Textbook Q's Flashcards by Catriona Saunders

The type of human errors which feature most commonly in aircraft accidents are:
A. Errors in manipulating the flying controls (handling errors)
B. Errors in judgement caused by poor decision making
C. Errors caused through lack of theoretical knowledge
D. Errors caused through lack of experience on type

Errors in judgement caused by poor decision making

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The most common cause of pilot incapacitation during flight is:
A. Heart attack
B. Dehydration
C. Blocked sinus passages
D. Food or drink poisoning

Food or drink poisoning

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Dehydration is more likely to be experienced after several hours at:
A. High altitude on a dry day
B. Low altitude on a humid day
C. High altitude on a humid day
D. Low altitude on any day

High altitude on a dry day

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The symptoms of dehydration include:
A. Profuse sweatinbg
B. Drying of the nasal passaged and a prickly sensation in the eyes
C. Runny eyes and nose
D. Stomach cramps and a high temperature

Drying of the nasal passaged and a prickly sensation in the eyes

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CASA has a recommended period on the ground after making a blood donation of at least:
A. 6 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 48 hours

24 hours

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CAR 256 requires total abstinence by all pilots from any alcohol for a period of:
A. 8 hours before departure
B. 24 hours before departure
C. 8 hours before commencing duty
D. 12 hours before departure

8 hours before departure

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Which of the following is true of drugs taken by pilots for medical reasons before flight:
A. Any over the counter drugs can be considered safe
B. Drugs can be considered safe if they prescribed by a doctor
C. Drugs can be considered safe unless there is a warning on the packet
D. The opinion of a DAME should be sought before using any drug

The opinion of a DAME should be sought before using any drug

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Discomfort or pain in the ears or sinuses is most likely during:
A. Long periods of cruise at high altitude
B. High rates of descent in an unpressurised aircraft
C. High rates of climb in an unpressurised aircraft
D. Long slow descents in an unpressurised aircraft

High rates of descent in an unpressurised aircraft

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If an otherwise healthy pilot suffers a bout of dizzy spells, the appropriate action required by CASR 67.205 is:
A. Notify a DAME and refrain from all flying until cleared
B. Notify a DAME and refrain from all commercial flying until cleared
C. Notify a DAME and refrain from all instrument flying until cleared
D. Resume flying providing there is no recurrence within 24 hours

Notify a DAME and refrain from all flying until cleared

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Pilots can best assist airsick passengers by:
A. Warning them they will have to clean up their mess if they vomit
B. Descending quickly to land before they get sick
C. Reassuring them that airsickness is nothing to worry about
D. Flying as smoothly as possible and making all manoeuvres and descents gentle

Flying as smoothly as possible and making all manoeuvres and descents gentle

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Which is a condition caused by excessive uric acid in the blood and can be aggravated by poor diet:
A. Gout
B. Angina
C. Leprosy
D. Tinea

Gout

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Which of the following is not likely to result from a severe cold:
A. Dizziness caused by pressure build up in the middle ear (pressure vertigo)
B. Discomfort or pain in the ears during a rapid descent
C. Blurring of vision
D. Rupturing of the eardrum

Blurring of vision

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It is generally accepted that human error can be totally eliminated from aviation with proper training and SOP’s?
A. True
B. False

False

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Too much salt in the diet can lead to:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Increased chance of catching colds
C. High blood pressure
D. Low blood pressure

High blood pressure

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Foods most likely to produce intestinal gases are:
A. Salty foods
B. Green vegetables
C. Foods high in sugar
D. Chicken

Green vegetables

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Obesity has been linked to the following health conditions:
A. Drowsiness, headaches, low blood pressure and gout
B. Cancer, drowsiness, headaches and heart disease
C. High blood pressure, gout, diabetes and heart disease
D. Diabetes, headaches, cancer and high blood pressure

High blood pressure, gout, diabetes and heart disease

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Too little iron in the diet can lead to:
A. Anaemia
B. Low blood pressure
C. Skin rashes
D. Dizzy spells

Anaemia

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High blood pressure is a common cause of disqualification on medical grounds. Hypertension is most directly linked to:
A. Heart disease
B. Anaemia
C. Anorexia
D. Old age

Heart disease

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On a hot day, it is possible for the body to lose about 5 litres of water?
A. True
B. False

True

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One common characteristic of ageing is a deterioration of hearing. This usually is noticed first in the:
A. Low frequencies
B. Medium frequencies
C. High frequencies
D. Across all frequencies

High frequencies

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The purpose of the Eustachian tube in the respiratory system is to connect:
A. Middle ear to outer ear
B. Inner ear to middle ear
C. Outer ear to inner ear
D. Middle ear to throat
E. Inner ear to throat

