TH2 Flashcards
1
Q
control region class A
artic control area (ACA), what are the flight levels?
A
FL270-FL600
2
Q
control region class A
northern control area (NCA), what are the flight levels?
A
FL230-FL600
3
Q
control region class A
southern control area (SCA), what are the flight levels?
A
FL180-270
4
Q
between FL180 and FL270 in ACA, what is the type (class) of airspace?
A
class G
5
Q
what is the class of airspace above FL600 at all times?
A
class E
6
Q
north atlantic track - minimum performances (NAT-MNPA), what are the flight levels?
A
FL285-FL420
7
Q
canadian minimum navigation performance specification airspace (CMNPS), what are the flight levels?
A
FL330-FL410
8
Q
RVSM airspace is between flight levels _ and _, where aircraft are vertically separated by _ feet instead of the standard _ feet
A
FL290-FL410
1000’, 2000’
9
Q
class A
- altitude
- kind of flights
- what do you need to operate within a class A airspace
A
- altitude : FL180-FL600
- kind of flights : IFR only
- what do you need to operate within a class A airspace : bilarteral radio communications, transponder, clearance
10
Q
class B
- altitude
- kind of flights
- what do you need to operate within a class B airspace
A
- altitude : 12 501’-18 000’ (or MEA if higher than 12,5)
- kind of flights : IFR and CVFR
- what do you need to operate within a class B airspace : bilateral radio communications, transponder, clearance
11
Q
class C
- kind of flights
- what do you need to operate within a class C airspace
- what happens when the ATC is not operating in a class C airspace?
A
- kind of flights : IFR and VFR
- what do you need to operate within a class C airspace : bilateral radio communications, transponder, clearance for IFR, authorization for VFR
- class C airspace becomes class E (controlled)
12
Q
class D
- kind of flights
- what do you need to operate within a class D airspace
- what happens when the ATC is not operating in a class D airspace?
A
- kind of flights : IFR and VFR
- what do you need to operate within a class D airspace : bilateral communications, clearance for IFR, establishes bilateral radio communications for VFR, transponder when mentioned
- class D airspace becomes class E (controlled)
13
Q
class E
- kind of flights
- what do you need to operate within a class E airspace
- is a class E airspace controlled?
A
- kind of flights : IFR and VFR
- what do you need to operate within a class E airspace : bilateral communications if IFR, clearance for IFR, transponder when mentioned
- yes, for IFR aircraft
14
Q
class F
- two types
- is a class F airspace controlled?
- what do you need to operate within a class F airspace
A
- CYR : restricted
- CYA : advisory
- can be either controlled or uncontrolled
- IFR flights need a clearance to operate within class F airspace
15
Q
what area around a forest fire is prohibited to flight?
A
5NM around the fire (extrémité), 3000’ AGL, or as specified in the NOTAM
16
Q
an intoxicating liquor is described as a beverage containing _% of alcohol or more
A
2,5
17
Q
no person shall use a portable electronic device on board an aircraft except _
A
with the permission of the operator of the aircraft
18
Q
to whom the PIC can delegate the inspection of critical surfaces?
A
- another flight crew member
- any other person designated by the operator of the aircraft that received proper training on surface contamination
19
Q
in any case, no person shall operate an aircraft at an altitude that is lower than _’ over the highest obstacle located within _’ from the aeroplane
*when flying in circumstances other than those, you must be at least _’ from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
A
1000’, 2000’
500’
20
Q
it is possible to deviate from the latest acknowledged instruction or clearance in response to an alert generated by an _ or a _ or _ or _
A
ACAS, TAWS, GPWS, if the latest instruction/clearance compromises the safety of the flight
21
Q
what are the airspeed limitations?
A
250 kts below 10 000’ (IAS)
200 kts below 3000’ AGL within 10NM of a controlled aerodrome (IAS)
22
Q
what track is used to determine the altitude of the flight?
