The FCA Conduct of Business and Client Asset Sourcebooks Flashcards

(108 cards)

1
Q

what is a fact find

A

where relevant personal and financial information is obtained (for suitability report)

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2
Q

what is an eligible counterparty

A

either a per se eligible counterparty or an elective eligible counterparty

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3
Q

what is the order execution policy purpose

A

To ensure that a firm obtains the best possible result for the client
-To be provided before providing services

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4
Q

does opting down to retail client guarantee the right of access to bodies such as the FOS and the FSCS

A

does not guarantee

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5
Q

what are post-sale cancellation rights also known as

A

cooling-off period -> right to change their mind

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6
Q

what are the rules regarding allocation

A

timely allocation,
fair allocation (allocate to clients first),
unless: firm has reasonable grounds to allocate proportionally

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7
Q

what are the requirements for a firm to be a large undertaking

A

large undertaking (must satisfy 2/3):

  • BS EUR20m
  • net turnover EUR40m
  • own funds EUR2m
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8
Q

do records need to be kept on site

A

no, but they must be ‘readily accessible’

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9
Q

how does a retail client opt up to be an elective professional client

A

qualitative test
-assess expertise, experience and knowledge
quantitative test (mifid business only)
meet 2/3:
-av. trade freq 10 per quarter over previous 4 quarters
-portfolio > EUR500k
-works or worked in financial sector >= one year in professional capacity
Procedure
- Written intent from client to be classified as professional - Written warning to client explaining lost protection
- Written client consent to lost protection

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10
Q

what is the purpose of a transaction confirmation

A

ensure clients are advised of the essential details of a transaction

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11
Q

what does the client order handling stipulate

A

promptly recorded and allocated

-carried out sequentially

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12
Q

what is mar

A

market abuse regulation

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13
Q

what happens if there is a reconciliation and there is found to be a shortfall

A

shortfalls corrected as soon as possible

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14
Q

what is an approved bank to hold client money in

A

BCD credit institution

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15
Q

what is a durable medium (actual question)

A

A medium that allows the unchanged reproduction and storage of the information, for example:

  • paper
  • floppy disk, CD, DVD
  • hard drive of recipients computer
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16
Q

what is a CASS audit

A
  • required annually and submitted to FCA within four months of audit
  • client asset assurance standard set by financial reporting council
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17
Q

do you have to be the same class of client for all products

A

no

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18
Q

what do periodic statements include

A

client portfolio, value and composition,
total fees and charges,
total dividends and interest

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19
Q

what is cass 7

A

client money rules

  • mifid business
  • opt-in available for non-mifid business
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20
Q

what is conduct of business rules to do with recording voice or electronic communications

A

good quality recording should be kept for 5 years when relating to:
-receiving client orders
-executing client orders
-arranging for a client order to be executed
including communications via fax, email, IM, mobile phones
applies to comms with any client or eligible counterparty

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21
Q

what is reconciliation

A

checking the accounts against the record that we hold for those accounts

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22
Q

when is order aggregation permitted

A

if:

  • unlikely to operate to the disadvantage of clients
  • disclose that on some occasions it may operate to the disadvantage of clients
  • order allocation policy is in place
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23
Q