Middle ear to throat

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The primary cause of pilot incapacitation in flight is:
A. Disorientation due to inner ear infections
B. Gastrointestinal disorders
C. Heart attack
D. Stroke

Gastrointestinal disorders

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A person flying with a head cold would not usually be affected by:
A. Hypermetropia
B. Pressure vertigo
C. Difficulty clearing ears on descent
D. Rupturing of the tympanic membrane

Hypermetropia

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The recommended time between blood donations and commencement of flying duties is:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 96 hours

24 hours

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If a pilot is suffering from heat stress, they should: A. Drink sufficient fluid to quench their thirst B. Drink more fluid dictated by thirst alone C. Drink ample quantities of carbonated fluids D. Drink ample water (rather than other fluids)

Drink more fluid dictated by thirst alone

Pilots who are inclined to suffer from air sickness: A. Should never take travel sickness tablets B. Should always deliberately induce vomiting C. Should use caution when using travel sickness preparations D. Can safely take any travel sickness preparation

Should use caution when using travel sickness preparations

The Valsalve Manoeuvre: A. Could never be the cause of pressure vertigo B. Is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb C. Is more likely to be needed during a climb than descent D. Is not likely to be needed in a climb or descent

Is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb

An excessively cold environment does not pose the danger of; A. Impairment of thinking B. Apathy C. Loss of consciousness D. A feeling of elation

A feeling of elation

An obese pilot with hypertension would be unlikely to suffer from: A. Increased risk of heart disease B. Difficulty in breathing due to lung cancer C. Pain in the joints due to excess wear and tear D. Poor circulation

Difficulty in breathing due to lung cancer

The condition of Barotrauma is likely to occur: A. With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent B. With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb C. With a decreased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent D. With a decreased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb

With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent

The ideal relative humidity for passenger comfort in jet transport aircraft is considered to be: A. 10-20% B. 20-30% C. 40-60% D. 60-70%

40-60%

During a descent with blocked Eustachian Tubes, the gas volume in the middle ear: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains constant

Decreases

Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with: A. A blocked Eustachian tube during a climb B. A head cold during descent C. A blocked Eustachian tube during descent D. A head cold during a climb

A head cold during descent

If you pinch yourself just above the hip, a good level of fitness is indicated if the fold of flesh in your grasp has a thickness of: A. 12mm B. 6mm C. 20mm D. 25mm

12mm

The lowest operating environment temperature at which the symptoms of heat stress are likely is: A. 15C B. 25C C. 32C D. 40C

32C

The best way to guard against dehydration is to: A. Drink water only when you are thirsty b. Drink a large amount of water at the beginning of each day C. Drink water regularly throughout the day D. Drink only when you are out of the sun

Drink water regularly throughout the day

The period of validity of a medical certificate unless otherwise cancelled or suspended is: A. 4 years for student and private pilot licences (under 40) and 1 year for commercial pilot B. 2 years for student and 1 year for private and commercial C. 1 year for student and 2 years for private and commercial D. 2 years for all classes of licence

4 years for student and private pilot licences (under 40) and 1 year for commercial pilot

The most important process by which alcohol is removed from the body after consumption of alcoholic drinks is: A. Expiration (breathing) B. Perspiration (sweating) C. Via kidneys as urine D. Through chemical breakdown in the liver

Through chemical breakdown in the liver

For the average male, the rate at which alcohol can be metabolised is equivalent to one: A. Drink every 15 minutes B. Drink every 30 minutes C. Drink every hour D. Drink every 2 hours

Drink every hour

Hyperventilation is likely to result in: A. A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels B. Severe headaches and vomiting C. Sinus pain and discomfort in middle ear D. Lightheadedness associated with an increase in carbon dioxide levels

A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels

Abdominal pain caused by an expansion in gases within the body is most likely to be associated with: A. Rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft B. Rapid descent in high performance unpressurised aircraft C. Rapid climb in high performance pressurised aircraft D. Rapid descent in high performance pressurised aircraft

Rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft

At an altitude of 18,000ft, the atmospheric pressure is approximately: A. One third of its sea level B. One half of its sea level C. Two thirds of its sea level D. One tenth of its sea level

One half of its sea level

At a depth of 30ft, the underwater pressure is closest to: A. 1.5x normal sea level pressure B. 2x normal sea level pressure C. 3x normal sea level pressure D. Half normal sea level pressure

2x normal sea level pressure

Antihistamines are commonly found in cold and flu medications. Their side affects include: A. Severe headaches B. Sleeplessness C. Blurred vision D. Drowsiness

