THE FINALS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Hemiplegic gait

A

circumduction of the leg, with the foot dropping (hence the circumduction).

associated hypertonic flexion of the ipsilateral arm.

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2
Q

which extraoccular muscle attaches nasally?

A

Inferior Oblique

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3
Q

What is Hyosine used for?

(and MOA)

A

Motion sickness and vesibulocochlear dysfunction.

Targets the vomiting centre and vestibulocochlear nuclei.

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4
Q

MI and the elderly/ diabetes mellitus. What do I need to remember?

A

30% of patients have NO pain

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5
Q

What endocrine problem can cause hypertension in risk group women 30-50 years?

A

Conn’s

  • primary >>> aldosterone

66% cases due to enlarged adrenal glands.

tx. surgery, spironolactone

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6
Q

What’s the difference between arterial thrombi and venous thrombi?

A

arterial thrombi (white); more platelet aggrevation driven

venous thrombi (red); more coagulation driven

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7
Q

If the JVP is not elevated but the patient has oedema, what does this mean?

A

origin is NOT cardiogenic

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8
Q

Moderate LVF management (acute)

A
  • Larger dose of furosemide and given via IV (50mg) - can be increased with renal impairment px
  • BP > 140 start GTN (25mg with 25 saline @ 0.5mg-10mg/hr)

Titrate; keep BP above 100mmHg

  • hypoxic? CPAP. careful of resp failure II
  • Morphine presided by Metoclopramide
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9
Q

MOA of Heparin

A

binds to body’s own anticoagulant (antithrombin III)

This complex inhibits factor Xa (and other factors)

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10
Q

Definition of crescendo angina

A

>> frequency with << reason

but not at rest

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11
Q

What is hypopyon?

A

inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber of the eye.

It is a leukocytic exudate, usually accompanied by redness of the conjunctiva

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12
Q

Aspirin; clinical usages and action as an antiplatelet drug

A

Acute coronary syndrome

Thrombic strokes; acute and prophylaxis

shown to prevent MI with angina.

Artificial heart valves, percutaneous coronary angioplasty.

ACTION: inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid.

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13
Q

Safe drinking limits

A

14 units (both men and women)

+ at least two drink-free days each week.

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14
Q

What is the skin like with LVF?

A

grey, clammy, cold skin

(assess peripheral perfusion)

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15
Q

Psychosis defined

A

Mental health problem that causes people to perceive or interpret things differently from those around them. This might involve hallucinations or delusions.

The two main symptoms of psychosis are:

hallucinations – where a person hears, sees and, in some cases, feels, smells or tastes things that aren’t there; a common hallucination is hearing voices

delusions – where a person believes things that, when examined rationally, are obviously untrue – for example, thinking your next door neighbour is planning to kill you

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16
Q

Moderate LVF management (acute)

A
  • Larger dose of furosemide and given via IV (50mg) - can be increased with renal impairment px
  • BP > 140 start GTN (25mg with 25 saline @ 0.5mg-10mg/hr)

Titrate; keep BP above 100mmHg

  • hypoxic? CPAP. careful of resp failure II
  • Morphine presided by Metoclopramide
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17
Q

non-vertiginous dizziness types

A
  • presyncope
  • light headedness (eg. postural hypotension)
  • disequilibrum (altered gait/ balance without head symptoms)
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18
Q

ranitidine

A

H2 histamine receptor antagonist

blocks histamine and thus decreasing the amount of acid released by cells of the stomach.

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19
Q

Common side effects of olanzapine

A

Weight gain, and increased appetite + oedema

hyperglycaemia, dyslipidaemia

Drowsiness or dizziness

Constipation, dry mouth

Reduced interest in sex, erectile dysfunction

Strange muscle movements (more typical anti-psychotics)

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

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20
Q

Assessing standing.

Why ask px to stand without pushing up with arms?

A

Difficulty indicates proximal muscle weakness.

(other signs; difficulty getting out of chairs, climbing stairs)

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21
Q

Severe LVF management

A
  • Furosemide 50mg IV (increase if patient has renal impairment)
  • CPAP
  • Treat arrhythmias
  • lots of discussion with senior staff
  • dobutamine as inotrope in cardiogenic shock - consultant
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22
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

  • acute brain reaction to severe lack of thiamine.
A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy;

confusion, loss of coordination [ataxia], eye paralysis [ophthalmoplegia], nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma f

Parenteral thiamine.

Thiamine helps brain cells produce energy from sugar.

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23
Q

Baseline drugs for heart failure

A
  • titrate ACE inhibitor and monitor Kidney function with increments.
  • Beta blockers. titrate and assess HR, BP
  • diuretics; titrate
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24
Q

Adverse reactions with aspirin?

A

GI irritation, bleeding,

hypersensitivity reactions,

tinnitus

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25
Q
A

Dacryoadenitis

  • Swelling of the outer portion of the upper lid, with possible redness and tenderness
  • Pain in the area of swelling
  • Excess tearing or discharge
  • Swelling of lymph nodes in front of the ear

Common causes include mumps, Epstein-Barr virus, staphylococcus, and gonococcus.

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26
Q

What group of people (ECG) is at risk of Torsades de Pointes - type of ventricular fibrillation.

A

People who have long QT syndrome are at
increased risk for torsades

(also - imbalanced amounts of
potassium, calcium, or magnesium in the
bloodstream can cause this condition)

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27
Q

Risk factors for testicular cancer

A

men aged 20-34 years

bilateral undescended testes x 10 risk

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28
Q

SAH versus thunderslap migraine

A

maybe clinically indistinguishable from SAH.

Thunderslap migraine usually in younger patient with history of migraine, and unilateral with previous episodes.

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29
Q

Acute LVF Management - What would you include in D - disability?

A

access consious level

blood sugar levels

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30
Q

Predisposing factors for aortic dissection?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

severe hypertension

trauma

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31
Q

How to differentiation between hydrocele and epididymis cysts

A

if the testis are palpable separate from the swelling then it is a cyst.

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32
Q

Differences between upper and lower motor neurone lesions

A
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33
Q

optic disc completely yellow or white indicates?

A

optic nerve atrophy

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34
Q

What’s this?

A

AF

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35
Q

Initial treatment of LVF

A
  • Sit up patient
  • Give oxygen
  • If COPD do ABG early
  • Treat arrthymias (esp. tachycardia/ bradycardia)
  • Ensure STEMI has been excluded (Call reg if STEMI)
  • If BP >100mmHg give 0.5mg GTN S/L
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36
Q

Mild LVF management

A

Start on furosemide 40mg.

If already on furosemide then give normal dose twice per day

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37
Q

When is a CT scan URGENT following a stroke?

A
  • if 3 hour window to start thrombolytics
  • evidence of head injury
  • severe headache at the time of onset of weakness
  • GCS score deteriorating
  • prior anticoagulation treatment
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38
Q

If the heads of the clavicles aren’t level, what does this mean?

A

rotation

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39
Q

ECG and STEMI….

A

persistent ST-elevation

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40
Q

If infective endocarditis is suspected, what is important to ask about?

A

recent dental work, IV drug use, skin infections (causes of bacteraemia)

(damage to peripheral vessels, eg. an infected false aneurysm of common femoral artery can be a source for infective endocarditis)

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41
Q

What are some symptoms of Foetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  • decreased muscle tone
  • poor coordination
  • developmental delay
  • heart defects
  • a range of facial abnormalities
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42
Q

Can you give codeine for migraines?

Drugs for recurrent migraines?

A

No because of associated nausea and rebound headaches.

Triptans (e.g. sumatriptan)

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43
Q

What factors can cause an obstruction to LV flow? (3)

A

aortic stenosis

LV hypertropic (narrowing of lumen)

supravalvular narrowing

congenital subvalvular aortic stenosis (formation of a ridge/ diaphragm)

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44
Q

What is metoclopramide used for?

A

Given with morphine (increases GI motility)

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45
Q

What type of headache is common first thing in the morning?

A

migraine

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46
Q

Indications for defibrillation

A

Ventricular arrhythmias (VT/ VF) with no pulse.

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47
Q

What might to give an alcoholic patient at arrival in hospital?

A
  • sedation - benzodiazepine

(helps to control withdrawal symptoms and prevent seizures)

  • delirium tremens; lorazepam or antipsychotics eg. haloperidol or olanzapine.
  • thiamine, electrolytes, fluids.
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48
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis management

* Can enhance HIV transmission

TV is less common.

A

If T. vaginalis is suspected, a high vaginal swab can be taken from the posterior fornix but sensitivity may be low because motility reduces with transit time.

Treat both partners

metronidazole in most cases, resistant strains are on the increase.

Systemic treatments are far more effective

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49
Q

what happens to the T waves in hypokalaemia?

A

<< amplitude, flattened or inverted

also U waves can be seen.

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50
Q

What is 2nd degree heart block?

(Mobitz I)

A

Not all P-Waves followed by a QRS complex.

The baseline PR interval is prolonged, and then further prolongs with each successive beat, until a QRS complex is dropped.

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51
Q

crossed eyes … is a condition in which the eyes do not properly align with each other when looking at an object. Proper name?

A

Strabismus

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52
Q

Eye conditions not to miss

A
  • acute-angle closure glaucoma
  • peri-orbital cellulitis
  • giant cell arteritis
  • keratitis
  • uveitis
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53
Q

What happens with pronator drift

and what does it indicate?

A
  • The hand drifts so the palm turns inward and/or the hand drops
  • This is a very sensitive indicator of upper motor neurone weakness, usually due to stroke
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54
Q

Coronary atherosclerosis isn’t the only cause of myocardial ischemia. Name two others

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

aortic stenosis

(a loud systolic murmur may point to these findings)

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55
Q

What drug group is used for first line tx of schizophrenia?

A

atypical antipsychotics

(remember clozapine - agranulocytosis risk)

clozapine

olanzapine - >> dyslipidemia and obesity

risperidone

quetiapine

aripirazole - good for raised prolactin

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56
Q

Premature beats don’t really need treatment unless..

A
  • autonomic signs; pale, sweaty with heatbeats change pace.
  • chest pain
  • dyspnoea
  • syncopic sensations
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57
Q

What’s the antidote for warfarin-induced bleeding

A

Phytonadione (vitamin K1)

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58
Q

Nalmefene

A

Is recommended for the reduction of alcohol consumption in patients with alcohol dependence who have a high drinking risk level, without physical withdrawal symptoms, and who do not require immediate detoxification

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59
Q

Do all patients with AF experience palpitations?

A

NO, especially the elderly.

Need to take case history to find cause.

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60
Q

Which conditions are P waves absent?

A

Atrial fibrillation

Atrial Flutter

Hyperkalaemia; P waves are reduced in amplitude or totally absent; associated with tall T waves and wide QRS complexes.

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61
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of testicular torsion?

A

Sudden severe pain in the scrotum

Scrotal swelling

Unusual position of testicle

pain. *blue spot on scrotum*

Typically young boys wake up with scrotal pain in the middle of the night or morning.

common between 12- years age.

MEDICAL EMERGENCY

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62
Q

What can cause abnormal size of pupils?

A

Drugs

damage to optic cranial nerve (II)

Oculomotor nerve (III)

or brain (especially trauma)

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63
Q

What’s the difference between nitrates and CCBs with reducing cardiac work?

A

Nitrates: act primarily on venous tissue, thus affect preload.

CCBs act mostly on arteriolar muscle to reduce afterload.

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64
Q

PACs?

PVCs?

A

Premature Atrial Contractions

Premature Ventricular Contractions

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65
Q

inflammation of the lacrimal glands is called….

A

Dacryoadenitis

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66
Q

Clinicial uses for Warfarin

A

Long term management of DVT, AF, and artificial heart values.

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67
Q

What sounds would you hear with LVF?

A

LUB-DUB-uh

“galloping horses”

  • too much fluid
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68
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of sucralfate,

(cytoprotective drug)

A

this polysaccharide adhers to ulcer craters , inhibits pepsin-catalyzed hydrolysis of mucosal proteins. Helps form a protective barrier.

Used to treat peptic ulcers, but not so effective as H2blockers or PPIs, so only indicated with patients who can’t tolerate the others.

Take 2 hours between other drugs.

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69
Q

What are the non-cardiogenic causes of AF?

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • >> alcohol
  • aging
  • idiopathic
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70
Q

Symptoms of diabetic neuropathy

A
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71
Q

symptoms of cardiogenic shock

A
  • chest pain, palpitations, history of IHD, AF
  • Cold sweaty peripherae; weak pulse, JVP raised, tachycardia
  • pulmonary oedema
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72
Q

Varicocele cause - pathophysiology

A
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73
Q

What is 3rd degree heart block (complete heart block)?

A

Complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes.

Ventricular contractions only occur because of escape rhythms.

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74
Q

What is ‘speed’

A

amphetamines

  • mydriasis
  • tachycardia
  • hyperreflexia
  • euphoria, >> concentration & energy.
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75
Q

What are the four classes of shock?

A
  • Distributive
  • Cardiogenic
  • Hypovolemic
  • Obstructive
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76
Q

What is Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome?

A

A type of pre-excitation syndrome (early activation of the ventricles due to impulses bypassing the AV node via an accessory pathway.)

a combination of the presence of a congenital accessory pathway and episodes of tachyarrhythmia.

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77
Q

What does QT represent?

A

total duration of ventricular systole

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78
Q

Which type of glaucoma could be an emergency (+symptoms)?

A

Primary angle closure glaucoma (not common)

Can cause sudden, severe symptoms.

Symptoms can include:

intense eye pain

a red eye

a headache

tenderness around the eyes

seeing halos or “rainbow-like” rings around lights

blurred vision

feeling and being sick

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79
Q

Difficulty understanding speech or using correct words (receptive or expressive dysphasia) may indicate….

A

stroke

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80
Q

two big divisions of vertigo

A
  • central
  • peripheral
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81
Q

Acamprosate

A

Helps prevent relapses in people who have successfully achieved abstinence from alcohol.

Affects GABA in the brain

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82
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of metoclopramide

others; prochlorperazine, domperidone

(acts peripherially - prokinetic drug

and acts centrally - antiemetic)

A

Blocks dopamine D2 receptors; this prevents the relaxation of GI smooth muscle produced by dopamine. Also increases acetylcholine from cholinergic motor neurons in the enteric nervous system.

>> tone and motility in the oesophagus and stomach. (therefore opioid induced sickness)

Also >> gastric emptying.

NB> also increases resting pressure of lower oesophageal sphincter, therefore << acid reflux.

Indications: GERD, diabetic gastroparesis, intractable hiccup, also antiemetic.

Adverse effects: CNS reactions. CONTRAINDICATED with px with seizures.

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83
Q

MCA occlusion; which part of the body affected?

A

face and arm more likely thatn the leg.

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84
Q

What’s the difference between angina and MI pain?

A

Pain is similar, but MI pain is more severe and lasts longer.

MI pain lasts 20 mins or more and is not relieved by nitrates.

If sweating, nausa and vomiting present then >> chance of MI>

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85
Q

What are the symptoms of a complete MCA?

(4)

A

—facial asymmetry, arm weakness, and speech deficits

—

  • —hemiplegia (paralysis) of the (1) contralateral side, affecting the lower part of the face, arm, and hand while largely sparing the leg
  • —(2) contralateral sensory loss in the same areas
  • (3) —contralateral homonymous hemianopia—visual-field deficits affecting the same half of the visual field in both eyes.
  • (4) RIGHT - neglect, poor motivation
  • (4) LEFT - aphasia (inability ro comprehend and formulate language)
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86
Q

If px has the below ECG and chest pain, what’s the diagnosis?

A

(inverted U waves)

evolving M.I.

May be earliest sign of unstable angina

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87
Q

AF management

A

Rate control

Rhythm contol

Anticoagulation control

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88
Q

allergic conjunctivitis

A

bilateral, often related to hay-fever.

Chemosis (oedema of the conjunctiva) is a classic sign.

tx. antihistamines

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89
Q

what’s the problem with antipsychotics and the elderly?

