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IB Biology > The cell cycle > Flashcards

The cell cycle Flashcards

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1
Q

How do prokaryotes divide?

A

Asexual reproduction - Binary Fission

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2
Q

How do eukaryotes divide?

A

Mitosis or meiosis

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3
Q

How does binary fission differ from mitosis?

A

Because prokaryotic cells do not have a true nucleus like eukaryotes

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4
Q

How does mitosis differ from binary fission?

A

There is no mitotic spindle formation in the nucleus during binary fission.

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5
Q

What does meiosis produce?

A

23 pairs of chromosomes -> haploid gametes
(1 chromatid from each of the 46 chromosomes)

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6
Q

What is the result of the cell cycle?

A

2 genetically identical daughter cells

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7
Q

How long do cells spend in interphase?

A

90-95%

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8
Q

What are the two main phases of the cell cycle?

A

Interphase and Mitosis

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9
Q

What are the three stages of interphase?

A

G1, S and G2

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10
Q

Why is the cell cycle important?

A
  • Healing and tissue repair
  • Growth
  • Replacement
  • Reproduction
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11
Q

What are the three doubles of interphase?

A
  1. Double cell content
  2. Double chromosomes
  3. Double check
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12
Q

What happens during G1 Phase?

A

Cellular contents (excluding chromosomes) are duplicated

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13
Q

What happens during S phase?

A

DNA replication occurs which aims to duplicate all chromosomes to get a complete extra set of all genetic material.

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14
Q

What happens during G2 phase?

A

The cell prepares for division by organising and condensing material. It doubles checks and repairs duplicated genetic material.

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15
Q

In the cell cycle, what is progress through phases dependent on?

A

Cellular checkpoints

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16
Q

What happens after Interphase?

A

Mitosis

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17
Q

What are the four main stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase

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18
Q

What happens to each daughter cell?

A

Each daughter cell then enters their own interphase and then the cell cycle begins again

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19
Q

What happens at the end of telophase and why?

A

Cytokinesis occurs which enables the distribution and separation of all components into two identical daughter cells.

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20
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

Spindle fibres appear
Chromosomes condense

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21
Q

What happens during prometaphase?

A

Spindle fibres attach to chromosomes
Chromosomes condense

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22
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes align

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23
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Centromeres divide
Sister chromatids move to opposite poles

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24
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Nuclear membrane reforms
Chromosomes decondense
Spindle fibres disappear

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25
Q

What happens during cytokinesis?

A

Cytoplasm divides
Parent cell becomes 2 daughter cells with identical genetic information

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26
Q

What is G0 phase?

A

G0 phase is a state of cell cycle arrest which happens after mitosis is completed if there are no external growth stimuli

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27
Q

What are the states of G0 phase

A

Reversible (quiescent))
Irreversible (senescent and differentiated)

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28
Q

Tell me about the reversible G0 phase. (examples)

A

It is regulated by extrinsic signals
Examples: tissue stem cells, hepatocytes

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29
Q

Tell me about the irreversible G0 phase. (examples)

A

Senescent
- DNA damage/telomere shortening
- Cell no longer viable to continue dividing
Differentiated
- bone/nerve/muscle

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30
Q

What state are the majority of cells with DNA content in adults in?

A

G0 phase

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31
Q

Why are control mechanisms important?

A

To ensure safe and proper progression

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32
Q

What do checkpoints have the capability of doing?

A

Terminating the cell cycle

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33
Q

What are the three main checkpoints?

A

G1 checkpoint
G2/M checkpoint
Spindle checkpoint (metaphase - anaphase)

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34
Q

What can induce activation of cyclins/CDKs?

A

Mitogenic signals like hormones and growth factors

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35
Q

What are the key regulators of checkpoints and responsible for progression?

A

Heterodimers composed of cyclins and cyclindepdendent kinases (CDKs)

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36
Q

What can cause the activation of catalytic subunit CDKs?

A

Binding of the regulatory subunit of cyclins to the catalytic subunit (CDKs)

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37
Q

How do heterodimers consecutively orchestrate the entry into the next cell cycle phase?

A

After the binding of the regulatory subunit to the catalytic subunit they then phosphorylate proteins which leads to te next cell cycle phase

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38
Q

What cyclins and CDKs are used in G1 phase?

A

Cyclin D and CDK 4/6

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39
Q

What cyclin and CDK are used in G1/s phases?

A

Cyclin E and CDK 2

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40
Q

What cyclin and CDKs are used in the s phase?

A

Cyclin A and CDK 2

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41
Q

What cyclin and CDKs are used in G2/M?

A

Cyclin B and CDK1

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42
Q

What is the main reason the cell cycle would stop at the G1/S and G2/M checkpoints?

A

DNA damage

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43
Q

What are key proteins in determining outcome of G1 checkpoint?

A

E2F family and Rb

44
Q

What is the mechanism behind the G1 checkpoint?

A

DNA damage increases degradation of Cyclin D

45
Q

What is the point of the G1 checkpoint?

A

It is the point of commitment to entering cell cycle (enter G0, delay or proceed)

46
Q

What happens at G1/S checkpoint?

A

It hyperphosphorylates Rb at all sites causing complete inactivation

47
Q

What stops backwards movement at the G1/S checkpoint?

A

The transcription of Cyclin A

48
Q

Why is G2/M checkpoint a safety net before mitosis?

A

It prevents DNA damage/mutations continuing and being replicated and being passed on.

49
Q

What does the G2/M checkpoint require?