Drowsiness

Decompression sickness (the bends) is caused by: A. Difficulty experienced in breathing under the high ambient pressure which occurs in deep water B. The excess oxygen which dissolves the blood during a deep dive C. The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water D. Cramps caused by the low ambient temperature which occurs in deep water

The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water

A scuba diver has completed a dive which required decompression stops but was less than 4 hours. The minimum recommended period before flying is: A. 4 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

12 hours

Which would be an appropriate way to combat the effects of hyperventilation: A. Breathe more rapidly B. Make a conscious effort to slow down breathing rate C. Take deep breath and hold it D. Breathe more deeply

Make a conscious effort to slow down breathing rate

Which is most likely to reduce the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood? A. High blood pressure B. Cigarette smoking C. Obesity D. Use of analgesics

Cigarette smoking

After heavy drinking, even though the blood alcohol level has returned to 0, some deterioration in physical and mental performance is likely to persist for up to: A. 4 hours B. 8 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours

24 hours

Hyperventilation is caused by: A. Too much carbon dioxide in the air B. Too much carbon monoxide in the air C. Breathing too fast or too deep for the body's requirement D. Holding the breath too long

Breathing too fast or too deep for the body's requirement

To which drug family does alcohol belong: A. Stimulants B. Depressants C. Sedatives D. Analgesics

Depressants

For how many hours after ingestion can alcohol be detected in the brain? A. 8 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

24 hours *Brain for 24 hours *Blood for 14 hours

Alcohol can still be detected in the blood: A. 14 hours after ingestion B. 14 hours after blood alcohol level has reached 0.05 C. 24 hours after ingestion D. 24 hours after blood alcohol level has reached 0.05

14 hours after ingestion *Brain for 24hrs *Blood for 14hrs

Which would be an appropriate remedy for someone suffering the effects of hyperventilation: A. Hold your breath for 40 seconds B. Breathe into a paper bag C. Increase the rate and depth of breathing D. Use a nasal decongestant

Breathe into a paper bag

If you have to take sleeping tablets, how much time should be allowed before flying: A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. None if they provide a good nights sleep D. 8 hours

24 hours

If a scuba dive required decompression stops during ascent and was more than 4 hours duration, they would need: A. Rest at sea level of 24 hours before flying B. Rest at sea level of 48 hours before flying C. Rest at sea level of 12 hours before flying D. Rest at sea level of 6 hours before flying

Rest at sea level of 48 hours before flying

The minimum time before alcohol consumption and taking off is: A. 8 hours which is about right for all levels of intoxication B. 12 hours which is sufficient if 0.05 has not been exceeded C. 10 hours which is very conservative D. 8 hours which may not be sufficient in many cases

8 hours which may not be sufficient in many cases

Symptoms of hyperventilation include: A. Tingling or numbness in the hands and feet B. Pain in the middle ear C. Blue colouration in lips and fingernails D. Sinus pain

Tingling or numbness in the hands and feet

Pilot completed a scuba dive of 5 hours to 40ft depth where compression stops were required on the way up. The recommended rest at sea level before a flight at cabin altitude of 6000ft is: A. 4 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

48 hours

While flying, a pilot suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection is liable to: A. Be more susceptible to hypoxia B. Become spatially disoriented C. Suffer from pressure vertigo D. Suffer from cyanosis

Suffer from pressure vertigo *Pressure vertigo is dizziness caused by pressure affecting the ears balance mechanism

If you become aware of any changes in your medical condition that indicates you no longer meet the relevant medical standard: A. You must exercise extreme caution to ensure you do not become incapacitated B. You many continue to fly, as soon as practicable advise CASA of the change C. Cannot fly until you have undertaken a full medical examination D. You may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a DAME

You may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a DAME

The maximum period which the flight crew licence holder can suffer an impairment of efficiency relating to an act authorised by the licence without DAME certification that the impairment no longer exists is: A. 30 days for private or commercial pilots B. 7 days private pilots C. 30 days for commercial pilots D. 7 days for commercial pilots

7 days for commercial pilots

After a 3 hour session of diving, with decompression stops, the minimum recommended time before you fly again is: A. 4 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

12 hours

During a climb, expanding gases are most likely to cause severe pain and discomfort when trapped in the: A. Stomach B. Large bowel C. Small bowel D. Lungs

Small bowel

Select the statement which is most true for the use of analgesics: A. They may not be used by pilots under any circumstances B. They may only be used after getting clearance from a DAME C. They may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief D. They may be used by pilots without restrictions