A

increased stroke risk

increased VTE risk

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90
Q

What common virus can cause encephalitis (70% mortality rate)

A

herpes simplex

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91
Q

What investigations?

A

ABG

ECG

BP, etc.

CXR

chest examination. Need to rule out other causes of breathlessness

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92
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis

Trichomonas vaginalis is a very common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause vaginitis, cervicitis and urethritis.

T. vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan

Urethral infection is present in 90% of infected women

Almost exclusively STi

A

Most common STi and most curable.

Can be confused with BV

Although this is usually a frothy yellowish discharge, it can vary from being thin and scanty to profuse and thick.

Other common symptoms; vulval itching, dysuria or offensive odour.

There may be signs of local inflammation with vulvitis and vaginitis.

Cervicitis may be present ; ‘strawberry cervix’.

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93
Q

hypomanic (Bipolar affective disorder)

A

less severe and without psychotic symptoms

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94
Q

Why don’t you treat HT immediately following a stroke?

A
  1. cerebral autoregulation of blood flow is disturbed and therefore risk of hypoperfusion.
  2. Watershed infarction; there can be an extension of the stroke due to reduced blood supply around area of infarction.

NB. continue with regular BP meds if taken previously.

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95
Q

Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease

(hereditary disorder)

  • degeneration of aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurons in the striatum.

mutation in the huntingtin gene, which results in the production of a toxic form of the huntingtin protein that attacks the neurons.

A
  • dancelike movements of the limbs (choreoathetoid movements)
  • rhythmic movements of the tongue and face
  • mental deterioration that leads to personality disorders
  • psychosis, dementia
  • Symptoms usually start in 30s
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96
Q

What’s a common symptom of a fractured orbit?

A

Diplopia

due to obstruction of rectus muscles, or suspensory ligament is not fixed.

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97
Q

peripheral vertigo causes

(most common cause of vertigo, not central causes)

  • conflicting sensory information from ears, eyes, and joints.
A
  • inner ear/ vesticular system disorders
  • eg.
  • paroxysmal positional vertigo
  • Meniere’s disease
  • labyrinthitis
  • visual vertigo
  • vestibular neuronitis
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98
Q

What’s best for arterial thrombosis? Anticoagulants or antiplatelets?

A

Antiplatelets

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99
Q

What clinical findings could indicate recent harmful alcohol usage?

A

macrocytosis without anaemia

raised y-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

Raised alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (ALT and AST), or carbohydrate deficient transferrin (CDT)

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100
Q

What is the cardinal symptom of serotonin syndrome?

A

spontaneous clonus (best found at the ankle)

Hunter Serotonin Toxicity Criteria (HSTC)

Ocular clonus manifests as rapid and equal movements of the eyes and is best elicited by getting the patient to fix on a finger moved rapidly to the midline.

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101
Q

What can you get transient murmurs of mitral regurgitation with unstable angina/ MI?

A

Ischaemia may have affected the papillary muscle.

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102
Q

Acute LVF Management: What drugs for/to :

Speed up

Slow down

Irregular HR

A

Atropine - to speed up

Adenosine - to slow down (can be given very quickly)

Amiodarone - irregular HR (potassium channel blocker)

Used to suppress AF and flutter

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103
Q

Possible causes of direct swelling/ pain of the testicles (4)

A

hernia/ strangulated hernia

testicular torsion

epididymitis and orchitis

hydrocele/ variocele

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104
Q

Where does the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge?

A

Factor X - major rate-limiting step

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105
Q

What are the risk factors for generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Risk factors

Being aged between 35 and 54.

Being divorced or separated.

Living alone or as a lone parent.

  • also remember the protective factors
    These include:

Being aged between 16 and 24.

Being married or cohabiting.

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106
Q

what’s the Mx of an acute migraine?

A

oral triptan and an NSAID/ paracetamol

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107
Q

Acute LVF Management: What is the danger of morphine?

A

Resp failure II; caution with COPD, renal failure, or the elderly.

Give very slowly and reduce slowly.

* don’t give morphine orally because cannot regulate *

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108
Q

Fluid challenge and central venous cannula/ measurement of CVP; what’s that about?

A

If CVP doesn’t rise or rises transiently and then falls, then px is ‘underfilled’.

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109
Q

What is vasa nervorum?

A

blood vessels that supply the nerves

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110
Q

Rhythm control

NB> Used AFTER rate control if monotherapy ineffective.

A

Cardioversion

Can consider amiodarone for 12 months after electrical cardioversion to maintain sinus rhythm.

Torsades de pointes is an example of….. ventricular fibrillation

What can cause Torsades of pointes?

  • Imbalances in Potassium, Calcium, or magnesium.
  • People with long QT syndrome are at increased risk.
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111
Q

Some causes of aortic stenosis include;

A

Calcification

Congenital

Endocarditis

Rheumatic fever

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112
Q

Palpitations/ syncope ; are these important?

A

YES.

Urgent investigation. Could have malignant but treatable arrhythmia (usually bradyarrhymias)

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113
Q

What can cause PVC (premature ventricular contractions)?

NB. ECG; these look like broadened QRS complexes with greater amplitude.

A
  • Hypokalaemia makes spontaneously polarization more likely.
  • Hypomagnesaemia also makes poloriziation more likely.
  • Existing damage to myocardium can provoke PVCs (scarring due to previous MIs, or surgery)
  • Inflammation cause cause increases in cytokine levels are increase irritability of myocytes.
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114
Q

What is crystal meth?

A

methamphetamine

(related to amphetamine group)

but … more potent, longlasting and harmful.

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115
Q

What cardiac conditions can cause PACs?

A

infection

genetic defects

narrow/ blocked vessels

valve disease

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116
Q

What’s this?

A

Atrial Flutter

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117
Q

Severe LVF management

A
  • Furosemide 50mg IV (increase if patient has renal impairment)
  • CPAP
  • Treat arrhythmias
  • lots of discussion with senior staff
  • dobutamine as inotrope in cardiogenic shock - consultant
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118
Q

What does unsteadiness with eyes open imply?

A

cerebellar disorders

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119
Q

Is alcohol a risk factor in self harming?

A

Studies have shown that 25% of patients who self-harm are regarded as having a problem with alcohol

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120
Q

Lithium

A

Avoid any medicines that can impair renal function or induce hyponatraemia

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

Diuretics (particularly thiazides).

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) - sometimes co-prescribed.

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121
Q

Aspirin, stroke, no CT scan results. What’s the story?

A

No evidence that starting aspirin before CT findings are known adversely affects prognosis.

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122
Q

High BP two weeks after stroke. Which meds?

A

ACE inhibitors (perindopril - take at bedtime because can become dizzy)

thiazide diuretics

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123
Q

POUND mneumonic

A
  • Pulsatile
  • 4-72 hOurs duration
  • Unilateral
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Disabling intensity
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124
Q

proptosis/ exophthalmos

A

Bilateral - Grave’s disease (abnormal connective tissue deposition).

Unilateral - possibly orbital tumour, trauma, swelling of surrounding tissue.

Corneal dryness and damage can occur if eyelids cannot close properly.

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125
Q

What is lithium used for?

Has slow rate of action; 7-14 days

Secreted by Kidneys; check ACR and eGFR

NB. plasma lithium levels increase with drugs that deplete sodium (competitive reabsorption at the renal level)

A

Mood stabilizer

Management of acute manic/ hypomanic episodes

Prophylaxis of bipolar illness. Highly effective at reducing relapes of manic episodes and suicide rates.

Can be used to augment the effect of antidepressants when co-prescribed with antidepressants in acute depressive illness.

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126
Q

What is Dipyridamole?

A

Dipyridamole is an antiplatelet medication that also has vasodilating properties that can make it unsuitable for use in those with severe coronary artery disease, unstable angina, recent myocardial infarction.

Can be combined with aspirin as an option to prevent occlusive vascular events in patients who have had a TIA, or ischaemic stroke.

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127
Q

What drug can be used to treat subarachnoid haemorrhage headaches?

A

Nimodipine

  • calcium antagonist which has shown to improve outcome following SAH, probably as a result of reduced cerebral vasospasm
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128
Q

Thrush (vaginal and vulval candidiasis)

Candida albicans

Risk Factors; diabetes (definite risk factor)

A

Presents; itching (puritis vulvae), soreness

white, cheesy discharge NON-OFFENSIVE

mild dyspareunia

dysuria

NB. Thrush can give symptoms of UTI

Signs: vulval erthema (and possible oedema), satellite lesions, excoriation.

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129
Q

Stroke tx whilst awaiting CT scan results

A

Px NBM

Nasogastric tube, IV fluids

Oxygen mask, monitor cardiac rhythm (digoxin if needed)

Possibly catheter to monitor output

Aspirin 75mg

Statins (low dose) even if lipid levels normal

TED (thromboembolic disease) stockings

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130
Q

LVF Bundle

A
  1. ABCDE, then oxygen
  2. perform ECG, bloods, CXR, and ABG
  3. treat arrhythmias >150 or <40
  4. Call cardiologist reg BP <100, or STEMI
  5. GTN 0.5mg if BP>100
  6. Furosemide
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131
Q

When are the representative drugs steptokinase, alteplase indicated?

A

intravenously to degrade thrombi in px with

MI, thromvotic stroke, PE

Primary means of restoring coronary blood flow if angioplasty facilities not available.

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132
Q

Dysarthria isn’t just due to stroke. What are other causes?

A

multiple sclerosis

cerebellar disease

motor neuone disease

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133
Q

Characteristics of migraines

A
  • often unilateral. Recurrent
  • usually pulsatile
  • builds up over minutes to hours
  • occurs with or with aura
  • associations include; nausea & vomiting, photophobia, sound sensitivity, family history
  • exacerbation with physical activity
  • triggers; cheese, chocolate, etc.

NB. neurological exam should be negative

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134
Q

What is Sotalol?

A

Drug used for serious abnormal heart rhythms.

Can cause prolongation of the QT interval along with a small risk of life-threatening polymorphic ventricular tachycardia known as torsade de pointes.

Non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker that also exhibits class III antiarrhythmic properties.

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135
Q

Characteristic of anterior cerebral artery occlusion

A

patient’s leg will be more affected than face or arm.

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136
Q

Where should the nasogastric tube go?

A

into the gastric bubble

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137
Q

What are the characteristics of myopathies?

A

Tone is affected

Reflexes are affected

* it doesn’t affect sensation *

* no fasciculations *

muscle weakness is usually proximal and symmetrical

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138
Q

What activates the extrinsic pathway in the coagulation cascade?

A

a complex tissue factor called thromboplastin.

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139
Q

Can PE cause syncope?

A

YES

and frequently overlooked reason!!

PE can obstruct outflow from the right ventricle.

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140
Q

Secondary headaches

A
  • vascular
  • infectious
  • neo-plastic
  • drug induced cause
  • traumas
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141
Q

What pulse values might signify arrhythmias?

A

bradycardic <40

tachy cardic >140

or irregular

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142
Q

Investigation to confirm pertussis?

A

per nasal swap

caused by Bordetella pertussis bacterium

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143
Q

What is neglect?

A

Inability of a person to process and perceive stimuli on one side of the body or environment

It is most common after damage to the right hemisphere (therefore left hemispatial neglect). Right hemisphere of the brain is specialized for spatial perception and memory, whereas the left hemisphere is specialized for language.

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144
Q

ECG - normal, then what?

What findings?

A

strongly consider an alternative diagnosis

ST elevation/ depression

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145
Q

What drugs could elicit serotonin syndrome?

A

Drugs include SSRIs, other antidepressants, opioid analgesics, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, serotonin-releasing agents (e.g., amfetamines), lithium, and tryptophan.

Absence of exposure excludes serotonin toxicity.

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146
Q

Treatment of Huntington’s Disease

A

symptoms are consistent with excessive dopaminergic activity,

therefore drugs that block dopamine receptors (eg. haloperidol)

Diazepam potentiates GABA and thus help to reduce movements. Efficacy of benzodiazepines declines with disease progression.

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147
Q

What is Torsades des Pointes?

  • ‘twisting of points’
A
  • focus of VT moves around the myocardium. Appears as a sine wave.

TX: cardioversion + Magnesium

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148
Q

What kind of heart failure can develop with chronic lung disease?

A

Right sided heart failure

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149
Q

Personality Disorders

personality should be personal and flexible and stable and enable attachments.

Personalities are flexible and responsible.

Inflexibility; pathological. Maladaption to social and personal situations.

Change with time.

Comprises of ; genetic traits and environmental encounters.

The self : psychological interaction with the world.

Social relationships with others. Our own narrative.

Empathy and reflective.

A

Disorders: Impaired social functioning. Can’t find appropriate distance between others. Oscillate between people who can help them.

Maybe deviant social behaviour, or social withdrawal.

Personalities disorders

A: Asocial

B: Antisocial : violent to self, self-harming, also violence to others. Rule-breakers.

C: socially phobia: Most common

A & C groups often don’t seek help.

B: seek help but don’t use effectively.

Co-morbidities very common; psychosis, substance abuse, self-harming, etc. Poor social functioning.

Aetiology: genetics and repeated stressful environment; neglect/ abuse/ emotional trauma. Repeated hostile encounters. Insecure attachments to others has a big impact.

Presents late childhood/ early adolesence.

Can remit/ relapse in life.

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150
Q

Can Heparin be given orally?

A

No because heparin and related anticoagulants are not absorbed from the gut (large molecules) and so much be administered by IV.

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151
Q

What is crack?

A

a purified, very addictive form of cocaine. Crack ‘high’ is extremely short and on withdrawal, persecutory delusions are common.

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152
Q

What underlying CARDIAC conditions predispose to AF. What are these?

A
  • HTN
  • CAD
  • RHD
  • Also inflammation plays a role.
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153
Q

Management of stable angina (generally)

A
  • Treat the underlying cause (eg. anaemia)
  • management of coexisting problems (diabetes, hypertension)
  • Evaluation of risk factors
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154
Q

What are some ‘negative’ symptoms of psychosis?

A
  • Underactivity - which also affects speech.
  • Low motivation.
  • Social withdrawal.
  • Emotional flattening.
  • Self-neglect.
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155
Q

Can you see the borders of the heart with pleural effusion?

Can you see through consolidation?

A

NO

YES

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156
Q

What common things can bring on palpitations?

A

>> caffeine

Nicotine from smoking

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157
Q
A

Dacryoadenitis

  • Swelling of the outer portion of the upper lid, with possible redness and tenderness
  • Pain in the area of swelling
  • Excess tearing or discharge
  • Swelling of lymph nodes in front of the ear

Common causes include mumps, Epstein-Barr virus, staphylococcus, and gonococcus.

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158
Q

Psychosis defined

A

A severe mental disorder in which there is extreme impairment to think cleary, respond with appropriate emotion, communicate effectively, understand reality and behave appropriately

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159
Q

Bones of skull

A
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160
Q

Naltrexone

A

Prevent a relapse or limit the amount of alcohol consumed.

Blocks opioid receptors

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161
Q

What sounds would you hear with LVF?

A

LUB-DUB-uh

“galloping horses”

  • too much fluid
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162
Q

What would you find on ascultation?

A

bilateral crackles; widespread.

‘Fine’ crackles

3rd heart sound or gallop

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163
Q

What’s the two major risks of AF?

A
  • embolic stroke
  • heart failure
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164
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

Schizophrenia is the most common form of psychosis. It is a lifelong condition, which can take on either a chronic form or a form with relapsing and remitting episodes of acute illness

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165
Q

Harmful effects of MDMA - Ectasy

A
  • dehydration
  • hyponatraemia from excess water consumption
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166
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of cimetidine, famotidine, ranitidine

(histamine H2-receptor antagonists)

A

drugs compete with histamine for binding to H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells.

Reduce volume and conc of gastric acid. This also proportionally decreases pepsin. (Gastric acid is the pepsinogen-pepsin catalyst)

cimetidine - weak antiandrogenic activity; can cause gynecomastia in elderly men.

cimetidine - WELL-KNOWN - inhibits P450 enzymes, therefore care with polypharmacy.