what is the timings of periodic statements

A

every 3 months (clients can ask for annual),
except:
-derivatives: every month

both need to be sent out promptly

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24
Q

are Chinese walls mandatory

A

no

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25
what are some examples of unwritten communications
real time: conversations, telephone calls presentations that are live
26
how can a firm deal with conflicts of interest
systems and controls in place to manage, conflicts policy, Chinese wall (or similar)
27
client asset rules are always home state regulated
yes
28
how does a professional client become an eligible counterparty
client just needs to ask and provide information
29
what three documents are there to provide disclosure to retail clients about the product
key information document (KID) (packaged retail and insurance-based investment products (PRIIPS)), key investor information document (KIID) (UCITS), key features document
30
what are the execution factors
Price, costs, speed, likelihood of execution and settlement or any other consideration
31
what is the timeline for reconciliation if there is found to be a shortfall
as soon as possible if internal reconciliation then it is the close of business on the day of reconciliation
32
what is the purpose of the client order handling
prompt, fair and expeditious execution of client orders
33
what is this called? Knowingly deal for its own account until the clients whom the publication was intended have had a reasonable time to react to it
front running investment research
34
what is eligible counterparty business
dealing
35
what is a formal 'client agreement' document
retail client document: in clear and easy to understand english, both rights and obligations of firm and rights and obligations of customer
36
what are readily realisable securities
shares and bonds with liquid market
37
for retail clients, what does a firm then have to do after the fact find and suitability rule
create a suitability report (reasons why letter), | reasons why you have recommended abc to you
38
what are Chinese walls
internal arrangements to restrict the flow of confidential information
39
is assessing appropriateness always necessary
not necessary for execution-only business involving non-complex financial instruments
40
what is eligible counterparty business
dealing on own account and/or executing orders on behalf of clients
41
what is a direct offer or invitation
retail clients only - financial promotion that contains a method of response for the client to invest in a product
42
what do direct offers or invitations have to contain, these are for retail clients and provide a method of response for the client to invest in the product
must contain sufficient information to enable a person to make an informed assessment
43
what is the purpose of client asset rules
fiduciary duty to provide adequate protection for clients money + assets, segregation of assets from the firms (protection in bankruptcy)
44
what are occasional reports
transaction confirmations
45
when is a warning issued by the firm after assessing appropriateness
if firm believes the investment or service is not appropriate, client has not produced sufficient information for firm to come to conclusion
46
what is the time limit for pension contracts, stakeholder pensions and life assurance
5 years
47
what is cass 6
custody rules | -mifid and non-mifid business
48
when does the FCA define as an appropriate time of day
they do not specify, the answer is an appropriate time
49
what four disclosures need to be made to retail clients before advise
the adviser the firm products inducements
50
what is COBS
conduct of business rules
51
what are the two types of communication media
non-written communications - real time written communications - non-real time (recorded video)
52
what must a firm ensure when communicating with retail clients
fair, clear and not misleading
53
what must unwritten communications be:
fair, clear and not misleading, must identify at start: -caller -employer -purpose of call then ask if they want to continue with the call then provide with contact point in case want to cancel communicate at an appropriate time of day
54
what happens to limit orders that are not executed immediately
must be made public, unless: -client expressly instructs otherwise -limit order greater than normal market size
55
what is the fair treatment rule (COBS)
all firms must ensure that they act honestly, fairly and professionally
56
what is the difference between suitability and appropriateness
suitability report: retail clients, | appropriateness: all clients
57
can an elective professional client opt up to be an elective eligible counterparty
no
58
can you use future performance in communications with clients
yes, but it cannot be based on simulated past performance. only when there is an actual past performance warn that forecasts are not reliable indicators assumptions must be reasonable
59
what is the suitability rule
requires firms to obtain sufficient information to give suitable advice to retail clients (all business) and professional clients (mifid business)
60
what are the general rules on time limits for mifid and non-mifid business
``` 3 years (non-mifid) 5 years (mifid) ```
61
what is an IDD
initial disclosure document:
62
what is the disclosure regarding the products being marketed to retail clients
provide enough information about the nature and risk of the product,
63
what are the best execution criteria
- Client categorisation - Type of order - Type of financial instrument being traded - Characteristics of execution venues
64
can you use simulated past performance in communications with clients
yes
65
what has to be adhered to if putting past performance in communications with clients
must not be most prominent feature cover at least five years in complete 12 month intervals reference periods and sources must be clearly shown this is not an indicator of future performance currency stated and warning of currency risk disclose effect of fees and commissions (five years and reliable indicator most important)
66
name some packaged products (actual question)
``` life policy, regulated CIS, investment trust savings scheme, stakeholder pension, personal pension ```
67
what is the procedure for retail clients opting up to professional clients
written intent from client to be classified as professional written warning to client explaining lost protection written client consent to lost protection
68
what is a financial promotion
invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity communicated in the course of business (advertising or marketing)
69
who does conflicts of interest include
all clients
70
what is a conduct of business rule to do with websites
firm is permitted to communicate via a website if the following conditions are met: - evidence appropriate method of communication - specifically consented to this method - client notified of website address electronically - info kept up to date - info continuously accessible as long as client requires
71
what is exempt from the requirement to reconcile
- ICVS and UCITD schemes - incoming EEA firms (follow home state) - BCD credit institution money that is not client money: - coins held for value of the metal (gold sovereigns, client asset not client money) - money held for delivery versus payment (DvP) (settlement max 3 days) - money due and payable to the firm
72
when are cold calls permitted
an existing client who envisages a call all retail clients where the promotion relates to: -generally marketable packaged product (not high volatility fund) -services relating to readily realisable securities other than warrants (shares + bonds with liquid markets)
73
what is the period for the right to cancel
generally 14 days, life and pension 30 calendar days
74
what is an inducement
thing that persuades or leads someone to do something
75