They may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief

The upper limit of alcohol intake on standard drinks over a period of one week is: A. 20 for men and 14 for women B. 28 for men and 21 for women C. 32 for me and 28 for women D. 40 for men and 20 for women

28 for men and 21 for women

One of the functions of the outer ear is to: A. Prevent the pilots cap from slipping down their eyes B. Mediate sense of balance C. Protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects and dust etc D. Equalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum

Protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects and dust etc

It is always advisable to check with a DAME before taking: A. Any over the counter medication B. Any prescribed medication C. Any over the counter or prescribed medication D. Any blood pressure medication

Any over the counter or prescribed medication

Which of the following is a function of the middle ear: A. To protect the eardrum from foreign bodies B. To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea C. To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses D. To assist in maintaining the sense of balance

To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea *Middle ear is eardrum, hammer, anvil and stirrup - connects to the throat via Eustachian tube *The cochlea processes vibrations, converting them to electrical signals which go to the brain

What's the function of the inner ear: A. To protect the eardrum from foreign bodies B. To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea C. To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses D. To assist in maintaining the sense of balance

To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses *Inner ear is cochlea and semi-circular canals

Which of the following serves to detect the loudness and pitch of sound by converting the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses: A. The cochlea B. The semicircular canals C. The hammer, anvil and stirrup D. The vestibular system

The cochlea

Which mediates the sense of balance: A. The cochlea B. The semicircular canals C. The hammer, anvil and stirrup D. The Eustachian tube

The semicircular canals

As a rough guide, hearing protection should be worn if the ambient noise levels are such that it is necessary to conduct a conversation over a distance of: A. 10m B. 5m C. 3m D. 0.5m

0.5m

Deterioration of hearing caused by exposure to loud noise usually occurs first: A. In the high frequency range above normal speech B. In the frequency range of normal speech, 300-5000Hz C. In the frequency range below normal speech D. Across the whole range of audible frequencies

In the high frequency range above normal speech

A decibel dB is a unit used to measure: A. Frequency or pitch of sound B. Intensity or loudness of sound

Intensity or loudness of sound

A Hz Hertz is used to measure: A. Frequency or pitch of sound B. Intensity or loudness of sound

Frequency or pitch of sound

Continuous exposure to high noise levels in the cockpit should be avoided: A. The effect is cumulative and can eventually lead to deafness B. Stress levels can are increased and concentration levels are decreased C. General performance and efficiency is reduced D. All of the above

All of the above

What is the minimum intensity of a noise that would result in sensation of pain to the ears? A. 85 dB B. 110 dB C. 140 dB D. 160 dB

140 would cause pain

What is the minimum noise level that would mar the onset of temporary or permanent deafness after prolonged exposure? A. 85 dB B. 110 dB C. 140 dB D. 160 dB

85 dB prolonged for hearing loss

What is the function of the Eustachian tube? A. Connects the middle ear to the outer ear B. Connects middle ear to the inner ear C. Connects middle ear to the throat D. Connects inner ear to the throat

Connects middle ear to the throat

Hearing loss to long term exposure to high noise levels is usually first noticed in the loss of sensitivity to: A. High frequency sounds B. Low frequency sounds C. Medium frequency sounds D. All frequencies of sounds

High frequencies disappear first

Above which dB is hearing protection recommended to be worn: A. 85dB B. 110dB C. 140dB D. 160dB

85dB

Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when the Eustachian tube is blocked? A. Outer ear B. Middle ear C. Inner ear D. Ear lobe

Middle ear

If a head cold causes a blockage in the Eustachian tube, where is the blockage most likely to occur: A. At the top where the tube enters the middle ear B. At the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage C. In the centre where the tube is narrowest D. In any location where the tube bends

At the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage

Which component of the inner ear senses changes in speed with constant direction (linear acceleration): A. Semi circular canals B. Otolith organ C. Eardrum D. Cochlea

Otolith *Linear = otolith *Angular = semicircular canals

When established in a balanced level turn at constant bank angle, the hair lie cells of the semicircular canals will be: A. Deflected in the position of the turn B. Deflected in the opposite direction of the turn C. In the rest position with no deflection D. Waving back and forth

In the rest position with no deflection

The term frequency when applied to sound is most closely related to: A. The number of pressure waves arriving at the ear in each second B. The strength of the pressure waves C. The loundness of the sound D. The tone of the sound

The number of pressure waves arriving at the ear each second

Minimum noise levels which would cause a person temporary or permanent hearing loss with exposure to sustained levels is: A. 85 B. 110 C. 140 D. 160