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167
Q

Physiologically, what are the two categories that can cause coronary heary disease?

A
  1. Mechanical obstructions
  • atheroma
  • thrombosis
  • spasm
  • coronary arteritis (eg. in SLE)
  1. decrease in flow of oxygenated blood to myocardium
  • Anaemia
  • hypotension (causing decrease coronary perfusion pressure)
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168
Q

What is ophthalmoplegia?

A

paralysis (-plegia) of one or more extraocular muscles which are responsible for eye movements.

It is a physical finding in certain neurologic, ophthalmologic, and endocrine disease.

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169
Q

How long does it take for myocardial necrosis after coronary artery occlusion?

A

15-30 mins

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170
Q

General managment of cardiomyopathy

A

Can’t be cured.

Beta blockers to control HR

Anti-coagulants

diruretics

ICD (implantable cardioverter defibrillators)

Heart transplant

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171
Q

paroxysmal noctural dyspnoea could be asthma or heart failure, so what could be differentiating symptom?

A

asthma; wheeze

heart failure; also have frothy, bloodstained sputum

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172
Q

Schizophrenia - facts

A

type of psychosis; person can’t distinguish their own thoughts and ideas from reality.

“a mental disorder characterised by abnormal social behaviour and failure to understand reality.”

symptoms:

hallucinations

delusions (unusual beliefs not based on reality),

false beliefs, hearing voices

Cause: genetic/ environmental

Risk factors: FH, cannabis during adolescence, being raised in a city, older father, problems during pregnancy

Treatment: anti-psychotics and CBT

<< life expectancy due to >> suicide, heart and lifestyle disease.

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173
Q

Gastrin and acetylcholine also stimulates the release of ……. from paracrine cells

A

Histamine

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174
Q

Diagram of heart blood supply

A
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175
Q

Are px with carotid artery stenosis at risk of embolic stroke?

+ exclusions?

A

Yes, especially if stenosis 70-99% (very high risk). Also: is px well enough to receive tx?

Carotid stenosis diagnosis; doppler

Exclusions?

haemorrhagic strokes - TACI or POCI

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176
Q

What are some serious withdrawal symptoms of alcohol?

A

Intoxication :hypoglycaemia (acute intoxication), cerebellum symptoms

Withdrawal: autonomic hyperactivity, insomnia, hallucinations, tremor, (could be ‘delirium tremens), nausea

  • seizures possible
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177
Q

what eye condition is associated with MS?

important

A

optic neuritis

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178
Q

Usually heart sits on diaphragm but with COPD….

A

maybe air under the heart as diaphragm is flattened.

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179
Q

if there is consolidation and CAN see the heart outline then…

A

more likely lower lobe.

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180
Q

Emotionally unstable personality disorder

(previously known as borderline personality disorder)

Types (2)

A

Impulsive: emotional instability and lack of impulse control. Outbursts of violence or threatening behaviour are common, particularly in response to criticism by others.

Borderline: Several of the characteristics of emotional instability are present; in addition, the patient’s own self-image often is disturbed. There are usually chronic feelings of emptiness. Intense and unstable relationships may cause repeated emotional crises and may be associated with excessive efforts to avoid abandonment and a series of suicidal threats or acts of self-harm

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181
Q

Sudden onset headache could be:

A

meningitis

subarachnoid haemorrhage

migraine

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182
Q

Akathisia

A

Akathisia is a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and inability to stay still.

Usually the legs are most prominently affected.

People may fidget, rock back and forth, or pace.

The first generation antipsychotics, are a leading cause.

Around half of people on antipsychotics develop the condition.

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183
Q

ICD-10 Personality Disorder definition

A

A severe disturbance in the characterological condition and behavioural tendencies of the individual, usually involving several areas of the personality and nearly always associated with considerable personal and social disruption.

‘Personality disorders are a long-standing and maladaptive pattern of perceiving and responding to other people and to stressful circumstances.’

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184
Q
A

Giant cell arteritis

painless visual loss, px usually >60.

Scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, headache.

Blindness if not prompt treatment.

refer.

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185
Q

What is coronary artherosclerosis?

A

an inflammatory process characterized by accumulation of lipid, macrophages and smooth muscle cells in the intima endothelium of large/ medium coronary arteries.

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186
Q

What is included in acute coronary syndromes?

A
  • ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
  • Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
  • Unstable angina (UA)
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187
Q

Which is the most common valvular heart disease?

A

Mitral regurgitation

  • abnormal leaking of blood from the LV to the LA during systole.
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188
Q

What are the symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A

Symptoms only develop when stenosis is moderately severe (reduced to 1/4 of original size)

  • angina (CHD isn’t only cause of angina!)
  • dyspnoea
  • exercise induced syncope (and pre-syncope)

Poor prognosis when patient develops these symptoms. NB> At auscultation elderly px, murmour more at apex (misinterpreted as mitral regurgitation)

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189
Q

paranoia defined

A

Paranoia is thinking and feeling as if you are under threat even though there is no (or very little) evidence that you are.

Paranoid thoughts can also be described as delusions.

Paranoid thoughts could also be exaggerated suspicions. For example, someone made a nasty comment about you once, and you believe that they are directing a hate campaign against you.

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190
Q

Tell me about HIT 2

A

less common, more serious.

Immunoglobulin mediated platelet inactivation.

High risk of thrombotic complications and mortality.

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191
Q

In addition to severe chest pain, what else do you get with MI?

A

autonomic symptoms; pale and clammy patient, marked sweating. thready pulse, significant hypotension. Bradycardia or tachycardia.

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192
Q

What are positive and negative symptoms in mental health?

A

Positive: symptoms that most people don’t experience, e.g. delusions, hallucinations, disordered thoughts

Negative: deficits of normal emotional response, or other throught processes.

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193
Q

Name three important opiates

A

Heroin

Morphine

Methadone

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194
Q

Management of serotonin syndrome

A

Recent ingestion: activated charcoal

IV fluids, benzodiazepines to control agitation

Check half-life of ingested drug

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195
Q

What is Dipyridamole?

What is it indicated for?

A

Dipyridamole a coronary vasodilator and a relatively weak antiplatelet drug.

Dipyridamole is used in COMBO with aspirin to prevent ischaemic stroke in px with history of thrombotic stroke, and persons experiencing TIAs.

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196
Q

Which is the pulse of choice during cardiac arrest?

A

Carotid pulse

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197
Q
A

Acute-angle closure glaucoma

acutely painful red eye.

Px usually > 60, other symptoms; headache, nausea, blurred vision and haloes around lights.

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198
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of promethazine

(antihistamine)

A

H1 Antihistamine

treats nausea and vomiting induced by medications, anesthetics, and a wide range of other stimuli.

Rectal suppository or injection.

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199
Q

Bipolar affective disorder (previously called manic depression)

definition

A

recurrent episodes of altered mood and activity, involving both upswings and downswings.

ICD 10: at least two episodes, including one hypomanic or manic episode.

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200
Q

What three factors combined often lead to thrombic changes?

A
  • sluggish blood flow
  • inflammation
  • abnormalities in vascular endothelium
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201
Q

dopamine hypothesis and schizophrenia

A

abnormalities in dopamine neurotransmission in mesolimbic and mesocortical neuronal pathways.

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202
Q

Knights move

and

Flight of idea

A

KM: a thought disorder denoting a lack of connection between ideas. Found in schizophenia.

FOI: Accelerated thinking seen in mania and hypomanic illness. There is always a link in thought processes.

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203
Q

How Warfarin monitored?

A

Prothrombin Time (PT)

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204
Q

Which drugs (including recreational) can precipitate or exacerbate angina?

A

Starting thyroxine

cocaine & amphetamines - can cause MI, arrhythmias

Also NSAIDS

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205
Q

What organisms can cause Dacryoadenitis?

A

Common causes include mumps, Epstein-Barr virus, staphylococcus, and gonococcus.

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206
Q

Management of psychosis

A

Try and recognise early. Reduce time between appearance of symptoms and initiating therapy (i.e. duration of untreated psychosis).

Accelerate remission and prevent relapse.

Are there external factors? drugs? alcohol?

Family intervention

Maximise the patient’s ability to get back to normal life.

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207
Q

What’s the difference between UA and NSTEMI?

A

NSTEMI;

occluding thrombus - myocardial necrosis - rise in serum troponins

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208
Q

Diagram of vomiting pathways

A
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209
Q

foramen and fissures of the orbit

A
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210
Q
A
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211
Q

What is Serotonin Syndrome? - triad

(serotonin toxicity)

  • adverse reaction to serotonergic agents

often underdiagnosed due to heterogeneity of presentation.

A
  • autonomic hyperactivity
  • neuromuscular abnormality
  • mental status changes

(not all present in all cases)

Diagnosis based on history taking, symptoms usually start within six hours of provoking drug.

Can progress from restlessness, diaphoresis, neuromuscular dysfunction to confusion, convulsions and death.

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212
Q

What is formication associated with?

A

Cocaine; visual/ tactile hallucinations of insects.

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213
Q

In the case of ischaemic stroke, what is the window for treatment?

A

3 hours from onset of symptoms.

(this includes getting a CT scan!)

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214
Q

What are the four main cardiovascular causes of syncope?

A
  • postural hypotension
  • neurocardiogenic syncope (eg. standing for long time in warm place)
  • arrhymias (esp. AF)
  • mechanical obstruction to cardiac output - hypertrophy or aortic stenosis, PE
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215
Q

What does broad QRS indicate?

A

bundle branch block

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216
Q

Freezing is Parkinson’s is called…

A

hypokinesia

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217
Q

What’s the management of acute thromboembolic disorders?

A

LMWH (Low molecular weight heparin) plus warfarin, and then withdraw LMWH when warfarin is effective.

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218
Q

What does hypokalaemia do to myocardiocytes?

A

Makes them more likely to depolarise spontaneously.

  • Also hypomagnesaemia

(Also hypercalcaemia although clinically less significant)

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219
Q

How do antipsychotics work?

A

block (antagonists) to dopamine D2 receptors

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220
Q

How would you assess conscious level?

A

AVPU

Alert,

Voice,

Pain,

Unresponsive

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221
Q

What’s the most important diagnostic aid for valvular disorders?

A

Echocardiography

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222
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

10-20% have rapid cycling - defined as four or more cycles of depression and mania a year, with no intervening asymptomatic episodes.

In cyclothymic disorder, moods swing between short periods of mild depression and hypomania, an elevated mood. The low and high mood swings never reach the severity or duration of major depressive or full mania episodes.

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223
Q

What’s the most important prostaglandin affecting platelet aggregation?

A

prostacyclin and TXA2

(prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase; enzyme that catalyzes TXA2 synthesis.

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224
Q

Three characteristics of PD

A
  • resting tremor
  • rigidity (inability to initiate movements)
  • bradykinesia (slowness of movement)
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225
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of psyllium

(bulk forming laxative)

A

Indigestible hydrophilic drug

absorbs water and increases mass of stool. This stimulates mech peristalsis.

Also used to treat diarrhoea

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226
Q

What can cause orthopnoea?

A
  • Fluid accumulating in the lungs due to congestive heart failure
  • Asthma (maybe trigggered by oesophageal reflex)
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227
Q

Does Warfarin act immediately?

A

No because pool of circulating clotting factors needs to be depleted first.

Synthesis of new factors is then inhibited.

(takes 3-5 days to reach maximal effect)

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228
Q

Bipolar affective disorder : important fact about depression screening

A

Adults presenting with depression should be asked about previous periods of overactivity or disinhibited behaviour.

If the overactivity or disinhibited behaviour lasted for four days or more: referral

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229
Q

What’s the medical name for lazy eye?

A

Amblyopia

  • the eye and brain not working well together.
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230
Q

Rapid recognition of atrial flutter….

A

narrow QRS complexes at 150 bpm

Turn ECG upside down and look at leads II, III + aVF

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231
Q

Examination; clinical features of pericardial effusion

A

heart sounds soft and distant

apex beat commonly obsured

frictional rub (only at early stages, quieter as fluid accumulates)

Raised JVP

Friedreich’s sign

Kussmaul’s sign

Pulsus paradoxus

< CO

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232
Q

Two major groups that are stimulants

A

Cocaine

Amphetamines

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233
Q

What organism can cause a dendritic ulcer on the retina?

A

Herpes simplex

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234
Q

What is Korsakoff psychosis?

(example of an amnesic disorder)

A

Korsakoff psychosis is a late complication of persistent Wernicke encephalopathy and results in memory deficits, confusion, and behavioral changes.

Korsakoff psychosis occurs in 80% of untreated patients with Wernicke encephalopathy

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235
Q

Tx of bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole or clindamycin

avoid vaginal douching

avoid detergents (vagina is self-cleaning)

associated with SMALL risk of preterm birth.

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236
Q

Some common uses of Warfarin

A

Long-term treatment of DVT

Patients with AF

Patients with artificial heart valves.

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237
Q

what may preceed a prodomal aura?

A

Premonition; hunger, energy surges, irritability.

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238
Q

Which physical examinations for dizziness?

A

cardiovascular - vascular disease, AF

neurological - cranial nerve palsy, cerebellar signs, abnormal gait, limb weakness/ hemiparesis

ear examination

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239
Q

Can you see glass on CXR?

A

nope

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240
Q

Headache; red flags

A
  • new onset or changes in headache in px over 50 years old
  • thunderclap
  • focal neurological symptoms
  • abnormal neurological examination
  • headache that changes with posture
  • wakes up px during night
  • worse for valsalva manoeuvre
  • thrombosis risks
  • jaw claudication
  • neck stiffness with fever
  • new onset with cancer/ HIV px
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241
Q

Area for receptive aphasia

A
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242
Q

Wernicke korsakoff

(thiamine deficiency)

-associated with alcholics

triad of symptoms

A
  • acute confusion
  • ataxia
  • opthalmoplegia

tx. IV thiamine hydrochloride

untreated 20% mortality

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243
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis caused by?

A

an antibody against AChR

(acetylcholine receptor)

autoimmune disease; antibodies that block or destroy nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the junction between the nerve and muscle.

This prevents nerve impulses from triggering muscle contractions

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244
Q

Schizophrenia is a common type of psychosis.

The presence of only one of the following symptoms is strongly predictive of the diagnosis:

A
  • Lack of insight.
  • Auditory hallucinations, especially the echoing of thoughts, or a third person ‘commentary’ on one’s actions - eg, ‘Now he’s putting on his coat.’
  • Thought insertion, removal or interruption - delusions about external control of thought.
  • Thought broadcasting - the delusion that others can hear one’s thoughts.
  • Delusional perceptions (ie abnormal significance for a normal event) - eg, ‘The rainbow came out and I realised I was the son of God.’
  • External control of emotions.
  • Somatic passivity - thoughts, sensations and actions are under external control.
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245
Q

What is a hemiplegic gait and what does it imply?

A

Unilateral upper motor neurone lesion.

circumduction of leg on affected side with foot plantar flexed.

Upper limb will be flexed.

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246
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A
  • high temperature of 38C or more
  • headache
  • blotchy rash that doesn’t fade when a glass is rolled over - septicaemia (
  • often not present)
  • stiff neck
  • photophobia, drowsiness, seizures, confusion,
  • aching muscles & joints,
  • cold hands & feet, tachypnoea
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247
Q

Acute LVF Management: What is morpine used for?

+ dose

A

Reduces sympathetic activity

reduces anxiety and work of breathing

“Titrate to good and bad symptoms”

Dose IV 1-4mg IV over 5-10 mins (preceeded by 10mg of metoclopramide)

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248
Q

Angina pain (that isn’t stable), if MI hasn’t been diagnosed, what is it termed?

A

Acute coronary syndrome

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249
Q

How effective is prophylaxic treatment of AF with warfarin in preventing strokes?

A

yearly risk of cerebral embolism reduced from 3% to 1%.

