The Blood Transfusion Lab Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between antigens and antibodies?

A

Antigens are part of the surface of cells.
- all blood cells have antigens.

Antibodies are protein molecules - immunoglobulins (Ig).

  • usually of the immunoglobulin classes: IgG and IgM
  • found in the plasma
  • produced by the immune system following exposure to a foreign antigen

Reactions to blood usually occur when the antibody in the plasma reacts with an antigen on the cells.

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2
Q

Describe the known blood groups.

A

There are 26 known blood group systems.
ABO and Rh are clinically the most important.

Antigens in transfused blood can stimulate a patient to produce an antibody, but only if the patient lacks the antigen themselves.

The frequency of antibody production is very low but increases with the more transfusions that are given.

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3
Q

What can stimulate antibody production?

A

BLOOD TRANSFUSION:
i.e. blood carrying antigens foreign to the patient

PREGNANCY:
foetal antigen entering maternal circulation during pregnancy or at birth

ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS:
(i.e. naturally acquired e.g. anti-A and anti-B)

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4
Q

What are the different antibody-antigen reactions?

A

IN VIVO (in the body): leads to the destruction of the cell either:

  • directly when the cell breaks up in the blood stream (intravascular)
  • indirectly when liver and spleen remove antibody coated cells (extravascular)
IN VITRO (in the laboratory)
- reactions are normally seen as agglutination tests
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5
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Agglutination is the clumping together of red cells into visible agglutinates by antigen-antibody reactions.

Agglutination results from antibody cross-linking with the antigens.

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6
Q

What can agglutination help us identify?

A

As the antigen-antibody reaction is specific, agglutination can identify:

  • the presence of a red cell antigen
    i. e. blood grouping
  • the presence of an antibody in the plasma
    i. e. antibody screening/identification
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7
Q

What is the clinical significance of the ABO grouping system?

A

A and B antigens are very common (55% UK).
Anti-A, anti-B or anti-A,B antibodies are very common (97% UK).

There is a high risk of A or B cells being transfused into someone with the antibody in a random situation.
ABO antibodies can activate complement causing INTRAVASCULAR HAEMOLYSIS.

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8
Q

How would you identify a patient’s blood group via lab testing?

A

The patient’s red cells and plasma are both tested.

1) Test patient’s red cells with anti-A, anti-B and anti-D
- agglutination shows that a particular antigen is on the red cells
- no agglutination shows the antigen is absent

2) Test patient’s plasma with A cells and B cells
- agglutination shows that a particular antibody is in the plasma or serum
- no agglutination shows the antibody is absent

From these results, using the blood group table, we can interpret the data and figure out the patient’s blood group.

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9
Q

Describe the Rh grouping system.

A

There are 50+ antigens; the most important antigen is called antigen D.
People with the D antigen are RhD positive (85% of UK), while people who do not produce any D antigen are RhD negative (15%).
The other 4 main Rh antigens are known as C, c, E and e.

It is the most important after ABO.
It must be tested in duplicate (or tested each time and compared to historical result).
The patient/donor is then classified as RhD pos or RhD neg.

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10
Q

What is the clinical significance of Rh grouping?

A

Rh antibodies are clinically significant (second only to ABO)

TRANSFUSION:

  • the D antigen is very immunogenic and anti-D is easily stimulated - PREVENTION
  • all Rh antibodies are capable of causing severe transfusion reaction - ANTIBODY DETECTION

PREGNANCY:

  • Rh antibodies are usually IgG and can cause haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
  • anti-D is still the most common cause of severe HDN
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11
Q

Describe an example of HDN.

A

We have an Rh+ father and an Rh- mother.

The Rh- mother is carrying her Rh+ foetus. Rh antigens from the developing foetus can enter the mother’s blood during delivery.

In response to the foetal Rh antigens, the mother will produce anti-Rh antibodies.

Thus, if the woman becomes pregnant with another Rh+ foetus, her anti-Rh antibodies will cross the placenta and damage the foetal red blood cells.

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12
Q

How would you use laboratory screening to prevent HDN consequences?