you are a _____ client until proven otherwise
retail client
76
what are the exceptions to the front running of investment research
``` firm is market maker dealing in normal course of business, unsolicited client (including eligible counterparties) orders (normal client orders) ```
77
who does the conduct of business rules apply to
apply directly to firms conducting designated business or conducting insurance business from an establishment maintained by them in the UK designated business: - dealing - broking - advising - managing
78
a firm that communicates a financial promotion produced by a third party would never be in breach of rules if:
- it has established that an authorised firm has approved the promotion - it communicates the promotion only to those it was intended - promotion has not ceased to be fair, clear and misleading
79
what can a large undertaking (professional client) do
opt up to become an elective eligible counterparty. | for ex bp if they wanted to be treated same as counterparties
80
what are the post-sale cancellation rights periods for life products and pensions, and other products
life products and pensions: 30 calendar days | other products: 14 calendar days
81
what is the time limit for recordings of telephone communications
five years from the creation of the record
82
if counterparties dealing among themselves what can you not work out
who is the client, so you treat them as equal
83
what do you do if conflicts of interest cannot be managed
disclose conflicts of interest to clients (last resort)
84
what is S21 FSMA 2000
must not communicate a financial promotion unless: - it is an authorised person; or - the content has been approved by an authorised person (authorised person takes responsibility)
85
can we rely on information provided by other organisations
if the information is from a mifid firm: -a firm may rely on the information and recommendations if the information is from a non-mifid firm: -information is in writing -non-mifid firm is independent (independent of object of information, company z) -non-mifid firm is competent (mifid firm accountable for that assessment)
86
retail distribution review (RDR): retail clients
adviser charges agreed in advance with client as early as practicable, no commissions are permitted (conflict of interest), must disclose adviser status and costs of services before
87
what is the purpose of the suitability report
confirm why firm believes recommendation is suitable (mifid and non mifid business)
88
does the suitability rule cover execution services
no, not when the firm has no input into the decision making of the investor. does apply to discretionary services (acting as investment manager) and advisory services (personal recommendation)
89
what is the purpose of best execution
A firm must take all sufficient steps to obtain the best possible result for its clients, taking into account the execution factors
90
when is a financial promotion not subject to any rules
-if it is exempt under the financial promotions order (FPO) from outside the UK, and cannot have an effect in the UK -subject to takeover code or similar code -personal quotes or illustrations -one-off promotions that are not cold calls -image advertising
91
what is rehypothecation
firm using assets of client for own purposes
92
what is the time limit for pension transfers and opt-outs, free standing additional voluntary contributions (FSAVCs)
indefinitely
93
what investments apply to COBS
mifid instruments non-mifid designated investments insurance business -> life assurance with an investment element
94
what does a suitability report contain
specify clients demands and needs, explain why firm believes recommendation meeds those needs, explains possible disadvantages for client
95
how has mifid 2 strengthened inducement rules
firm must not pay to, or accept from, any fee, commission or non-monetary benefit, unless: - fee designed to enhance quality of service, - fee does not impair the firm's duty to act in best interest of customer. firm must disclose all fees
96
when a firm publishes research to its clients or the public, it must ensure:
does not receive inducement from those with material interest, not promise issuers favourable coverage, issuers covered are not permitted to review drafts of the research
97
what are some examples of per se professional clients
``` authorised/regulated firm government, central bank, supranational other institutional investors (SPV) large undertaking (must satisfy 2/3): -BS EUR20m -net turnover EUR40m -own funds EUR2m ```
98
are trail commissions for retail client advisers allowed if the investor and advisor agree (acc q)
no, trail commissions are not allowed
99
All of the following could be considered a professional client. Which of them is MOST LIKELY to have reached that status through election? (acc q) A Local authority B National body that manages public debt C Limited liability partnership D Designated investment exchange
A - Local authority, all others would be considered per se professional clients. The local authority must have met certain requirements to be eligible to opt up
100
when can a retail client expect to receive information regarding their right to cancel an agreement to purchase units in an authorised unit trust? A Before entering into the agreement at all times B After entering into the agreement at all times C Before and after entering into the agreement at all times D Before or after entering into the agreement depending on the situation
D - Before or after entering into the agreement depending on the situation, If cancellation rights apply, firms must tell consumers of their rights in good time before (or where that is not possible, immediately after) the consumer is bound by the contract; and they must do so in a durable medium.
101
With regard to financial promotions, the need to be fair, clear and not misleading applies to: A All clients B Retail clients only C Professional clients only D Eligible counterparties only
The rule on fair, clear and not misleading applies to retail clients. Beware there is also a general rule regarding communications which applies to professional and retail clients.
102
A firm is approached by an authorised collective investment scheme (CIS) in relation to designated investment business. Which of the following best represents the conditions under which the CIS will get classified as a professional client? A Turnover of €40 million and own funds of €2 million B Turnover of €40 million and a balance sheet of €15 million C It is always classified as a professional client D It can never be classified as a professional client
C - It is always classified as a professional client
103
what is a systematic internaliser
investment firms which, on an organised, frequent, systematic and substantial basis, deal on own account when executing client orders outside a regulated market, an MTF or an OTF
104
when entering into a distance marketing contract for a life policy, how much time must a retail client be given to cancel the contract if they wish to do so (acc q)
30 calendar days
105
Under the FCA client money rules (CASS 7), in which of the following situations is a firm deemed to have discharged fiduciary duty? A When a cheque drawn from the client account is paid into a client bank account B On receipt of an instruction to return funds from the client account from a client C The despatch of funds to client D At the point where the payment clears from the client account
at point where payment clears from the clients account
106
when communication by a firm contains information about past performance, this must cover a minimum period of how long? (acc q)
5 years
107
do they need to take integrity and reputation into account when reclassifying a retail client as a professional client
no
108
what does a broker have to do if the client has submitted a limit order much higher than the firm is willing to buy (acc q)
place the order on a regulated market