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250
Q

Types of Bipolar affective disorder

A
  • Bipolar I - the full monty
  • Bipolar II - does not have full criteria of mania - it’s hypomania. NO psychotic symptoms.
  • cyclothymic disorder
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251
Q

what could air under the diaphragm be?

A

perforated intestine

(rem. gastric bubble on the left)

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252
Q

central vertigo causes

A

stroke

MS

infection

trauma

acoustic neuroma

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253
Q

What would you include in D - disability?

A

access consious level

blood sugar levels

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254
Q

Aetiology of substance abuse - diagram

A
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255
Q

What is used primarily for the treatment of motion sickness?

A

Scopalamine - muscarinic receptor antagonist similar to atropine.

Been used by astronauts.

Skin patch slow 72 hr release.

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256
Q

Emotionally unstable personality disorder

(previously known as borderline personality disorder)

defined.

A

Emotionally unstable personality disorder is characterised by pervasive instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image and mood and impulsive behaviour. The term ‘borderline’ is misleading.

‘sometimes rapid fluctuation from periods of confidence to despair, with fear of abandonment and rejection’

strong tendency towards suicidal thinking and self-harm.’

’ interaction between adverse life events and genetic factors.’

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257
Q

Which SSRI has a long half-life?

A

Fluoxetine

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258
Q

Conjunctivitis characteristics

A
  • red, watery eye, often bilateral.
  • VA is usually normal.
  • bacterial or viral

Infectious, topical treatment,

NB> check for FB, abrasion before diagnosing conjunctivitis

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259
Q

Overdose symptoms of opiates

(heroin, morphine, methadone)

A
  • Miosis
  • Respiratory depression
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260
Q

If you can’t see the right edge of the heart then…

A

possible middle lobe pneumonia

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261
Q

Lack of expression may indicate

A

Parkinson’s disease

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262
Q

Phimosis - definition

A

narrowing of the preputial orifice which prevents foreskin retraction.

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263
Q

F A S T

A

F - face. Has their face fallen on one side?

A - arms. Are the unable to raise one arm?

S - speech. It is affected?

T - time . Call 999 if any of the above is positive.

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264
Q

If pain doesn’t subside after 3 sprays (5 min interval) of GTN then….

A

assume myocardial infarction.

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265
Q

What is antithrombin?

A

an endogenous anticoagulant (potent inhibitor of coagulation)

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266
Q

When do you use the Qrisk2 calculator?

A

If you do not already have a diagnosis of coronary heart disease (including angina or heart attack) or stroke/transient ischaemic attack.

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267
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of milk of magnesia

(osmotic laxative)

A

poorly absorbed salt that osmotically attracts water.

Administer to px to evacuate the bowel in prep for surgery.

Danger> loss of fluids and electrolytes

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268
Q

What are the symptoms of stable angina?

A
  • Crushing sensation in chest or neighbouring areas
  • associated with effort
  • relieved by rest of nitroglyerin
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269
Q

When do you find a positive Extensor Plantar Response (Babinski)

A

Upper motor neuron lesion

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270
Q

Anorexia nervosa

The Facts

A

10 x more common in females.

often starts in teenage years

restrict consumption of food and drink.

Dangerous low weight. Deliberate weight loss; main symptom.

typically 15% or more below expected weight and BMI below 17.5

Can: vomiting after eating, use of laxatives

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271
Q

What could cause a pale retina?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

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272
Q

What are the cardinal features of a MCA stroke?

A
  • hemiplegia (paralysis) of the contralateral side, affecting the lower part of the face, arm, and hand while largely sparing the leg
  • contralateral (opposite-side) sensory loss in the same areas
  • contralateral homonymous hemianopia—visual-field deficits affecting the same half of the visual field in both eyes.
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273
Q

When do you get fibrillations and fasciculations?

A

Lower motor neurone lesions

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274
Q

What are some of the causes of mitral regurgitation?

A

Acute mitral regurgitation; commonly endocarditis (S. Aureus).

Also; papillary muscle rupture/ dysfunction, mitral valve prolapse

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275
Q

Name the four types of supraventricular arrhythmias

A
  • AF
  • Atrial flutter
  • PSVT (paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia)
  • WPW (wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
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276
Q

Management of Bipolar affective disorder (previously called manic depression)

A

Develop a good rapport and trusting relationship with patient and their carers.

Self-help groups, support groups, self-monitoring of symptoms, coping strategies, psychological therapy.

  • Drugs commonly used are haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine and risperidone.

Titrate to max dose if needed. Change to a different drug if ineffective.

  • Consider adding lithium if still ineffective. If Lithium not appropriate try valproate.
  • If px taking anti-depressants with anti-psychotics, then stop the anti-depressants in the mania stage.

NB> antidepressants in bipolar disorder can INDUCE mania or hypomania or rapid cycling. Best use to combine with anti-psychotic.

  • Very careful withn women of child-bearing age: Advise about contraceptive usage.
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277
Q

What drugs can cause hypovolemia?

A

diuretics

chronic use of Beta-Blockers (slows heart and << contractility). Bradycardia often produces hypotension.

chronic use of Alpha-Blockers

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278
Q

What is the most common symptom of peripheral vascular disease?

A

intermittent claudication; calf pain on walking (comes and goes).

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279
Q

How do you measure the size of the heart from an x-ray?

A
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280
Q

Name three LMWH

A

enoxaparin

dalteparin

tinzaparin

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281
Q

Important case history questions to ask re CVD

A

What degree of activity causes chest pain or breathlessness?

eg. walking up stairs?

Can they continue with their normal activities/ hobbies?

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282
Q

Which neural pathway do the negative psychotic symptoms affect?

A

Lack of activity in the mesocortical neuronal pathway

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283
Q

Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage headache diagnosis

A

CT scan (reliability 90% only)

If CT negative, LP > 12 hours following onset of symptoms.

LP: uniform RBC in bottles suggests SAH

Presence of bilirubin suggests bleed (and not trauma)

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284
Q

optic neuritis- signs, symptoms, treatment

A

Optic neuritis is a demyelinating inflammation of the optic nerve.

sudden loss of vision (partial or complete), sudden blurred or “foggy” vision, and pain on movement of the affected eye

20-30% of the time optic neuritis is the presenting sign of MS.

285
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign?

A

Rise in JVP/ increased neck vein distension during inspiration.

286
Q

what middle-aged changes to you get on the Bruch’s membrane (behind retinal pigment epithelium)?

A

Yellow drusen

287
Q

What happens to the reflexes in an upper motor lesion?

A

They become EXAGGERATED on the side affected by the stroke

288
Q

What is the cardinal sign of retinoblastoma (rare)

A

NO RED REFLEX

Children under 5 at risk.

Usually unilateral

289
Q

Reduced reflexes at achilles could indicate a lower motor lesion. What else?

A

diabetic neuropathy

290
Q

How does an upper motor neurone lesion affect the face?

A

only affects lower part of one side.

291
Q
A

Orbital cellulitis; an emergency and requires intravenous (IV) antibiotics.

In contrast to orbital cellulitis, patients with periorbital cellulitis do not have bulging of the eye (proptosis), limited eye movement (ophthalmoplegia), pain on eye movement, or loss of vision.

292
Q

Why do you have to be careful adminstering verapamil for angina if the patient also has heart failure?

A

Because it suppress cardiac contractility.

293
Q

When is clopidogrel indicated?

A
  • px who can’t tolerate aspirin
  • used in COMBINATION with aspirin for ACS
294
Q

Which antibiotic could be used for anerobic bacteria infections, e.g. bacterial vaginosis?

A

metronidazole

(also used for H.pylori)

295
Q

Acute LVF Management: What investigations?

A

ABG

ECG

BP, etc.

CXR

chest examination. Need to rule out other causes of breathlessness

296
Q

Which neural pathway do the positive psychotic symptoms affect?

A

>> neuronal activity in the mesolimbic neuronal pathway

297
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of omeprazole

(proton pump inhibitor)

A

inhibitors of proton-pump, Strong inhibitors of gastric acid

Choice drug for peptic ulcers

Choice drug for GERD

Choice drug for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Choice drug for long-term NSAID therapy

hypomagnesemia can occur with long-term PPI therapy.

298
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of calcium carbonate

(gastric antiacid)

A

chemically neutralize stomach acid.

Commonly used for acid indigestion and dyspepsia.

Can cause some constipation, can cause rebound acid secretion.

299
Q

What is the anatomical signifiance of the central artery of the retina?

A

It runs WITHIN the optic nerve.

It’s an end artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery.

300
Q

What’s the name for blood in the front (anterior) chamber of the eye.

It may appear as a reddish tinge, or it may appear as a small pool of blood at the bottom of the iris or in the cornea.

A

hyphaema

301
Q

What are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms?

A

Aneurysms in the small penetrating blood vessels of the brain.

They are associated with hypertension.

The common artery involved is the lenticulostriate branch of the middle cerebral artery.

302
Q

Mild LVF management

A

Start on furosemide 40mg.

If already on furosemide then give normal dose twice per day

303
Q

Manageble O2 Sats for

COPD

Normal patients

A

88-92%

94-98%

304
Q

how could you confirm a pleural effusion?

A

take a CXR side lying.

305
Q

name a couple of psychotic symptoms

A

delusions

hallucinations

306
Q

What could cause Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA); i.e. normal ECG, no CO?

A
  • tension pneumothorax
  • hypovolaemia
  • tamponade
  • thrombosis
307
Q

Case Hx taking. SOCRATES.

Also include…

A

Onset; fast, gradual, prodomal?

duration and resolution?

visual disturbances?

frequency

reoccurence

possible triggers

308
Q

What’s the most common cause of hypotension?

A

hypovolemia

Often induced by excessive use of diuretics

309
Q

What’s the first line treatment for suspected schizophrenia?

A

atypicals; risperidone or olanzapine.

Benzodiazepines if needed to aid sleep and reduce agitation.

Mood stabilisers ; lithium, carbamazepine under specialist supervision.

310
Q

Summary

peptic ulcer meds

A

Histamine H2 receptor antagonists, or a proton pump inhibitor, or a cytoprotective agent

+

antibiotics for H.pylori

311
Q

What’s this?

A

Pterygium

  • triangular growth of conjunctival tissue onto the cornea.

Usually doesn’t affect vision unless encroaches on central vision or distorts the shape of the eye causing astigmatism.

312
Q

Myocardial oxygen demand is determined by the amount of energy to support the heart. What three factors influence cardiac work?

A
  1. Heart Rate
  2. Cardiac contractility
  3. Myocardial wall tension (pressure exerted on the myocardial wall)
313
Q

Definition of syncope

A

Loss of consciousness due to cerebral hypoperfusion

Presyncope ; feeling of impending loss of consciousness

314
Q

Which drugs can cause headaches? (4)

A
  • GTN
  • dipyridamole (coronary vasodilator/ weak antiplatelet drug)
  • nifedipine
  • sildenafil
315
Q

What is BPPV?

(benign paraoxysmal positional vertigo)

A

dislodgement of calcium crystals in inner ear.

vertigo symptoms lasts seconds to minutes and can be induced by head movements.

Diagnosis confirmed with Dix-Hallpike test

tx. Epley manouvre

316
Q

What might the prodomal aura comprise of?

  • neurological symptoms evolving gradually over a few mins.

NB. Stroke: symptoms arise instantaneously.

A

visual symptoms - scintillations, hemianiopia

altered sensation of face or limbs, e.g. tingling

rare: ‘basilar’ migraine with diplopia and vertigo

(not all migraines have auras)

317
Q

Why are ACEIs used for heart failure?

A

Because they lower both venous and arterial pressure.

<< venous pressure lowers oedema

Dilating of arteries reduces cardiac afterload, thus increasing cardiac output.

IMP: ACEIs also slow or reverse CARDIAC REMODELING.

318
Q

Some advantages of NOACs/ DOACs

A
  • few interactions with food/ drugs
  • predictable anticoagulant effect
  • no need for routine monitoring
319
Q

What is the relationship between histamine and gastric acid production?

A

histamine stimulates H2 receptors located on parietal cells and provokes acid secretion.

320
Q

What is the common mechanism of acute coronary syndrome?

A
  • rupture or erosion of the fibrous cap of a coronary artery plaque.
  • platelet aggregation and adhesion
  • localised thrombosis, vasoconstriction and distal thrombus embolization
321
Q

What’s the general symptoms of meningitis? (4)

A

Headache

fever

sore neck

rash

322
Q

What’s the most common cause of myocardial ischaemia?

A

Obstructive coronary artery disease in the form of coronary atherosclerosis.

NB> one in every six coronary attacks present with sudden death as first, last, and only symptom.

323
Q

Subdural bleed/ haematoma

A

Tearing of the veins stretching across the subdural space causes gradual seepage of blood, collecting to form a chronic subdural haematoma with eventual coma.

The delay between the blow and the development of symptoms may be of weeks or months. The elderly are particularly vulnerable and the head injury may be slight and forgotten.

Common head trauma in young adults.

324
Q

What are some causes of cor pulmonale?

A

ARDS, COPD, primary pulmonary hypertension, PE, ILD, sarcoidosis, etc.

325
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of senna, bisacodyl

(stimulant - secretory laxatives )

A

Alter fluid secretion and stimulates peristalsis

Bisacodyl; used to evacuate the bowel. Can cause cramping and electrolyte/ fluid depletion. SHORT term use only.

326
Q

management of corneal abrasion

A

remove FB with damp cotton bud/ bevel of needle (with slit lamp)

antibiotic ointment

review 2-3 if not improving.

327
Q

Which cells secrete gastrin?

A

G cells in the stomach’s antrum

328
Q

Aetiology of Bipolar affective disorder

A

genetic

environment; history of childhood neglect/ abuse

early postpartum weeks

sleep disturbance

329
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

enlargement and failure of the right ventricle of the heart as a response to increased vascular resistance or pulmonary hypertension in the lungs

Maybe parasternal heave (due to RV hypertrophy)

330
Q

Adverse reactions to streptokinase

A

bleeding, hypersensitivity reactions,

and reperfusion arrhymias (of interest)

anaphylactic shock can occur with streptokinase, therefore cannot be used repeatedly on same patient.

331
Q

Balanitis

A
332
Q

List of common causes of heart failure

(reduced capacity for the heart to pump)

A

Coronary heart disease

cardiomyopathy

valvular disease

heart rhythm disturbances

High systemic or pulmonary BP

Congenital causes

myocarditis (viral)

333
Q

What physiologically factors could bring on angina?

A

Anything that increases myocardial oxygen demand:

  • >> cardiac contraction
  • >> Heart Rate
  • >> Blood pressure (cold weather can cause peripheral vasoconstriction)
334
Q

What physiologically do all drugs of abuse have in common?

A

All activate the dopamine system in the mesolimbic reward pathway.

335
Q

Why can angina occur at night/ lying flat?

A
  • increase in venous return
  • possibly anti-angina drugs wearing off

(indicates severe CHD)

336
Q

What is the most common site for the occurrence of ischemic stroke

A

MCA

337
Q

Can you get arrhymias due to hypotension?

A

Yes

338
Q

What is morpine used for?

+ dose

A

Reduces sympathetic activity

reduces anxiety and work of breathing

“Titrate to good and bad symptoms”

Dose IV 1-4mg IV over 5-10 mins (preceeded by 10mg of metoclopramide)

339
Q

What are the traditional risk factors for CAD?

A

Age

Gender (men > women, although similar postmenopausally)

Family history, Smoking

Diet, Weight (worse with fat around the abdomen - visceral fat)

Hypertension

Hyperlipidaemia

340
Q

What is Takotsubo or ‘bloken heart’ syndrome?

A

Extreme stress - LV enlargement and weakened.

Usually temporary, improves with time.

341
Q

Clinical features of a manic or hypomanic episode

mania: NB if lack of insight this is more dangerous

A
  • < need for sleep, inflated self-esteem, decreased social inhibition with apparent disregard for potentially harmful consequences of:sexual overactivity, reckless spending, dangerous driving
  • easily distracted, bright clothes, unkempt, increased appetite, overactivity, grandiose ideas
  • thinking and speech is pressured, flight of ideas.