A

You would do blood group and antibody screen at antenatal booking to identify pregnancies at risk of HDN.
- RhD negative women may need anti-D prophylaxis.

There’s also blood group and antibody screening at 28 weeks.

Atypical antibodies are quantified periodically to assess their potential effect on the foetus.

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13
Q

What do we do when there is an RhD- woman who is pregnant?

A

We give her routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis, or RAADP. We inject her with anti-D, which will bind to and remove any foetal RhD+ red cells in the circulation.

It is given routinely at 28 weeks and a smaller dose after the delivery. Sometimes, the larger dose is split into 2 smaller ones at 28 and 34 weeks.

Anti-D is also given after any event that may cause a foeto-maternal haemorrhage (bleed between mum and fetus) such as:

  • abdominal trauma
  • intrauterine death
  • spontaneous or therapeutic abortion
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14
Q

Why do we perform antibody screening?

A

There are other clinically significant antibodies that can cause a haemolytic transfusion reaction.

It is important that we screen for these antibodies so that, if detected, antigen negative blood can be provided to avoid causing a immune reaction.

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15
Q

How do we perform antibody screening?

A

Patient’s serum is mixed with 3 selected screening cells, incubated for 15 minutes at 37°C and then centrifuged for 5 minutes.

Any clinically significant antibodies reacting at body temp should be detected and then identified using a panel of known phenotyped red cells.

Specific antigen negative blood can then be provided for these patients to avoid stimulating an immune response.

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16
Q

What do we do when we detect an antibody during screening?

A

If an antibody is detected we must:

  • identify the antibody
  • assess its clinical significance (for transfusion, in pregnancy, etc.)
17
Q

How do you identify an antibody?

A

You compare the pattern of reactions with each reagent cell of the ID panel with the pattern of antigens on the reagent cells.

The matching pattern will identify the antibody.

18
Q

What is the indirect anti-globulin test (IAT)?

A

It’s used to detect IgG antibodies, as the LISS counteracts the Zeta potential. It results in agglutination.

It’s used for:

  • screening for antibodies
  • identifying antibodies
  • cross-matching donor blood with recipient plasma when there are known antibodies or a previous history of antibodies
19
Q

Describe the different methods of crossmatching.

A

IMMEDIATE SPIN CROSS-MATCH (ISX):

  • antibody screen is negative
  • checking donor red cells against patients plasma (ABO check, incubate for 2 – 5 minutes (room temp), spin and read)

FULL INDIRECT ANTI-GLOBULIN TEST (IAT) CROSS-MATCH:

  • antibody screen positive or patient has known antibody history.
  • select antigen negative donor red cells and incubate with patient serum for 15 minutes at 37°C
20
Q

Describe the red cells stored in blood banks.

A

They store concentrated red cells (packed cells) in a suspension of SAGM.

The red cells have oxygen carrying capacity.

It’s used to treat symptomatic anaemia.

If significant bleeding anticipated, we activate the major haemorrhage protocol.

21
Q

Describe the fresh frozen plasma stored in blood banks.

A

FFP contains all the clotting factors; it’s given for coagulopathy with associated bleeding.

It requires clotting screens to monitor.

Only has 24 hour life after thawing
(five days for major haemorrhage).

22
Q

Describe the platelets stored in blood banks.

A

There’s an adult pool of platelets from 4 donors (suspended in plasma from 1 donor) in a bag.

The platelets are required to create clots to reduce bleeding.

Some drugs are given to reduce efficacy of platelets (anti-platelet agents), so patient history is important!

23
Q

Describe cryoprecipitate.

A

It contains Factor VIII, VWF and fibrinogen.

Two units are usually given at one time.

We have to monitor fibrinogen levels by clotting screens.

24
Q

Describe different haemovigilance schemes.

A

SERIOUS HAZARDS OF TRANSFUSION (SHOT):

  • voluntary reporting
  • report all Serious Adverse Events (SAE) and Serious Adverse Reactions (SAR)

SERIOUS ADVERSE BLOOD REACTIONS AND EVENTS (SABRE):

  • mandatory reporting
  • report all SAR and SAE where the root cause error was the quality system