- in southern domestic airspace (SDA)
- in northern domestic airspace (NDA)
in VFR, it applies to _, in IFR, it applies to _
A
- in southern domestic airspace : magnetic track
- in northern domestic airspace : true track
VFR : above 3000’ AGL
IFR : every flights
23
Q
what does it take to enter airspace over the high seas?
- PIC
- equipment
- fuel
A
- the PIC holds a pilot licence endorsed with an instrument rating
- the aircraft is equipped with :
- the equipment for IFR flights
- a hifi frequency radio (HF) capable of transmitting and receiving on a minimum of 2 appropriate international air-ground general purpose frequencies
- hypothermia protection for each person on board
- the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to meet the requirements of an IFR flight and, in addition, carries 10% of the fuel required for an IFR flight to complete the flight to the aerodrome of destination
24
Q
more than _NM or distance that could be flown in _ minutes at cruising speed as filed in the flight plan (le plus bas), a single engine aircraft (+ multi engined aeroplanes that are unable to maintain flight level with an engine failed) must carry life preservers AND life rats
A
100NM, 30 minutes
24
At what distance from the shore is it not necessary to have life preservers or life rafts on board any aircraft?
50NM
if greater than 50NM, all aircraft must carry life preservers
25
more than _NM or distance that could be flown in _ minutes at cruising speed as filed in the flight plan (le plus bas), a single engine aircraft and a multi engine aircraft must carry life preservers AND life rats
200NM, 60 minutes
26
more than _NM or distance that could be flown in _ minutes at cruising speed as filed in the flight plan (le plus bas), all transport category aircraft must carry life preservers AND life rats
400NM, 120 minutes
27
what's an overdue aircraft?
an aircraft for which an arrival report has not been filed
28
FLIGHT PLAN/ITINERARY
IFR : no PIC shall operate an aircraft unless _
VFR : no PIC shall operate an aircraft unless _, except _
IFR : an IFR flight plan has been filed
VFR : a VFR flight plan/flight itinerary has been filed, except where the flight is conducted within 25NM of the departure aerodrome
29
a PIC may file an IFR flight itinerary instead of an IFR flight plan where : (2)
- the flight is conducted in part or in whole outside controlled airspace
ou
- facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of flight plan information to an air traffic control unit
30
you must make the change to your flight plan if the change to _(TAS/IAS) at the cruising altitude is _ or more or _ Mach number
TAS
5%
0,01
31
IFR fuel requirements
- propeller aircraft
- jet engine aircraft
taxi-runup-one approach- one missed-fly to alternate-land +
- propeller : 45 min cruising speed
- jet :30 min cruising speed
32
an aircraft may be operated in VFR OTT flight during the cruise portion of the flight during the day if the aircraft is operated at least : (4)
TAF : _h before to _h after the ETA
GFA : _h before to _h after the ETA
- 1000' over the cloud layer
- at least 5000' between cloud layers
- 5NM vis or more
- forecast at destination : no ceiling lower than 3000' above the flight plan altitude
TAF : 1h before, 2h after
GFA : 1h before, 3h after
33
special VFR
an aircraft may be operated in special VFR flight within a control zone if : (3)
- flight visibility is not less than 1SM
- the aircraft is operated clear of cloud and with visual reference to the surface at all times
- you must request it and be cleared by the ATC
*seulement pour atterrir la nuit
34
alternate aerodrome weather minima
2 approche de précision : 400-1 ou 200-1/2 de +
1 approche de précision : 600-2* ou 300-1 de +
aucune approche de précision : 800-2* ou 300-1 de +
aucune approche IFR : forecast must be no lower then 500' above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing
35
when flying IFR, the PIC shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at or above the _ when flying on airway or air route
MOCA
36
when flying IFR, the PIC shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at or above _ when flying outside of airspace where a minimum altitude is established (outside airway or air route)
- 1000' above the highest obstacle within 5NM
- 1500' within 5NM in mountainous regions 2, 3 or 4
- 2000' within 5NM in mountainous regions 1 or 5
*cold operations : ne pas ajouter 1000' dans les régions montagneuses, il est déjà considéré
37
enroute IFR position reports must include :
Identification
Position
Hour (z)
Altitude
Planning (flight plan type)
Position of next point and ETA
Position of next reporting point
38
LVOP =
< 1200RVR
39
RVOP =
< 2600 RVR
40
how is take-off visibility determined?