(mania only: mood-congruent delusions and hallucinations, usually auditory)

often lack of insight.

342
Q

What are the hallmarks of a psychotic illness?

A

Delusions

Hallucinations

Thought disorder

Lack of insight

343
Q

PE and acute pulmonary oedema, what could be a differentiating factors re: sob?

A

acute pulmonary oedema; prefers upright

PE; more comfortable lying flat and may faint if sitting upright.

344
Q

Symptoms of Parkinson’s

A

Higher tone. Cogwheel wrist

micrographia

Lack of facial expression

Dementia with later stages

Festinating gait

345
Q

What is the INR for recurrent embolization or artificial heart valves?

What is the INR for warfarin (generally)

A

3 - 4.5

2-3

346
Q

Neurosyphilis

A
  • often associated with HIV and AIDS
  • acute symptoms; headache, neck stiffness, seizures, cranial neuropathies
  • raised ICP/ hydrocephalus
  • possible upper motor neuron lesions
347
Q

Mx of stable angina?

A
  • all px get aspirin and a statin
  • GTN (can develop tolerance)
  • either a beta-blocker or CCB first-line based on comorbidities

NB. if CCB in monotherapy then choice a rate-limiting one; verapamil or diltiazem

NB. Never prescribe a beta-blocker with verapamil (risk of complete heart block)

348
Q

Which illnesses are associated with psychosis?

A

depression, bipolar disorder (manic-depressive illness), and sometimes with drug and alcohol abuse.

It can also occur in a number of neurological conditions and with drugs not associated with abuse

349
Q

What’s the pathology of mitral value regurgitation?

A

As LV volume increases over time with >> regurgitation, the LV contractile function deteriorates resulting in a decline in CO.

350
Q

What underlying NON-CARDIAC conditions predispose to AF?

A
  • hyperthyroidism
  • >> alcohol
  • increase risk with age
351
Q

Symptoms of temporal arteritis

A

visual loss; blood supply to retina is affected.

One-sided headache, very tender scalp; tender brushing hair

Typically new and continuous headache with those over 50 yrs. Gradual onset (wks-mtns)

Pain in jaw with chewing; jaw claudication

Can cause clots leading to stroke.

  • ESR often raised (>100)
352
Q

Severe tearing chest pain radiating through to the back

A

aortic dissection

353
Q

non-cardiogenic causes of oedema

A

nephrotic syndrome

Liver disease

Immobility

354
Q

What pharmaceutical intervention for low-risk CHD patients? (3)

A

aspirin/ clopidogrel (reduce platelet aggregation)

beta-blockers

nitrates

355
Q

What can cause sudden loss of vision?

A

retinal detachment

central retinal artery occlusion

vitreous detachment/ haemorrhage

+ full neurological examination for cv event

356
Q

What does INR stand for?

A

International normalized ratio

INR = (PT observed / PT control)

PT = prothrombin time

357
Q

What % of px presenting to hospital with strokes, fulfill criteria for thrombolytic tx, and what is the drug?

A

2%

Actilyse; recombinant tissue plasminogen activator alteplase

358
Q

Definition of heart failure

A

“when the heart is not pumping enough blood around the body to meet its needs”

IMP> It’s not a diagnosis, it just refers to the reduced function of the heart.

359
Q

lacunar infarct (LACI)

A

The most common type of stroke, and results from the occlusion of small penetrating arteries that provide blood to the brain’s deep structures

360
Q

What procedures/ investigations will help if scrotal hernia is suspected?

A

Ask px to lie down - does it return to abdomen?

Can you get fingers about the mass in the scrotum?

Listen for bowel sounds.

Can you (or px) reduce the hernia?

Ask px to do Valsalva maneuver to increase intra-abdominal pressure.

361
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of ondansetron

(phenothiazines)

A

Selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist; competitively block 5-HT3 receptors. I.e. blocks stimuli from the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

Acts both peripherally and centrally (vomiting centre)

Indicated for : cancer chemotherapy-induced emesis.

Adverse effects: headache, constipation, and diarrhoa.

362
Q

nerve reflexes (which levels)

biceps

supinator

triceps

patellar

achilles

A

C5

C6

C7

L4

S1

363
Q

What routine blood test would you do?

A

FBC

U + E

LFT

CRP

Troponin I

(anaemia + differential WBC)

364
Q

Which pathway does Warfarin affect?

A

Both intrinsic and extrinsic

365
Q

What initiates the formation of platelets along the vascular wall?

A

injury and the expose of the blood to extravascular collagen.

366
Q

What breathlessness signs are associated with LVF?

A

orthopnea

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

dyspnoea on exertion.

367
Q

How do B Blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

A

<< Heart Rate

<< heart contractility

368
Q

What’s the main problem with benzodiazepines?

A
  • dependence
  • withdrawal (including seizures)
  • Tolerance
369
Q

What’s the most common cause of rigt heart failure?

A

Left heart failure!!

It’s not pulmonary parenchymal or vascular disease

370
Q

If HR is 150 what is the rhythm likely to be?

A

atrial flutter

371
Q

What must never be missed and could cause avascular necrosis?

A

septal haematoma

(swelling from the medial side of a fractured nose)

372
Q

What are ST-T changes?

A

depression of ST segment with T wave inversion.

373
Q

What causes AF?

A

Damage to the heart’s conducting system, often from other cardiac conditions

  • high BP
  • CAD
  • rheumatic heart disease

+ commonly inflammation

374
Q

Key mechanism of Warfarin (coumarin compounds)

A

Vitamin K antagonist

Vitamin K is used to synthesis coagulation factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X

375
Q

What does the activation of factor X lead to?

A

the formation of Thrombin

376
Q

What passes through the optic canal?

A

optic nerve

ophthalmic artery

ophthalmic vein

377
Q

What is Ortner’s syndrome?

A

A rare form of recurrent laryngeal palsy from CV disease.

A dilated left atrium due to mitral stenosis can cause voice hoarseness as the recurrent nerve is compressed.

378
Q

Signs and symptoms of pericarditis

A

sharp central chest pain exacerbated by movement, respiration and lying down. Typically relieved by sitting forwards.

Classic sign- pericardial friction rub. Stethoscope; lower left sternal edge, end of expiration, patient leaning forwards.

Fever if due to infection. Possible pericardial effusion. Effusion can compress adjacent lung parenchyma causing dyspnea.

379
Q

What are the risk factors for calcific aortic valvular disease (CAVD)?

A
  • mainly occurs in the ELDERLY
  • more common in males
  • elevated LDL (low density lipoprotein)
  • hypertension
  • diabetes
  • smoking
380
Q

Tx of temporal arteritis?

A

high dose prednisolone

urgent ophthalmology review - same day

381
Q

How does cyclizine work and indications?

A

Histamine (H1) receptor antagonist

Targets the vestibulocochlear nuclei

Labyinthine disorder, vertigo, migraine

382
Q

ACS and ECG?….

A

ST Depression

T wave inversion

(+ anginal chest pain)

ST-elevation - STEMI

383
Q

Key mechanism of heparin

A

inactivates clotting factors by potentiating the activity of an endogenous anticoagulant (antithrombin III)

384
Q

Diagram of neurobiology of schizophrenia

A
385
Q

What are the complications of pericardial effusion?

A

Pericardial effusions can compress adjacent lung parenchyma causing dyspnea.

Ventricular filling is compromised (termed cardiac tamponade) and cardiogenic shock can occur (sob, weakness, syncope, cough, etc).

386
Q
A

swelling and gelatinous appearance of the conjunctiva.

In general, chemosis is a nonspecific sign of eye irritation.

It is usually caused by allergies or viral infections, often inciting excessive eye rubbing.

(also Grave’s disease)

387
Q

which artery supplies blood to the front and bottom of the LV and the front of the septum?

A

Left anterior descending artery (LAD)

388
Q

Pulse qualities - causes for

(a) regularly irregular

(b) irregularly irregular

A

(a) regular ectopic beats or 2nd AV block

(b) AF!!!!

389
Q

Symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

S - occipital or generalised

O - Rapid

C - Continuous, unremitting

R - may radiate over cranium/ into neck

A - nausea/ vomiting, syncope, drowiness, irritability

T - Worse at onset, persists over several hours

E - straining/ vomiting

S - very

390
Q

Symptoms of myasthenia gravis

A

The most commonly affected muscles are those of the eyes, face, and swallowing.

It can result in double vision, drooping eyelids, trouble talking, and trouble walking.

Onset can be sudden.

Those affected often have a large thymus gland

- eyes, throat and limbs affected. Worse for exercise.

391
Q

ECG - normal, then what?

What findings?

A

strongly consider an alternative diagnosis

ST elevation/ depression

392
Q

Ask patient to walk 10 metres and turn.

What to observe?

A

stride length

arm swing

steadiness (including turning)

limping or other difficulties.

393
Q

Radial, median and ulnar nerves.

Focal neuropathies?

A

Radial - thumb (mainly dorsal), radial pulse… radial artery.

median nerve… in the middle of the hand.

ulnar - outside of hand (little finger and surrounding areas)

394
Q

Symptoms of encephalitis

A
  • focal/ diffuse neurological signs
  • fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms & seizure
  • alteration in consciousness
395
Q

An anterior STEMI results from the occlusion of which artery?

A

Anterior STEMI results from occlusion of the left anterior descending artery (LAD).

396
Q

CHA2DS2-VASc - breakdown

A

C - Congestive heart failure

H - Hypertension

A - Age >75

D - Diabetes

S - prior stroke/ TIA/ thromboembolism

V - ascular disease

A - 64-75

S - sex (gender)

397
Q

Organisms of bacterial meningitis

A

Neisseria meningtidis

Steptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

398
Q

What is mesalazine used for?

(5-aminosalicyclic acid) 5-ASA

A

treatment of choice for maintenance of mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis.

(also reduces risk of colorectal cancer)

Also used inconjunction with antibiotics for the treatment of diverticulitis.

399
Q

Schizophrenia DDs (organic)

A
  • Drug-induced psychosis - amfetamine, LSD, cannabis.
  • Temporal lobe epilepsy.
  • Encephalitis.
  • Alcoholic hallucinosis.
  • Dementia.
  • Delirium due to infection, metabolic or toxic disturbance, neurological disease, endocrine cause, etc.
  • Cerebral syphilis (still rare, although worldwide incidence of syphilis has been increasing).
400
Q

Aetiology of schizophrenia

A

genetic, environmental, social.

often associated with cocaine, amfetamines, cannabis.

Thus risk factors; FH, socil isolation, social upbringins

401
Q

Squint

(strabismus)

  • could be damage to cranial nerves III, IV, VI

Why is it important to treat early?

A

To prevent lazy eye developing (brain ignores signals)

402
Q

What is Homonymous Hemianopia?

A

Visual field loss on the SAME SIDE of both eyes.

403
Q

What is dipyridamole?

A

a coronary vasodilator and a relatively weak antiplatelet drug.

inhibits platelet adhesion to the vessel wall.

Used combined with aspirin.

404
Q

How does Dabigatran work?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

(thrombin is used in the pathway of transforming fibrinogen to fibrin)

405
Q

What’s the function of the choroid?

A

Dark pigmentation to prevent internal light reflection, supplies blood to the retina

406
Q

Disulfiram

A

Disulfiram works by inhibiting the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which means that many of the effects of a “hangover” are felt immediately after alcohol is consumed.

407
Q

Pharmaceutical management of angina

A
  • Aspirin
  • GTN spray (symptomatic relief)
  • ACE inhibitor
  • statins
  • (surgical - percutaneous coronary intervention)
408
Q
A

peri-orbital cellulitis

painful, unilateral red swollen eyelids

px often systemically unwell

409
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy - diagram

A
410
Q

Two divisions of dizziness

A

vertiginous

non-vertiginous

411
Q

Possible causes of indirect swelling/ pain of the testicles (4)

A

Groin strain

ilioinguinal nerve entrapment after hernia repair

idiopathic cord neuralgia

spine nerve irritation

412
Q

sharp central chest pain that is worse with movement or respiration but relieved with sitting forwards

A

pericarditis pain

413
Q

Can Warfarin be used in pregnancy?

A

No because it crosses the placenta

414
Q

Macrocytosis - what is it?

A
  • Macrocytosis is the enlargement of red blood cells with near-constant hemoglobin concentration
  • Common cause: bone marrow dysplasia secondary to alcohol abuse and chronic alcoholism.
  • Poor absorption of vitamin B12 in the digestive tract can also cause macrocytosis.
  • Gastrointestinal diseases that may cause macrocytosis include celiac disease and Crohn’s disease
415
Q

What does encephalitis and chicken pox have in common?

A

Both can be caused by VZV (varicella zoster virus)

416
Q

What does Romberg’s test signify?

A

proprioceptive sensory loss in the feet (sensory ataxia)

417
Q

tx of vaginal/ vulval thrush?

more common in pregnancy (+diabetes), but will NOT harm the baby.

A

fluconazole/ itraconazole orally

or clotrimazole/ miconazole pessaries

Use an emollient to moisturise the vulval skin.

Wear loose-fitting underwear

Avoid applying topical irritants such as perfumed products.

Good hygiene.

418
Q

Acute LVF Management: What is the danger of morphine?

A

Resp failure II; caution with COPD, renal failure, or the elderly.

Give very slowly and reduce slowly.

* don’t give morphine orally because cannot regulate *

419
Q

What could be a patient’s description of AF?

A

Heart jumping about or racing

Associated breathlessness

(may be unnoticed)

420
Q

Management of AF

A

cardioversion if < 48 hour onset

Rate and rhythm control

CCB - verapamil or a Beta Blocker

Rate control; amiodarone

anticoagulants to prevent thromboembolism/ stroke

surgical catheter ablation

421
Q

What’s the advantages of LMWH compared to standard heparin?

A

can be administered subcutaneously.

more predictable anticoagulation activity (aPTT monitoring not required)

422
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of dronabinol

(marijuana derivatives)

A

used for cancer chemotherapy induced emesis when other drugs have failed.

Used as an appetite stimulant for anorexic HIV patients

423
Q

What’s a pterygium?

A

A benign growth. It typically starts on the cornea near the nose.

424
Q

What is ‘walk though’ angina?

A

peripheral vasodilation during exercise decreases myocardial workload; angina eases

425
Q

Which part of the orbit do the cranial nerves IV, III, VI pass?

A

Superior orbital fissure

426
Q

What are the 4 types of arrhythmia?

A
  • premature (extra beats)
  • supraventricular arrhythmias
  • ventricular arrhythmias
  • bradyarrhythmias
427
Q

Definition of dissection

A

tear in the intima of aortic wall allows blood under high BP to penetrate the medial layer, causing cleaving.

428
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy an example of?

A

a lower motor neurone weakness

429
Q

What is the skin like with LVF?

A

grey, clammy, cold skin

(assess peripheral perfusion)

430
Q

What symptoms are associated with psychosis?

A

delusions and hallucinations

Delusions: delusion is a false, fixed, strange, or irrational belief that is firmly held. The belief is not normally accepted by other members of the same culture or group.

Eg. delusions of paranoia (plots against them), delusions of grandeur (exaggerated ideas of importance or identity).

Hallucinations: An hallucination is sensory perception (seeing, hearing, feeling, smelling) without an appropriate stimulus

431
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine and pyridostigmine.

Immunosuppressants, such as prednisone or azathioprine, may also be used

432
Q

If comorbid hypertension/ angina then can add….

A

amlopidine CCB

(NOT verapamil or diltiazem)

433
Q

Characteristic of WPW syndrome:

A

Broad QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex — the delta wave.

434
Q

What’s the story with solvents?

A

Sniffed, typically boys (aged 8-19). May present with a red rash around the mouth and nose.

Chronic use can cause: weight loss, nausea, vomiting, polyneuropathy and cognitive impairment.

TOXIC: bronchospasm, arrythmias, aplastic anaemia, hepatorenal and cerebral damage.

