antibiotics because b.

1146
Q

main clinical features of AOM (acute otitis media)

A

otalgia

fever and deafness

otorrhoea

children; pain often worse at night

1147
Q

MOA of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

A

works outside of the thyroid gland, preventing conversion of (mostly inactive form) T4 to T3

1148
Q

Weber fractures

A
1149
Q

What is the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhaging? (SAH)

A

Intracranial aneurysms (‘berry’ aneurysms): approx 85% of cases.

Conditions associated with berry aneurysms include adult polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and coarctation of the aorta

1150
Q

What’s the most prevalent cause of death for diabetic patients

A

coronary artery disease

(diabetic px after develop hypertension, dyslipidemia, and a decline in HDL, and a rise in triglyceride levels)

1151
Q

What is a cholesteatoma?

A

Squamous epithelium that is ‘trapped’ within the skull base causing local destruction.

Main features

foul-smelling discharge

hearing loss

‘attic crust’ - seen in the uppermost part of the ear drum

Mx

ENT for consideration of surgical removal

1152
Q

What is flucloxacillin indicated for?

A

infections caused by penicillinase-producing penicillin-resistant staphylocci.

i.e. most hospital-acquired staphlococcal infections.

1153
Q

Conjunctivitis characteristics

A
  • red, watery eye, often bilateral.
  • VA is usually normal.
  • bacterial or viral

Infectious, topical treatment,

NB> check for FB, abrasion before diagnosing conjunctivitis

1154
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Bioavailability :

A subcategory of absorption and is the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation, one of the principal pharmacokinetic properties of drugs.

By definition, when a medication is administered intravenously, its bioavailability is 100%.

1155
Q

Foot bones 2

A
1156
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

EBV - Epstein Barr Virus

A
  • low grade fever
  • malaise
  • pharyngitis
  • cervical lymphadenopathy

occasionally; hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice

NB. Amoxicillin causes maculopapular rash

1157
Q

When is it appropriate to use montelukast or zafirlukast?

(leukotriene receptor antagonists)

A

Step 3 or 4 chronic asthma.

Exercise and aspirin-induced asthma.

Patients with associated rhinitis and/or nasal polyps.

NB. Taken orally OD

1158
Q
A

Giant cell arteritis

painless visual loss, px usually >60.

Scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, headache.

Blindness if not prompt treatment.

refer.

1159
Q

Physiology of heart failure

A

Insufficient cardiac output unable to perfuse tissues. Adaptive changes; increases in heart rate and force, increases in renal volume and increase blood pressure.

Heart unable to compensate and physiological changes further decrease cardiac output.

1160
Q

What’s the general management of COPD (not inhalers part)?

A

stop smoking

annual influenza vaccination

one-off pneumococcal vaccination

1161
Q

generalized seizure

A

BOTH cerebral hemispheres.

LOSS of CONSCIOUSNESS

1162
Q

What are the first line antihypertensives for CKD?

A

ACEI, ARBs, and direct renin inhibitors

1163
Q

Primary tx/ mx of osteoporosis

A

Calcium and vit D in diet

bisphosphonate; alendronate on the basis of cost.

1164
Q

With asthma, what should the O2 Sats percentage be maintained at?

A

between 94-98%

1165
Q

What is large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)

A

procedure involves a loop of wire (with current) that cuts a dome shaped piece of the cervix away.

The excision should be 4-5mm deeper than the affected area – which usually means about an 8mm deep incision

local anaesthetic