1. RVR of the runway in use (sauf si fluctue sur et sous la RVR minimale ou moins du minimum à cause de phénomènes localisés)
2. reported ground visibility of the aerodrome (if RVR unavailable, fluctuating over and under minimums, or localized phenomena)
3. if 1-2 unavailable, PIC vis
*minimum = 2600RVR ou 1/2SM
41
landings are governed by _
published DH/MDA
42
approches are governed by _
RVR
43
GENERAL - when the RVR is reported to be less than the minimum RVR, (1200) no person shall continue an instrument approach in an IFR aircraft unless : (5)
1. passé le FAF/intercepté la finale si pas de FAF
2. training flight où aucun atterrissage n'est prévu et l'ATC est informé qu'une missed va être initiée
3. RVR varie en-dessous et au-dessus
4. RVR plus petite que 1200, mais visibilité au sol reportée de 1/4SM
5. approche CAT III
44
the assessment of runway visibility is valid for _ after it is established (pilot vis)
20 minutes
45
in case of a two-way radiocommunication failure in VFR in a class B, C or D airspace, the PIC shall : (3)
- leave the airspace (land/shortest route)
- 7600 if equipped by a transponder
- inform ATC ASAP
46
in case of a two-way radiocommunication failure in IFR in a controlled airspace, the PIC shall : (4)
- maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency
- 7600
- attempt to establish communications with any ATS/other aircraft
- comply with the procedures specified in the CAP/CFS
47
in case of an interception, the PIC shall : (4)
- follow interceptor instructions
- notify the appropriate air traffic services
- make your call with the interceptor on 121,5 MHz
- 7700
48
ADIZ : required revisions to estimate entry time when changes are expected to be plus de +/- _min, or more than _NM
5 minutes
20 NM
49
is the flight authority (certificat de navigabilité) must be carried on board the aircraft?
yes, for every flights.
if a specific-purposed flight permit has been issued, an aircraft may be operated without the flight authority carried on board where :
- the flight is conducted in Canadian airspace
- an entry is made in the journey log indicating :
- the aircraft is operating under a specific-purpose flight permit and
- any operational conditions that pertain to flight operations under the specific-purpose flight permit
50
a POH for more complex airplanes is now called _
usually, the _ is published by _, and the the operators modify the manual to incorporate their SOPs in it
when that modified version is approved by the minister, it is now called an _
AFM (aircraft flight manual)
the manufacturer
AOM (aircraft operating manual)
51
true or false : the aircraft operation manual shall be available to the flight crew members at their duty station?
true
52
which one is more restrictive? MEL or MMEL?
MEL
53
seat belts are mandatory for _
every person on board, except infants (under 2 years)
54
the CREW MEMBERS on an aircraft must be seated at their stations with their safety belts fastened : (2)
- during take-off and landing
- anytime the PIC directs
*passengers = + taxi
*except :
- if the crew member is performing duties relating to the safety of the aircraft/passengers
- in light turbulence, if the crew member is a flight attendant and is performing duties relating to the passengers on board
- if the crew member is occupying a crew rest facility during cruise flight and the restraint system for that facility is properly adjust and securely fastened
55
no operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control lock in respect of the aircraft unless : (2)
- the flight control lock is incapable of becoming engages when the aircraft is being operated (ne peut pas s'enclencher lorsque l'aéronef est utilisé)
and
- an unmistakable warning is provided to the person operation the aircraft whenever the flight control lock is engages (un avertisseur est fourni lorsque le lock est enclenché)
56
oxygen equipment (unpressurized aeroplanes) :
- - 10 000' :
- 10 000' - 13 000'
- + 13 000'
- 10 000' : aucun équipement nécessaire
- 10 000' - 13 000' : all crew members + 10% passengers pour la période de temps excédant 30 minutes (ex : si 35 min à 11 000' ; 5 min oxygène) (si 30 minutes pile = aucun équipement nécessaire)
- + 13 000' : toutes les personnes à bord pour la période de temps entière au-dessus de 13 000' (pour les air transport service, minimum 1 heure d'oxygène)
57
a multi-engined turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured after October 10 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 flight crew members are required by the type certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment onboard?