435
Q

What is ectropian?

A

The lower eyelid droops away and turns outwards. It’s not usually serious, but can be uncomfortable.

Can disrupt the drainage of tears, which can make the eyes:

sore, red and irritated

water excessively

feel very dry and gritty

more vulnerable to bacterial infections, such as conjunctivitis

436
Q

Apart from activities such as walking, what else is the basal ganglia involved with?

A

procedural memory

eg. driving a car

437
Q

What features would you find on a CXR with pulmonary oedema?

A

bilateral interstitial or alveolar shadowing

upper lobe blood diversion

pleural effusions

cardiomegaly

Kerley B lines

438
Q

What activates the intrinsic pathway?

A

surface contact with a foreign body or extravascular tissue (i.e. collagen)

439
Q

What drugs for/to :

Speed up

Slow down

Irregular HR

A

Atropine - to speed up

Adenosine - to slow down (can be given very quickly)

Amiodarone - irregular HR (potassium channel blocker)

Used to suppress AF and flutter

440
Q

What nerve supplies the lateral rectus muscle?

A

abducens (VI)

long nerve makes it prone to injury.

441
Q

Extradural bleeds

A

Tearing of the middle meningeal artery causes bleeding into the extradural space (extradural haematoma).

As the blood clot expands, the brain is compressed; as a result, coma supervenes a delayed period of hours after the blow. Without neurosurgical evacuation, the rising intracranial pressure causes brain displacement and death.

442
Q

Risk factors for CVD?

A

hypertension

hyperlipidaemia

diabetes mellitus

obesity

family history

smoking

443
Q

What are some signs of distal muscle weakness?

A

flapping gait when walking

problems grasping

handwriting difficult

444
Q

Area for expressive aphasia

A
445
Q

Initial treatment of LVF

A
  • Sit up patient
  • Give oxygen
  • If COPD do ABG early
  • Treat arrthymias (esp. tachycardia/ bradycardia)
  • Ensure STEMI has been excluded (Call reg if STEMI)
  • If BP >100mmHg give 0.5mg GTN S/L
446
Q

What can damage the endothelial integrity? (5)

A
  • mechanical shear stresses (eg. hypertension)
  • biochemical abnormalities (eg. > LDL, diabetes)
  • immunological factors (eg. free radicals from smoking)
  • inflammation from infection
  • genetic alteration
447
Q

What’s the treatment for GERD?

(causing oesophagitis)

A

<< gastric acidity (two main groups previously mentioned)

increase the compromised oesophageal sphincter pressure (metoclopramide)

448
Q

Acute LVF Management : What routine blood test would you do?

A

FBC

U + E

LFT

CRP

Troponin I

(anaemia + differential WBC)

449
Q

Possible antibiotics for meningitis

A

Cefolaxime

Benzylpenicillin

Chloramphenicol

450
Q

What is the typical atrial rate of atrial flutter,

what’s the definition?

What are other characteristics?

A

300

Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia caused by a re-entry circuit within the right atrium.

saw-tooth pattern” - look at leads II, III, aVF

loss of isoelectric baseline

451
Q

Characteristics of tension headaches

A
  • mild to moderate (fuzzy head); dull generalized headache
  • bilateral
  • non-pulsatile
  • exert bandlike pressure
  • no nausea

poor response to over the counter analgesia

452
Q

What are the key adverse effects of Heparin?

A

Bleeding

thrombocytopenia

(hyperkalemia)

453
Q

Tell me about HIT 1

A

occurs in 25% of patients. Direct interaction between heparin and platelets, leading to platelet aggregation. Mild and reversible.

454
Q

Eye case taking; why ask about travel abroad?

A

Possibility of keratitis

455
Q

Adverse effects of aspirin

A

GI bleeding

hypoprothrombinaemia; therefore increased bleeding risks

456
Q
A

It transmits the infraorbital artery and vein, and the infraorbital nerve, a branch of the maxillary nerve

Can be palpated during an examination.

457
Q

What often gets confused with angina?

A

oesphageal pain

Rem: oesphageal pain can often wake the patient up at night, not rapidly relieved by rest but often relieved by nitrates. Maybe retrosternal or epigastric in origin. variable duration

458
Q

What is HIT?

A

Heparin-induced-thrombocytopenia

459
Q

Management of meningitis

A

Antibiotics

Corticosteroids

Management of symptoms and prevention of secondary brain injury

460
Q

Name five major neurodegenerative diseases characterised by progressive loss of neuronal function

A

Parkinson disease (PD)

Huntington disease (HD)

Alzheimer disease (AD)

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

461
Q

What’s the normal width of a QRS complex?

A

3-4 small squares

70-100ms

462
Q

If px is syncopic, can you hold them upright?

A

NO

Because continued cerebral hypoperfusion can cause an anoxic seizure.

463
Q

Name three LMWHs

A

enoxaparin

dalteparin

tinzaparin

464
Q

Illegal substances the the UK law

A
465
Q

Causes of stroke

A

Large artery atherothromboembolism

small vessel disease

embolism from cardiac source

carotid or vertebral artery dissection

hypercoagulable states

sickle cell disease

466
Q

Two main types of conjunctiva based anatomically

A
  • palpebral conjunctiva lines the lids
  • bulbar conjunctiva is over the eyeball
467
Q

Components of the basal ganglia

(interconnected subcortical nuclei)

A

striatum (caudate and putamen)

substantia nigra

globus pallidus

subthalamus

468
Q

How does Levodopa work?

A

levodopa is taken up by dopaminergic neurons in the striatum and it is converted to dopament by LAAD.

Therefore this drug increases dopamine levels.

NB. As disease progresses and more dopaminergic neurons are lost, the conversion of levodopa to dopamine declines.

469
Q

Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage headache treatment

A
  • Patent airway, GCS, cardiac monitor, oximeter, O2 mask, IV access
  • Bloods; FBC, U&E, LFT, clotting screen and group.
  • Analgesic ; IM codeine phosphate, sometimes IV morphine sulphate (NB opoids can affect GCS score)
  • Nimodipine
  • Fluids (3l daily) - reduction in plasma volume may increase cerebral ischaemia
  • Compression stockings as DVT prophylaxis
  • laxatives if needed.
470
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of misoprostol,

(cytoprotective drug)

A

Prostaglandin E1 analogue

expensive. Inhibits gastric acid secretion, promotes mucus and bicarbonate.

Primary indication: prevention of gastric and duodenal ulcers with px who take NSAIDs long term.

contraindicated in PREGNANCY (stimulates uterine contractions)

471
Q

Acute LVF management; what other causes do you need to rule out?

A
  • pneumonia (consolidation, course crackles)
  • infective exacerbation of COPD
  • pneumothorax
  • pulmonary embolus

CASE HISTORY VERY IMPORTANT

Rem. Well’s criteria

472
Q

Blood supply to the brain

A
473
Q

drainage of aqueous humour

A

Formed in the anterior portion of the ciliary process in the posterior chamber of the eye.

Drains into the scleral venous sinus (Schlemm’s canal)

Blockage = glaucoma

474
Q

peripheral cause of vertigo is likely if….

A

px has hearing loss, tinnitus, ear infection, headache, nausea and vomiting.

475
Q

What’s in the 6-1 vaccine?

A

pertussis

tetanus

polio

Hib

Hepatitis B

diphtheria

476
Q

Primary headaches

A

tension

cluster

migraine

477
Q

What does pulmonary oedema look like?

A

a fine mesh of consolidation, it starts with bat wings at the hilum.

478
Q

Paraphimosis - definition

A

inability to pull the foreskin forwards because of a constriction ring in the prepuce which jams behind the corona of the glans

479
Q

What is 1st degree heart block?

A

P-waves before each complex, but a delay in AV conduction (hence prolonged P-R interval in all beats).

No dropped beats.

If the PR interval is > 200 ms (one large square), first degree heart block is said to be present

480
Q
A

Hyphaema

refer.

481
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

The Facts

A

People with bulimia nervosa have episodes of binge eating. This is followed by deliberately making themselves sick to counteract the excessive food intake.

Bingeing and Purging.

Purging maybe induce vomiting, but could be laxatives, extreme exercise, extreme dieting.

Feel out of control and unable to stop eating.

IMP: you are most likely to be normal weight or overweight

Bulimia is more common than anorexia nervosa.

482
Q

Signs of dependence

CAN’T

STOP

A
483
Q

hyphaema

A

Hyphaema

refer.

484
Q

What is the name of the genetic condition where the eyelashes go inwards?

A

Entropian

485
Q

What is the antidote to unfractionated heparin and LMWH?

A

Protamine sulfate

(+ve charged protein than combines with -ve charged heparin)

** measure aPTT to monitor **

486
Q

What are the cardinal features of Atrial Fibrillation?

A
  • Irregularly irregular rhythm.
  • No P waves.
  • Absence of an isoelectric baseline.
  • 110-160 ventricular rate
487
Q

What could dacryoadenitis be confused with?

A

orbital cellulitis (red flag)

dacryoadenitis is swelling of the outer portion of the upper lid, with possible redness and tenderness.

488
Q

What features would you find on a CXR with pulmonary oedema?

A

bilateral interstitial or alveolar shadowing

upper lobe blood diversion

pleural effusions

cardiomegaly

Kerley B lines

489
Q

Why are Beta blockers used to treat angina?

A

Tachycardia decreases the time when the heart is in diastole;

tachycardia decreases myocardial perfusion.

490
Q

Other DDs for Bipolar affective disorder

A
  • substance abuse (esp. amphetamines or cocaine)
  • some personality disorders can mimic this mood or behavioural disturbance
  • Attention-deficit hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
491
Q

There are two possible routes for blood coagulation management with AF patients; What are they?

A
  • Oral anticoagulation (prefererable)
  • Or aspirin + clopidogrel
492
Q

What is the principal component of fibrinolysis?

A

Enzyme plasmin

(generated from inactive precursor plasminogen)2

493
Q

What eye condition is common with children, requires urgent referral and can lead to blindness if untreated?

A

Orbital cellulitis

494
Q

What does the left coronary artery divide into?

A

circumflex artery

left anterior descending artery

495
Q

What is the prophylaxis mx of migraines?

(2 attacks or more per month)

A

either

Topiramate

or

Propranolol (not for asthamatics)

(pizotifen is NOT recommended)

496
Q
A

Spinothalamic; contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion.

  • dissociated sensory loss

(pain and temperature are dissociated from light touch which is perserved)

occurs with syringomyelia

497
Q

What does inattention to one side indicate when testing peripheral vision?

A

cortical damage on the opposite side

498
Q

Four symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • ataxia
  • nystagmus
  • ophthalmoplegia
  • acute confusion
499
Q

What is the risk of thrombolytic tx of ischaemic stroke?

And the incidence?

A

significant risk of primary intracerebral haemorrhage

1 in 30

500
Q

Characteristics of cluster headaches

A

severe, unilateral, retro-orbital

clustered over time

variable duration (10-60 mins)

autonomic symptoms; tearing, red eye, nasal congestion.

attacks often at night

much more commen in MEN (9:1)

501
Q

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

ADHD

A

“persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity and impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development “

DSM-5 diagnostic criteria

502
Q

Diagram of hydrocele

A
503
Q

What happens physiologically when the LV is obstructed?

A

>> LV pressure and compensatory LV hypertrophy.

This leads to relative ischaemia of the LV myocardium, consequently angina, arrthymias and LV failure.

Symptoms with be worse with exercise because narrowing prevents the increase in cardiac output causing a fall in blood pressure and thus an increase in coronary ischaemia.

504
Q

Rate control;

Rate control is First Line tx

A

Rate control; a beta-blocker other than sotalol

Or a rate-limiting CCB

Or digoxin monotherapy for sedentary px.

If rate not controlled then can combine medications: eg.

Beta blocker, diltiazem, digoxin.

Amiodarone is not indicated for long-term rate control.

505
Q

Why is aortic stenosis often asymptomatic?

A

a hypertrophied LV can generate the elevated intraventricular pressures required for a normal stroke volume.

506
Q

What are ergot alkaloids?

A

Ergoline derivatives are used clinically for the purpose of vasoconstriction (5-HT1 receptor agonists—ergotamine) and in the treatment and alleviation of migraines (used with caffeine) and Parkinson’s disease (bromocriptine - D2 receptor agonist and D1 receptor antagonist)

507
Q

mech of action,

clinical indications,

potential adverse effects
of docusate sodium

(stool softener)

A

facilitate movement of water into fatty intestinal material, thus softening stool.

Indicated for hard, dry stool, prevent aggravation of haemorrhoids, helping px avoid straining.

508
Q

Apart from exercise, what else can bring on stable angina?

A

emotional stress

heavy meals

If pain is very transient I.e. few seconds, then unlikely to be angina.

509
Q

How does LMWH compare to unfractionated heparin in it’s modus operandi?

A

Primarily deactive factor X

510
Q

What does transilluminate help differentiate?

A

Hydrocele will appear a soft red while a solid tumor will not transmit light.

511
Q

What can be found on the upper eyelid that resembles a stye (but not in hair follicle)?

A

Meibomian cyst

(can be popped)

512
Q

“People who repeatedly cut themselves are not at risk of suicide”

True or False?

A

However, long-term follow-up studies show that self-injury is more of a risk for eventual suicide than is self-poisoning.

513
Q

Do you get chest pain with cardiac tamponade?

A

No. Unless surrounding pain sensitive structures are affected, eg. parietal pleura.

514
Q

Patient advise for Warfarin

A
  • Any signs of bleeding, including ecchymoses.
  • Contraindicated in pregnancy (fetal warfarin syndrome)
  • Avoid physical activities such as kick boxing
  • Don’t >>> green vegetables (vit K)
  • Avoid grapefruit juice, cranberry juice
  • Avoid major weight changes
  • Avoid aspirin, NSAIDs
515
Q

What routine tests would be done for heart failure?

A
  • CXR
  • Kidney tests (U & E, eGFR)
  • thyroid tests
  • LFT
  • fasting lipids, glucose
  • FBC
  • urinalysis
  • spirometry
516
Q

Two diagnostic tests for heart failure - NICE guidelines

A
  • trans-thoracic echocardiography
  • measure serum natriuretic peptides
517
Q

What is the name of unequal pupils?

A

anisocoria

518
Q

What does a normal U wave look like?

(look in leads V2 and V3)

Abnormalities

  • prominent U waves
  • Inverted U waves
A
519
Q

How does Fondaparinux work?

A

Indirect Factor Xa inhibitor

It selectively binds to antithrombin (an endogenous anticoagulant)

which

inactivates Xa resulting in a strong inhibition of thrombin generation and clot formation.

520
Q

What’s the commonest cause of heart failure?

A

coronary artery disease

521
Q

What breathlessness signs are associated with LVF?

A

orthopnea

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

dyspnoea on exertion.

522
Q

What is Torsades des Pointes?

  • ‘twisting of points’
A
  • focus of VT moves around the myocardium. Appears as a sine wave.

TX: cardioversion + Magnesium

523
Q

What hormone stimulates the parietal cells?

A

Gastrin

524
Q

Can you get psychotic disorders with alcohol?

A

Yes; alcoholic hallucinosis (usually threatening, 2nd person voices in a clear sensorium)

525
Q

Acute LVF Management: What would you find on ascultation?

A

bilateral crackles; widespread.

‘Fine’ crackles

3rd heart sound or gallop

526
Q

Severe carotid artery disease causes a bruit on auscultation, but is this always the case?

A

NO because stenosis may cause very reduced blood flow and the flow is too slow to cause a bruit.

527
Q

What is the rhythm which is >100 and has P waves?

A

sinus tachycardia

528
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)

the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of reproductive age.

Anerobic organisms that replace lactobacilli which is the usual vaginal bacteria. NOT necesarily sexually related (But it’s a risk factor).

Organisms C. trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae, and T. vaginalis ;they are associated with an increased risk of HIV transmission.

A

Offensive, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge without soreness or irritation.

50% asymptomatic.