A

G2 requires a DNA damage assessment

50
Q

What is the mechanism of G2/M progression?

A

Protein accumulation and Wee1 inhibited causing the activation of CyclinB/CDK1

51
Q

What acts as DNA sensors in the G2/M checkpoint?

A

ATR and ATM

52
Q

What is the similarity between G1/S and G2/M?

A

subsequent similar mechanisms including the activation of p53

53
Q

What happens if DNA damage is detected?

A

The cell cycle is halted or damaged

54
Q

What are the two types of mechanism if DNA damage is detected?

A

Rapid and prolonged

55
Q

Explain rapid mechanism if DNA damage is detected?

A

Proteins ATM and ATR act as sensors
These activates Chk2 and Chk1 causing the inhibition of CyclinE/Cdk2
Therefore cells does not progress

56
Q

Explain prolonged mechanism if DNA damage is detected?

A

P53 is activated -> Cyclin E/CDK2
P21 -> Rb dephosporylation -> inhibits G1/S transition

57
Q

What causes cancer?

A

Loss of function
Damaged DNA is replicated
Cancer

58
Q

When does the mitotic spindle checkpoint occur?

A

In metaphase

59
Q

What needs to happen to the chromosomes during metaphase checkpoint?

A

Chromosomes need to have aligned and be under tension

60
Q

What detects the tension during metaphase checkpoint?

A

APC (anaphase-promoting complex)

61
Q

What does the activation APC/C during the metaphase checkpoint do?

A

Cause the cycle to move onto anaphase

62
Q

What causes metaphase checkpoint to continue?

A

Equal distribution of chromosomes between new daughter cells

63
Q

What causes the G1/S checkpoint to continue?

A

Sufficient number of organelles
Growth factors activation

63
Q

What causes G2/M checkpoint to continue?

A

Completely replicated genome
Large Cell volume

64
Q

What causes metaphase checkpoint to fail?

A

Chromatids are not properly assembled on mitotic spindle

65
Q

What does a change in base cause?

A

A change in the function of a protein

66
Q

What codes protein?

A

RNA

67
Q

What do chromosomes contain?

A

DNA

68
Q

What is DNA composed of?

A

Bases

69
Q

What do sequence of bases code?

A

Exons and introns

70
Q

What codes genes?

A

Exons

71
Q

Why do introns not code genes?

A

They are non coding and are spliced/removed

72
Q

Do proteins work alone or in combination?

A

Trick question: Both

73
Q

How many exons in the human genome?

A

234,000

74
Q

How can multiple proteins come from a single gene?

A

Because introns allow alternative splicing causing multiple proteins from a single gene.

75
Q

What are the four common causes of DNA damage?

A

Base mismatch
Single-strand break
Double strand break
Bulky adducts

76
Q

What external factors cause base mismatch DNA damage?

A

DNA replication stress

77
Q

What external factors cause single strand break DNA damage?

A

Oxygen radicals
Ionising radiation
Chemotherapeutic

78
Q

What external factor cause double strand break DNA damage?

A

Ionizing radiation
Chemotherapeutic

79
Q

What external factors cause bulky adducts DNA damage?

A

Ultraviolet light
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

80
Q

What happens to the DNA during base mismatch?

A

Insertions/deletions

81
Q

What happens to the DNA during double strand break?

A

Interstrand crosslinks

82
Q

What happens to the DNA during Bulky adducts?

A

Interstrand crosslinks

83
Q

What happens when the cell cycle malfunctions?

A

DNA damage is carried through to subsequent cells

84
Q

How are cancer cells grown?

A

Mutated tumour suppressor gene loses function
And/or
Mutated proto oncogene gains function

85
Q

How may cell cycle malfunctions impact functions of a key protein?

A

Overactivation
Inactivation

86
Q

What does germ-line mean?

A

Born with

87
Q

What is an example of germ line?

A

BRCA mutation

88
Q

What does somatic mean?

A

Acquired

89
Q

How often can stem cells replicate?

A

Indefinitely

90
Q

How often can progenitor cells divide?

A

Only a limited number of times

91
Q

What is the normal function of an oncogene?

A

Promotes cell growth
Differentiation

92
Q

What is the normal function of a tumour suppressor gene?

A

Regulates cell growth
Apoptosis
Genetic integrity

93
Q

Describe the mutation of an oncogene

A

Dominant
Only one altered copy needed

94
Q

Describe the mutation of a tumour suppressor gene

A

Recessive
Both copies must be altered

95
Q

What is the effect of mutation on an oncogene?

A

Gain of function

96
Q

What is the effect of mutation on a tumour suppressor gene?

A

Loss of function

97
Q

What tumour suppressor gene gives a predisposition to breast/ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA1/2

98
Q

What predisposition does the tumour suppressor gene P53 cause?

A

Li Fraumeni

99
Q

What syndrome does tumour suppressor gene PTEN cause?

A

Cowden Syndrome

100
Q

What causes adenomatous polypopsis coil?

A

Tumour suppressor gene APC

101
Q

What does the tumour suppressor gene MMR cause?

A

Lynch Syndrome

102
Q

What does the tumour suppressor gene Rb cause?

A

Retinoblastoma

103
Q

What does the oncogene KRAS cause?

A

Lung/Colorectal cancer

104
Q

What oncogene causes Lung/Colorectal/Oesophageal cancer?

A

EGFR

105
Q

What does the oncogene HER2 cause?

A

Breast/Gastric cancer

IB Biology (4 decks)

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