a. Flight Data Recorder only.
b. Cockpit Voice Recorder only.
c. Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder.
d. Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS
c
58
for those aircraft which are required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder onboard, it must be operated continuously from :
the time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.
59
consider an aircraft with no approved Minimum Equipment List which is required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and a functioning Flight Data Recorder (FDR) onboard. If the CVR is unserviceable, this aircraft may :
a. Only be flown back to its maintenance base via a direct route.
b. Be flown for a maximum period of 90 days provided the FDR remains serviceable.
c. Not be flown with passengers aboard until it is repaired.
d. Not be flown until a flight time has been obtained
b
60
for those aircraft which are required to have a functioning Flight Data Recorder onboard, it must be operated continuously from :
the start of the take-off until the completion of the landing
61
quels avions ont besoin d'un GPWS (ground proximity warning system) ? (2)
- turbojet-powered aeroplane that has a MCTOW of more than 15 000kg (33 069lbs)
- a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 10 or more passengers
*except if there is a MEL approving
62
all aircrafts are required to have at least _ ELT
when flying over water, some aircrafts are required to have _ ELT
1
2
63
704-705 : if the ELT is removed, the operator has to replace it within
10 days
64
when is required the third attitude indicator?
- turbo-jet powered aeroplane (dans le 700)
- MCTOW de 5700 kg (12 566lbs) et +
65
when is required the TAWS (terrain avoidance warning system) ?
- turbine-powered aeroplane
- 6 seats or more (excluding pilot seats)
66
l'exploitant peut exploiter l'avion sans qu'il soit équipé d'un TWAS opérationnel si (2)
- the aeroplane is operated in day VFR only
ou
- l'opération a lieu dans les trois jours suivant le jour où la panne du TWAS s'est produite
67
true or false : no person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the journey log is on board the aircraft
true, unless when it's not planned to land and shut down the aircraft at any location other than the point of departure
68
true or false : the proof of liability insurance must be carried on board the aircraft at all times?
true
69
no aircraft owner shall operate an aircraft unless he has subscribed to a liability insurance for _
every passenger carried on board other than parachutists
70
definitions : rest period
continuous period during which a flight crew member is off duty, EXCLUDING the travel time to or from a suitable accommodation provided by a private operator or air operator
désigne la période continue pendant laquelle un membre de l'équipage de conduite n'est pas en service, EXCLUANT le temps de trajet vers ou depuis un hébergement approprié fourni par un exploitant privé ou un exploitant aérien
71
definitions : suitable accommodation
single-occupancy bedroom that is subject to a minimal level of noise, il well ventilated and has facilities to control the levels of temperature and light
72
definitions : minimum rest period
period during which a flight crew member is free from all duties, is not interrupted by the air operator, and is provided with an opportunity to obtain not less than eight consecutive hours of sleep in suitable accommodation, time to travel to and from that accommodation and time for personal hygiene and meals
73
definitions : flight duty period
means the period that begins when the earliest of the following events occurs and ends at engines off or rotors stopped at the end of a flight :
- the flight crew member carries out any duties assigned by the operator before reporting for a flight
- the member reports for a flight (first flight of the day)
- the member reports for positioning
- the member reports as a flight crew member on standby
74
definitions : flight crew member on call
flight crew member who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less
75
definitions : flight crew member on standby
flight crew member who has been designated by an air operator to remain at a specific location in order to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less
76
604 - FLIGHT TIME limitations :
1200h - 12 consecutive months
300h - 90 consecutive days
120h - 30 consecutive days
8h -24 consecutive hours if single-pilot IFR flight
77
604 - FLIGHT DUTY limitations : (24 consecutive hours)
14 consecutive hours on a period of 24 consecutive hours
15 consecutive hours on a period of 24 consecutive hours if
- the flight crew member's total flight duty period in the previous 30 consecutive days does not exceed 70 hours
or
- the rest period before the flight is at least 24 hours
78
is it permitted to fuel with engines running?