On examination there is usually a thin layer of white discharge covering the vaginal wall.

Diagnosis: “clue cells”, or “whiff test” (Fishy odour on adding 10% potassium hydroxide to vaginal fluid.). Vaginal pH raised.

529
Q

How do Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban work?

A

Direct Factor Xa inhibitor

530
Q

LVF Bundle

A
  1. ABCDE, then oxygen
  2. perform ECG, bloods, CXR, and ABG
  3. treat arrhythmias >150 or <40
  4. Call cardiologist reg BP <100, or STEMI
  5. GTN 0.5mg if BP>100
  6. Furosemide
531
Q

Common features of temporal arteritis

A

typically patient > 60 years old

usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month)

headache (found in 85%)

jaw claudication (65%)

visual disturbances secondary to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

tender, palpable temporal artery

around 50% have features of PMR: polymyalgia rheumatica; aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles (not weakness)

also lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats

532
Q

Acute LVF management; what other causes do you need to rule out?

A
  • pneumonia (consolidation, course crackles)
  • infective exacerbation of COPD
  • pneumothorax
  • pulmonary embolus

CASE HISTORY VERY IMPORTANT

Rem. Well’s criteria

533
Q

Where is csf produced?

And absorbed?

A

At the choroid plexus of each ventricle (infection can enter here)

Arachnoid villi in dural venous sinuses.

534
Q

Why use transthoracic testing for px with heart failure? (3)

A
  • to exclude important valve disease
  • to assess the systolic (and diastolic) function of the the left ventricle
  • to detect intracardiac shunts
535
Q

What are the early symptoms of motor neurone disease?

A
536
Q

Some characteristics of Korsakoff syndrome

A
  • not only related to >> alcohol (but most common reason)
    also: anorexia, overly-stringent dieting, fasting, starvation or weight-loss surgery; uncontrolled vomiting; AIDS; kidney dialysis; chronic infection; or cancer that has spread throughout the body.

Korsakoff syndrome causes problems learning new information, inability to remember recent events and long-term memory gaps.

For example, individuals may seem able to carry on a coherent conversation, but moments later be unable to recall that the conversation took place or to whom they spoke.

Those with Korsakoff syndrome may “confabulate,” or make up, information they can’t remember. They are not“lying” but may actually believe their invented explanations.

537
Q
A

dentritic ulcer - not common

presents as red eye with FB sensation.

seen with fluoroscein , caused by herpes-simplex virus

HSV lies dormant in the trigeminal ganglion.

tx. topical acyclovir x 5 daily.

538
Q

How do you monitor

(a) Heparin
(b) Warfarin
(c) Dabigatran

A

(a) Heparin - aPTT

(b) Warfarin - PT - Prothrombin Time (remember the INR equation for warfarin)

(c) Dabigatran - TT (thrombin clotting time)

539
Q

What is the most common symptom of peripheral vascular disease?

A

Calf leg pain on walking (intermittent claudication)

NB> B-blockers, anti-hypertensives can impair peripheral circulation and aggravate intermittent claudication.

540
Q

What is Amsel’s criteria used for?

A

For diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis - 3 of the following 4 points should be present

  • thin, white homogenous discharge
  • clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells
  • vaginal pH > 4.5
  • positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
541
Q

What could a QRS duration of > 120ms indicate?

(wide QRS intervals)

A

bundle branch block (RBBB or LBBB)

i.e. aberrant conduction

Hyperkalaemia

Pre-excitation (Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome)

542
Q

Hydrocele classification image

A
543
Q

what is t-PA and give an example drug

A

Alteplase

drugs that are ‘recombinant forms of human tissue plasminogen activator’

tissue-Plasminogen Activator

544
Q

AF management

A

Life-threatening instability, new-onset (less than 48 hours) – CARDIOVERSION

Stable, but new-onset (less than 48 hours) – rate or rhythm control.

Rate control if >> 48 hours, or uncertain.

If criteria for cardioversion is not met, and patient is likely to need long-term rate control then consider cardioversion AFTER three weeks of anti-coagulation therapy.

Usually rate control is first-line strategy.

545
Q

How does Dagibatran work?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor.

546
Q

Thrombolysis; remember that…

A

lots of exclusion criteria!!!

Including:

  • seizures
  • px on warfarin
  • previous stroke within three month
  • BP >110 diastolic, > 185 systolic
  • hypoglycaemic/ hyperglycaemic
547
Q

Key neuronal pathophysiology in PD

A

There is a degeneration of inhibitory dopaminergic neurons leading to a relative excess of cholinergic activity.

Therefore drugs can inhibit cholinergic activity or increase dopamine levels.

548
Q

H. Pylori tx

A

Triple therapy

PPI + two or more antimicrobial agents

eg. amoxicillin + clarithromycin

or metronidazole + clarithromycin

5 days + 5 days treatment programme

549
Q

Treatment of Crohn’s

A

Control flare-ups

steroids, immunosuppresants (eg. azathioprine)

otherwise biological agents; infliximab (targets TNF)

Surgery

550
Q

Definition of addiction?

A

Addiction is a persistent, compulsive dependence on a behaviour or substance.

551
Q

Name some causes of PVCs

A
  • hypokalemia
  • hypercalcaemia (less so)
  • hypomagnesaemia
  • Existing myocardial scarring
  • Inflammation of the myocardium (eg. myocarditis)
552
Q

what are the margins of the LIVER?

A

superior border; Right 5th intercostal space on full expiration.

inferior border; at the costal margin in the mid-clavicular line on full inspiration.

553
Q

Visceral pain characteristics

A

Dull and pooly localized

Maybe distension, inflammation or ischaemie

554
Q

Which part of the GI tract is ulcerative colitis?

A

colon and rectum only

(abdominal cramping + diarrhoea)

555
Q

Which part of the GI tract is Crohn’s disease?

A

anywhere

(abdominal cramping + diarrhoea)

556
Q

What is gastroparesis?

A

delay in gastric emptying

557
Q

Oesophageal chest pain features

A

Particularly behind the breastbone, that occurs with eating

558
Q

Typically symptoms of intestinal obstruction

A
  • abdominal colic
  • vomiting
  • constipation WITHOUT the passing of wind
  • distension
  • increased bowel sounds
  • Marked tenderness
559
Q

What is intrinsic factor?

A

a glycoprotein secreted by gastric parietal cells along with H+ ions.

Combines with B12 and carries to the specific receptors in the ileum for absorption.

560
Q

What is achalasia?

What is a dange of this?

A
  1. Oesophageal aperistalsis
  2. Impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.

Progressive overflow of secretions and food, esp. at night and can cause aspiratory pneumonia.

561
Q

What’s the common cause of esophageal varices?

A

cirrhosis and consequences of portal hypertension

562
Q

Mallory-Weiss tears

  • when?
A

alcoholic ‘dry heaves’, retching, severe coughing.

tears at the oesophagogastric junction by a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure

563
Q

infectious esophagitis.

Common cause?

A

Candida albicans

HIV/ cancer patients

564
Q

location of GB

A

at the tip of the 9th costal cartilage

565
Q

What’s the common cause of this?

A

cirrhosis,

the consequences of portal hypertension.

Commonly these bleed.

lower 1/3 of the oesophagus

567
Q

Name for rectal bleeding

A

haematochezia

568
Q

pain on swallowing is called….

A

odynophagia

569
Q

What kind of pain is associated with the pancreas?

A

midline and radiates through to the back because it is retroperitoneal.

570
Q

What are non-GI possible causes for severe abdominal pain and nausea?

A

Torsion of the testis or ovary

571
Q

Why are renal and biliary colic misnomers?

A

pain is rarely colicky.

Usually pain rapidly increases to peak intensity and persists over several hours before resolving.

572
Q

Why do you get radiating pain around the shoulder/ interscapular region with acute cholecystitis?

A

Diaphragmatic irritation

573
Q

what causes pain on the tip of the shoulder, and why?

A

irritation of the parietal pleura overlying the central diaphragm.

Innervation is the phrenic nerve; referring pain to the neck, shoulder tip, interscapular region. (C3, C4)

Supraclavicular nerves have the same cervical nerve origin as the phrenic nerve C3, C4

Causes;

ruptured ectopic pregnancy + others

574
Q

What is dull, vague and poorly localised pain more like to be?

A

An inflammatory process or low-grade infection, eg. salpingitis, appendicitis or diverticulitis.

575
Q

Where does pain radiate with acute cholecystitis?

A

from right hypochondrial region to shoulder/ interscapular region.

576
Q

Where can renal colic radiate to?

A

the groin and genitalia

577
Q

Central upper abdominal radiating through to the back and partially relieved by sitting forwards is…

A

pancreatitis

578
Q

Severe back and abdominal pain?

A

ruptured/ dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm

579
Q

Epigastric pain that is not tender on palpation and has autonomic symptoms could be….

A

MI

580
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

10% of esophageal perforations which occur due to vomiting.

full-thickness tear in the esophageal wall

high morbidity and mortality and is fatal without treatment

581
Q

What is the characteristic of vomitus with peritonitis?

A

small in volume but persistent

582
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of peritonitis?

A

severe abdominal pain, tenderness and guarding.

(rigidity - invol contraction of abdo muscles)

Worse for movement as the inflammed peritoneum moves.

REBOUND pain (Blumberg sign) as the peritoneum snaps back into place after palpation.

fever, weight loss

583
Q

Why is abdominal pain sometimes difficult to localise?

A

Initially the visceral peritoneal layer is affected which is poorly innervated.

Later the parietal peritoneal layer is affected that has more somatic innervation.

584
Q

When would a small bowel obstruction become an emergency?

A

When typical intestinal colic changed to persistent pain with abdominal tenderness suggesting intestinal ischaemia. (strangulated hernia)

585
Q

How do patients appear if they have colicky abdominal pain?

A

They move around a lot, or draw their knees up towards the chest during painful spasms.

586
Q

If excruciating pain that is not relieved by opiod analgesia then….

A

escalate; could be an ischaemic event

587
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

If neurological in origin then liquids are worse than solids.

588
Q

What’s this?

A

oesophageal stricture

Some causes:

esophagitis, a dysfunctional lower esophageal sphincter, disordered motility, or a hiatal hernia.

589
Q

Achalasia could be a cause of GERD. What are the symptoms of GERD?

A

acidic taste in the mouth

regurgitation

heartburn

591
Q

What is a pharyneal pouch?

A

A diverticulum of the mucosa of the pharynx.

Dysphagia, and sense of a lump in the throat

Trapped food:

Regurgitation, r_eappearance of ingested food in the mouth_

Cough, due to food regurgitated into the airway

Halitosis, smelly breath, as stagnant food is digested by microorganisms

Infection

592
Q

What are some non-GI causes of vomiting?

A

neurological; >> intracranial pressure, labyinthitis, migraine, MI, vasovagal syncope

drugs (including opioids)

metabolic; pregnancy, renal, liver problems, hypercalcaemia

593
Q

What’s a cause of loud borborygmi?

(movement of fluid and gas)

A

small-bowel obstruction/ dysmotility if associated with colicky discomfort.

594
Q

Abdominal distension

F
F
F
F
F

F

A

Fat

Flatus

Faeces

Fluid

Fetus

Functional

595
Q

What does constipation with absence bowel sounds suggest?

A

intestinal obstruction

(often pain, vomiting, distension)

596
Q

What is tenesmus?

A

Sensation of needing to defaecate although the rectum is empty.

(could be rectal inflammation of tumour)

597
Q

Why is vomited blood sometimes ‘ground coffee’ colour?

A

degraded by gastric pepsin

598
Q

What is a common cause of melaena.

NB> melaena is due to an upper GI bleed

A

peptic ulceration

599
Q

What is jaundice?

A

hyperbilirubinaemia

  • yellowish discolouration of the skin, sclerae.
600
Q

How is bilirubin excreted?

A

It’s conjugated in the liver and forms part of bile that is excreted in the stools.

Normally very little in urine except if liver function is compromised and conjugated bilirubin leaks out of hepatocytes turning it dark amber.

601
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Also called antibiotic-associated colitis or C. difficile colitis, is inflammation of the colon associated with an overgrowth Clostridium difficile.

This overgrowth of C. difficile is most often related to recent antibiotic use.

602
Q

Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) solids could be what?

A

oesophageal obstruction due to cancer, peptic stricture, achalasia.

(liquids would be neurological)

603
Q

What’s the story?

A

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome (ZES) is a disease in which tumors cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers.

Symptoms include abdominal pain and diarrhea.

The syndrome is caused by a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes a gastrin. The tumor causes excessive production of gastric acid.

604
Q
A
605
Q

Important things that affect vit D absorption (except for the obvious)

A
  • age
  • absorption is in first part of SI, therefore digestive disorders
  • condition of the Kidneys
607
Q

What are the tests for Coeliac disease?

A

Total immunoglobulin A (IgA)

IgA Tissue transglutaminase antibody (shortened to tTG)

+ eat gluten in more than one meal every day for six weeks prior to testing.

GOLD standard; duodenal biopsies with IEL ( increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes is typical of active celiac disease)

608
Q

Function of Somatostatin

(D Cells of pancreas)

A

Inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion.

reduces stomach acid, slows digestive process effectively.

609
Q

What’s the story?

A

Xanthelasma

commonly familial hypercholesterolaemia

610
Q

What hormone stimulates both pancreatic enzyme secretion and release of bile?

A

CCK

Cholecstokinin

611
Q

Common causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Alcohol

Gallstone obstruction

612
Q

Tx of acute pancreatitis

A

NBM

Stomach emptied by nasogastric suction

Antibiotics

nasojejunal tube

614
Q

Interesting facts about ampulla of vater (from ppx)

A
  • union of pancreatic and common bile duct
  • marks transition from foregut to midgut.
  • Celiac trunk stops suppling the gut and mesenteric artery takes over.
615
Q
A
616
Q

Coeliac disease and gluten… what’s the story?

A

gluten > villous atrophy > malabsorption

  • Familial component
  • T Cell mediated autoimmune inflammation of the small bowel.
617
Q

What is the ROME III criteria?

A

Criteria for diagnosing IBS

Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort at least 3 days/month in the last 3 months associated with two or more of the following:

  • Improvement with defecation
  • Onset associated with a change in frequency of stool
  • Onset associated with a change in appearance of stool.
618
Q

What rare condition can cause peptic ulcers?

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

-gastrinomas produce >>> gastrin that triggers overproduction of gastric acid

620
Q

What’s the most common cause of cholecystitis?

A

Gallstones (95%)

leading to pathological changes:

  • vascular
  • inflammatory

then… possibly secondary infection.

621
Q

Diagnosis of cholecystitis

A

Clinic

622
Q

H. bacter triple therapy

A

A seven-day course of PPI plus either amoxicillin 1 g and either clarithromycin 500 mg or metronidazole 400 mg - all three given twice a day.

For people allergic to penicillin use a PPI, clarithromycin and metronidazole - all twice a day for seven days.

623
Q

crohn’s management

A

steroids

immunosuppresents (e.g. azathioprine)

biological agents (e.g. infliximab)

surgery

624
Q

ulcerative colitis tx

A

aminosalicylates (5-ASAs) e.g. sulphasalazine or mesalazine

corticosteroids; can be used in conjunction with aminosalicylates

immunosuppressants; tacrolimus or azathioprine

ciclosporin

625
Q

Smoking is protective for which condition?

A

ulcerative colitis

626
Q

Facts about Diverticular Disease

Risk group, area of bowel affected.

What is it?

A

> 50 years old, low dietary fibre. Obesity in young people. 50% of people have diverticula by the age of 50. approx. 75% are asymptomatic.

Most common in sigmoid and descending colon.

Herniation of mucosa through the colonic muscle.

627
Q

What’s the difference between diverticular disease,diverticulosis and diverticulitis?

A

Diverticulosis is the presence of diverticula with are asymptomatic.

Diverticular disease has associated symptoms.

diverticulitis has inflammation with or without localised symptoms.

628
Q

How does uncomplicated diverticular disease present?

A

Often nonspecific abdominal complaints; eg lower abdo pain, usually left-sided.

Pain is usually exacerbated by eating and diminished with defaecation or flatus.

May be bloating, constipation, rectal bleeding.

Examination; fullness or mild tenderness in lower left quadrant.

629
Q

How does diverticulitis present?

A

Left lower quadrant pain.

Pain intermittent or constand and may be associated with change in bowel habits. Bleeding; abrupt painless bleeding.

fever, tachycardia

may be anorexia, nausea and vomiting

O/E localised tenderness, occ palpable mass, change in bowel sounds. PR; tenderness or mass.

630
Q

1/3 of patients with diverticulitis get what complications?

A

perforation, abcesses, fistula, stricture/ obstruction.

631
Q

Diverticulitis; what other DDs?

A

IBS, acute appendicitis,Crohn’s, colorectal cancer.

Elderly people are at risk of ischaemic colitis.

Gynae; ectopics, PID, ovarian torsion, ruptured ovarian cysts. (pelvic ultrasound)

632
Q

Investigations for asymptomatic divericular disease?

+ treatment

A

X-rays, CT scanning

endoscopy best avoided due to risk of perforation

Tx: >> fibre. Stop NSAIDs, opiates

633
Q

Investigations and treatment for diverticular disease?

A

>> blood loss - transfusion

>> fibre. Good fluid intake. Possible bulk-forming laxatives

Paracetamol for pain relief

634
Q

What is an abdominal X-Ray useful for?

A

Highly sensitive for evidence of intestinal obstruction (dilated loops).

Renal stones and pancreatic calcification can be seen, but Gall stones are radiolucent.

Ingetion of radio-opaque markers can be used to study colonic transit.

Barium meals can be used too.

635
Q

What extraintestinal manifestations are common to both UC and crohn’s?

EYES
SKIN
JOINTS

OTHER

A
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Monoarthritis
  • Sacroiliitis
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • uveitis
  • hepatitis
  • Gallstones, primary biliary cirrhosis
636
Q

UC usually presents as…

A

diarrhoea and malaise

637
Q

Crohn’s disease usually presents as…

A

diarrhoea, malaise and abdominal PAIN

638
Q

Which GI disease could present with malabsorption or obstruction problems, abscess fistulae, and mouth ulcers

A

Crohn’s

  • malabsorption because of SI involvement.
639
Q

Common complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

See diagram - other slide

  • Fistulae
  • Stricture
  • Malabsorption
640
Q

Trivial facts about ulcerative colitis…

A

Smoking appears to protect against UC for some reason!

15% of cases have a clear FH

common in young adults

most common form of IBD

20% risk of colon cancer after 30 years.

641
Q

What are the hallmarks of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • inflammation is almost always present in the rectum
  • extends proximally, is continous
  • It is superficial - limited to the mucosa of the bowel
642
Q

Investigations for ulcerative colitis

A
  • flexible sigmoidoscopy/ colonoscopy
  • abdominal x-ray
  • stool culture (to exclude infections)
  • biopsy
643
Q

Management of ulcerative colitis

A
  • steroids
  • ciclosporin for severe acute colitits
  • 5-aminosalicyclic acid
  • Azarthioprine
  • Infliximab
  • surgery
644
Q

What is ciclosporin?

A

immunosuppressant derived from a fungal polypeptide.

Can be used for UC, psorasis, severe autoimmune diseases, incorporated into vascular stents.

Dangers; nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, muscle tremor

645
Q

What features of crohn’s distinguish it from ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Abdominal PAIN
  • mouth to anus
  • skip lesions
  • deep transmural inflammation; causes gut stenosis, penetrating ulcers, absesses, fistulae
646
Q

Features of Crohn’s depends on…

A

LOCATION!!

SI - malabsorption

COLON - diarrhoea

SEVERITY!

absesses, fistulae, stricture

EXTRAINTESTINAL manifestations

647
Q

Indications for senna; stimulant laxative

+ side effect

A

Increase mobility by stimulating the myenteric plexus.

mobility maybe damaged due to drug use.

Side effect: abdominal cramps

* don’t use for impacted feces *

648
Q

Extragastrointestinal manifestations of IBD

A

Joint problems

Skin rashes; pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum

Iritis/ uveitis

Aphthous ulcers.

649
Q

Differences between UC and CD

A
651
Q

What other DDs for crohn’s disease?

A

Yersinia infection

intestinal tuberculosis

652
Q

Investigations for Crohn’s

A
  • ESR, CRP for monitoring disease activity
  • CT and MRI (due to transmural actitvity)
  • endoscopy/ colonoscopy
653
Q

Crohn’s management

A
  • remember 15% mortality rate
  • steroids
  • 5-aminosalicyclic compounds
  • other immunosuppressive agents, including biologicals
  • nutritional support
654
Q

Crohn’s disease and nails?

A

clubbing

655
Q

Inflammation with crohns

A
656
Q

complications of crohns

A
657
Q

What are the features of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

typically on the lower limbs

initially small red papule

later deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border

may be accompanied systemic symptoms e.g. Fever, myalgia

658
Q

Iron deficiency, nails… the story

A

Koilonychia

663
Q

Possible causes of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

idiopathic in 50%

inflammatory bowel disease: ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s

rheumatoid arthritis, SLE

myeloproliferative disorders

lymphoma, myeloid leukaemias

monoclonal gammopathy (IgA)

primary biliary cirrhosis

664
Q

What is fulminant liver failure?

A

Traditionally defined as the progression from normal liver function to liver failure, i.e. hepatic encephalopathy within 8 weeks.

665
Q

What is the clinical hallmark of fulminant liver failure?

A

Encephalopathy

progressive deterioration in cognitive function.

(metabolic flap - asterixis) - coarse and irregular flapping tremor of the hands.

Jaundice (may or may not be present)

Haemorrhage (maybe confined to GI tract)

Acidosis, hypoglycaemia, renal failure

666
Q

Investigations for fulminant liver failure…

A
  • Prothrombin time - best prognostic marker
  • Monitor blood glucose levels (hypoglycaemia is BAD)
  • PARACETAMOL LEVEL; >>> is most common cause in the UK.
667
Q

What does long-term, low grade liver damage cause?

A

progressive liver fibrosis, leading to…

reduced liver cell mass

portal hypertension

668
Q

what problems do you get with reduced liver cell mass (from chronic liver disease)?

A
  1. Encephalopathy
    - the hallmark of liver cell failure!!!

maybe subtle to begin with; reduced attention span, constructional dyspraxia, reversed sleep pattern. asterixis - metabolic flap

  1. loss of lean body mass (most evident at the shoulders)
  2. coagulopathy
669
Q

What commonly complicates ascites and must be excluded?

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

670
Q

What could be a trigger for liver decompensation?

A

infection

bleeding

drugs

electrolyte disturbance

671
Q

Can you use Beta blockers for varices?

A

Yea, why not?

672
Q

Do you get a pro or anticoagulative state with liver failure?

A

Depends on the balance of pro- coagulant and anti-coagulant proteins (sinc the liver makes both!!)

673
Q

Liver - what could a prolonged PT (prothrombin time) indicate?

A

liver failure

Lack of Vitamin K

674
Q

To test liver function, you can look at PT or albumin levels. Which is best?

A

PT because coagulation factors have a half-life of a few hours, albumin has a 1/2 life of 21 days.

675
Q

Deteriorating liver failure will affect which markers?

A

serum bilirubin levels

serum albumin levels

prolongs PT

676
Q

Liver failure - what possible tests?

A

paracetamol levels

antibodies to viruses

autoantibodies in autoimmune hepatitis

ultrasound vascular flow

677
Q

What’s disulfiram?

A

Inhibitor of enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase. When combined with ethanol it produces violent symptoms of intoxication.

Used to help px give up alcohol.

678
Q

What is cholestasis, and symptoms?

A

Cholestasis: Biliary obstruction. Bile cannot flow from the liver into the duodenum. Obstructive due to gallstone or malignancy or metabolic due to genetic defects in bile formation.

Symptoms:

Pruritis is primary symptom of cholestasis (interaction of serum bile acids with opioidergic nerves).

Jaundice; common in obstructive cholestasis.

Pale stool; obstructive cholestasis

Dark urine.

679
Q

symptoms of chronic liver disease

A
680
Q

diagram of primary sclerosing cholangitis

A
681
Q

causes of portal hypertension

A
682
Q

wilson’s disease

A
683
Q

diagram of acute liver disease

A
684
Q

diagram of haemochromatosis

A
685
Q

alcohol and the liver

A
693
Q

what is serum albumin level an indicator of with liver disease?

A

synthetic function, and useful to gauge the severity of chronic liver disease. A falling albumin is a bad prognostic sign. May be normal levels with acute liver disease.

694
Q

What is Budd-Chiari Syndrome?

A

Very rare (1/million) condition.

Occlusion of the hepatic veins that drain the liver (maybe cause by a blood clot)

Classic triad:

abdominal pain, ascites, and liver enlargement.

695
Q

Liver disease - what is prothrombic time (PT) a good marker for?

A

It has a short half-life and thus is a sensitive marker for both acute and chronic liver disease.

VIT K Def should be excluded as the cause of a prolonged PT by giving an bolus of vit K (10mg).

NB. Vit K is common in biliary obstruction as the low intestinal concentration of bile salts results in poor absorption of vit K.

696
Q

Liver disease - aminotransferases (AST) and (ALT)

contained in hepatocytes and leak into the blood with liver cell damage.

A

ALT only rises with liver disease.

(alanine aminotransferase)

697
Q

How do Gall stones present?

A

Can be asymptomatic.

Termed ‘colic’ pain but pain of obstruction is severe and constant with a crescendo characteristic. Often related to fat-rich meals.

Pain may be in epigastrium/ URQ and may radiate to right shoulder/ subscapular region.

Nausea and vomiting can accompany the attacks. Pain is helped by opioids.

protracted pain with fever/ rigors suggests complications.

698
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

95% caused by GB stone obstruction.

GB glandular secretion causing >> progressive dilation which can compromise the vascular supply to the gall bladder.

There is an inflammatory response secondary to the retained bile in the GB.

Infection can follow.

Clnically >> RUQ pain with peritoneal involvement. Muscle guarding/ rigidity.

Leucocytosis and >> CRP

Often >> bili and alk phos.

Investigation; USS of GB to find stones and GB distension and thickening of GB wall.

699
Q

What are other possible DDs of acute cholecystitis?

A

IBS, Ca, atypical peptic ulcer, renal colic, pancreatitis, intrahepatic abscess, occasionally basal pneumonia (therefore check the lungs), atypical MI.

700
Q

Mx of acute cholecystitis?

A

NBM, IV fluids, opiates, IV antibiotics

Cholecystectomy

If unresponsive the possibly; empyema (GB drain possible before surgery)

701
Q

What is post-cholecystectomy syndrome?

A

RUQ pain that occurs a few months/ years after procedure. Pain can mimic original pain. Often caused by colonic spasm at the hepatic flexure.

702
Q

What is the classic triad of common bile duct (CBD) stones?

A

Biliary colic

fever

jaundice (acute cholangitis)

  • this triad is only present in the minority.

Common symptom: abdo pain.

703
Q

What is Charcot’s cholangitis triad?

A

Charcot’s cholangitis triad is the combination of jaundice; fever, usually with rigors; and right upper quadrant abdominal pain

704
Q

What is cholangitis?

A

Ascending cholangitis, also known as acute cholangitis or simply cholangitis, is inflammation of the bile duct (cholangitis), usually caused by bacteria ascending from its junction with the duodenum (first part of the small intestine). It tends to occur if the bile duct is already partially obstructed by gallstones (but also other causes of impaired biliary damage).

Cholangitis can be life-threatening[ Characteristic symptoms include yellow discoloration, fever, abdominal pain, and in severe cases, low blood pressure and confusion. Initial treatment is with intravenous fluids and antibiotics.

705
Q

What’s the relationship of CBD (common bile duct) stones and fever?

A

Fever is part of the picture and indicates biliary sepsis that can lead to septicaemia.

706
Q

Biochemistry with CBD (common bile duct) stones?

A

>> neutrophils and >> CRP frequently accompany cholangitis.

>> serum bilirubin (often mild)

Alk phos and gamma-glutamyl elevated in proportion to degree of hyperbilirubinaemia.

>>aminotransferase levels

>> PT if bile duct obstruction; this reflects decreased absorption of Vit K.

Possibly >> serum amylase levels.

707
Q

What are the complications of gallstones?

A

acute cholecystitis

acute cholangitis

gallstone-related pancreatitis

rare; gallstones eroding through GB wall into intestine resulting in obstruction.

708
Q

What LFTs are affected by hepatocellular injury? (e.g. hepatitis)

A

elevation in serum ALT and AST

(the transaminases)

709
Q

How does biliary damage/ cholestasis affect the LFTs?

A

a disproportionate elevation in serum ALP and gamma-GT compared to the transaminases.

710
Q

What does bilirubin blood levels indicate?

A

Liver’s ability to detoxify metabolites

711
Q

How do you generally assess liver function (which two markers?)

A

serum albumin

PT

712
Q

What does low albumin indicate?

A

chronic processes such as cirrhosis or cancer.

713
Q

What does elevated PT indicate?

A

Vit K def due to malabsorption or significant hepatocellular dysfunction.

714
Q

Apart from hepatocellular injury, what else can elevated serum ALT values correlate with?

A

BMI and waist circumference; corelates with obesity.

715
Q

Name some hepatic causes of elevated ALT/ AST

A

Viral hepatitis A, B, C, E and cytomegalovirus (CMV) or Epstein-Barr (EBV)

Hepatitis C; increased risk with blood transfusions, IV drugs, high risk sexual behaviour, etc.

716
Q

What can cause bronzing of skin pigmentation?

A

hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC)

NB. HHC and cirrhosis increase risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

717
Q

What are the primary causes of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

NB. Fatty changes in the liver (called steatosis) and irritate the liver and cause scarring. Mechanism not known.

A

Increased insulin resistance syndrome

Diabetes mellitus (type 2)

Obesity

Hyperlipidaemia

Hypertension

718
Q

How does cystic fibrosis affect the liver?

A

Can cause fibrosis and cirrhosis.

Affects the drainage of bile out of the liver via the bile ducts.

Many patients are asymptomatic.

719
Q

Why do you get thrombocytopenia in liver disease?

A

The pathophysiology of thrombocytopenia in liver disease has long been associated with the concept of splenomegaly, where portal hypertension was thought to cause pooling and sequestration of all corpuscular elements of the blood, predominantly thrombocytes in the enlarged spleen.

720
Q

Why are patients with liver disease and portal hypertension more prone to bleeding?

A
  1. Low platelet count due to splenomegaly (caused by >> venous congestion)
  2. Impaired clotting factors by the liver.
721
Q

What are the main risk categories for NASH? (Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

More common in women.

Associated with obesity and type II diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

722
Q

Name four inherited liver diseases

A

haemochromatosis

alpha-antitrypsin deficiency

cystic fibrosis

Wilson’s disease (copper - Kayser-Fleischer rings)

723
Q

Which endocrine conditions can cause elevated ALT/ AST? (2)

A

Thyroid disorders - mechanism unknown

Addison’s disease - adrenal insufficiency (rem. synacthen test)

724
Q

What is Synacthen?

A

Synacthen is a drug that acts like ACTH by stimulating the adrenal gland to produce more cortisol.

By measuring the rise in cortisol in the blood the doctor can see if the adrenal glands are secreting normal amounts of cortisol and the pituitary gland normal amounts of ACTH.

725
Q

What is Gallstone ileus and how does it present?

A

Gallstone ileus is obstruction of the bowel due to impaction of one of more gallstones.

the most common site of obstruction in the ileum (60%)

The clinical presentation of gallstone ileus is frequently nonspecific with intermittent symptoms of nausea, vomiting, abdominal distension, and pain

Abdominal pain is colicky in nature, with freedom from pain between spasms.