- if no passengers are on board, embarking or disembarking, it is allowed
- if the aircraft is equipped with a propeller brake and the engine is certified to be used as an APU, you are allowed to have passengers on board while refuelling with the engine running
79
604 - SPLIT FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD
flight duty period may be extended by _ of the length of the rest period, to a maximum of _, if : (3)
1/2
- before the flight crew member reports for the first flight/reports on standby, the operator provides the flight crew member with notice of the extension of the duty period
and
- the operator provides the flight crew member with a rest of at least 4 consecutive hours in suitable accommodation
and
- the flight crew member's next minimum rest period is increased by an amount of time at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty period
80
604 - EXTENSION OF FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD
the flight duty period can be extended to : (2)
- 17h with a maximum flight deck duty time of 12 hours, if a flight relief facility - seat is provided
- 20h with a maximum flight deck duty time of 14 hours, if a flight relief facility - bunk is provided
81
604 - UNFORESEEN OPERATIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES
flight duty period may be extended by up to _ hours if : (4)
3
- the PIC, after consulting flight crew members, considers it safe to do so
- the flight duty period is extended as a result of an unforeseen operational circumstance that occurs after the beginning of the flight duty period
- the next minimum rest period to extended by an amount of time that is at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty period
- the PIC notifies the operator and the length extension
82
604 - UNFORESEEN OPERATIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES
when a flight duty period is extended as a result of an unforeseen operational circumstance, the operator shall retain a copy of the notification for _
5 years
(24 months dans le 704-705)
83
604 - operational flight data sheet
the operator shall retain a copy of the operational flight data sheet for at least _ after the day on which the flight is completed
180 days
84
604 - DELAYED REPORTING TIME
when a private operator delays a flight crew member's reporting time by MORE than _ hours, the flight crew member's flight duty period is considered to start _ hours after the original reporting time if the operator notifies the flight crew member of the delay : (2)
3
3
- within 12 hours before the originl reporting time
and
- at least one hour before the flight crew member leaves a rest facility
85
604 - TIME WITH NO ASSIGNED DUTIES
no private operator shall assign duties to a flight crew member, and no crew member shall accept those duties, unless the private operator provides the flight crew member with one of the following periods with no assigned duties : (2)
- at least 36 consecutive hours in a period of 7 consecutive days
- at least 3 consecutive days in a period of 17 consecutive days
604 : un ou l'autre
704-605 : les deux
86
604 - REST PERIOD - FLIGHT CREW MEMBER POSITIONING
if a flight crew member is required by a private operator to travel for the purpose of positionning after the completion of flight duty period, thre private operator shall provide the flight crew member with an additional rest period that it at least equal to _ that is in excess of the flight duty period refered to in pargraph 99 (14/15h in consecutive 24h)
one half of the time spent for that purpose
87
604-704-705 - CONTROLLED REST ON FLIGHT DECK
- the controlled rest shall be taken during the _ portion of the flight and must be completed at least _ before top of descent
- the period of controlled rest is not more than _
- the resting flight crew member must be awake for at least _ before the resumption of duties
- cruise, 30 minutes
- 45 minutes
- 15 minutes
88
604 - PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS - VALIDITY PERIOD
- training emergency procedures and high altitude indoctrination training : valid for _
- all other trainings : valid for _
- PCC/PPC : valid for _
- 3 years (36 months)
- 1 year (12 months)
- 2 years (24 months)