85 dB

The organ which provides a person with a sense of balance is: A. Accelerometome B. eustachian Tube C. Cochlea D. Semicircular canals

Semi-circular canals

During constant angular acceleration, the hair like sensors (cupula) in the semicircular canals are: A. Upright zero deflection B. Tilted in the direction of the turn C. Tilted in the opposite direction of the turn D. Oscillating

Upright, zero deflection

Hyperventilation is caused by: A. Too much carbon monoxide in the air B. Too much carbon dioxide in the air C. Breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity D. Breathing pure O2 when not necessary

Breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity

The part of the ear which converts sounds to nerve impulses is the: A. Semicircular canals B. Eustachian tube C. Eardrum D. Cochlea

Cochlea Cochlea is part of the inner ear, it processes vibrations, converts them to electrical signals which proceed to the brain to be interpreted as sound

The part of the ear which acts as a linear accelerometer is the: A. Stirrup B. Anvil C. Cochlea D. Otolith

Otolith *Otolith = linear *Semicircular canals = angular

Temporary or permanent hearing loss can be caused by sustained noise exposure at levels: A. Above 120 dB B. of 60 dB or greater C. typically found in the cockpit of light aircraft D. Above 140 dB

Typically found in the cockpit of light aircraft - above 85 dB

Exposure to sustained high noise levels: A. Is distracting only B. Is distracting and fatiguing but only likely to cause temporary hearing loss C. May cause permanent hearing loss D. Is irritating and distracting but unlikely to be fatiguing

May cause temporary or permanent hearing loss

A guide to when hearing protection should be worn is: A. If you have to yell from 5m away B. If you can't hear a whisper from 0.5m away C. If you can't hear a normal conversation from 2m away D. If you need to yell to be heard 0.5m away

If you need to yell to be heard 0.5m away

Hearing loss due to long term exposure to high noise intensity levels usually initially affects: A. Detection of high frequency sounds B. Detection of low frequency sounds C. All frequencies equally D. Middle frequency sounds

Detection of high frequency sounds

It is strongly advised that hearing protection such as good quality headset should be worn: A. During takeoff B. During landing C. During preflight inspections and throughout the flight D. At all times during flight

At all times during flight

The function of the hammer, anvil and stirrup is to transfer vibrations from: A. Middle ear to inner ear B. Outer ear to middle ear C. Middle ear to ear drum D. Ear drum to inner ear

Ear drum to the inner ear *Eardrum, hammer, anvil and stirrup is the middle ear Eardrum - to the hammer - to the anvil - to the stirrup Strirrup connects to the cochlea

The ciliary muscles in the eye: A. Alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances B. Move the eye from left to right in the socket C. Move the eyelids to produce blinking D. Change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye

Alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances

When light passes through the lens, it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the: A. Retina B. Optic nerve C. Cornea D. Iris

Retina

The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as: A. Rods which are sensitive to colour and cones which work best in dim light B. Cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light C. Rods and cones which respond equally to all lighting conditions D. Rods and cones which are both responsible for colour vision

Cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light *Cones = colour Rods = light

The blind spot is: A. The area of the lens which is screened by the iris B. The black spot in the centre of the coloured section of the eye C. At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina D. An area on the cornea which does not respond to light

At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina

If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be: A. 3 mins B. 5 mins C. 15 mins D. 30 mins

30 mins

Prolonged exposuree to bright glare such as beach or snow can cause a significant reduction in night vision for up to: A. 12hrs B. 1 day C. 1 week D. 1 month

1 week

Empty field myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. This causes the eye to take up a focal length of: A. 1-2m B. 6m C. Infinity D. 25m

1-2m

The maximum distance at which a healthy eye in good lighting and contrast could identify a circle 1m in diameter is approx: A. 1km B. 5km C. 2nm D. 500m

2nm

The perception of colour is a function of the: A. Cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting B. Rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting C. Cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions D. Rods on the retina and is diminished inn bright lighting conditions

Cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting

In level flight, a collision risk exists if a converging aircraft viewed from your cockpit appears to be: A. On the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen B. Below the horizon and moving closer to the centre of your windscreen C. On the horizon and moving away from the centre of your windscreen D. On the horizon

On the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen

The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to: A. Move the head in a continuous arc from side to side B. Keep the head still and move the eyes continuously from side to side C. Do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement D. Move the head 10-15 degrees at a time, pausing after each movement to allow peripheral vision to detect any movement

Move the head 10-15 degrees at a time, pausing after each movement to allow peripheral vision to detect any movement

Night vision is enhanced by: A. Looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. Fixing your gaze directly on the object you wish to view C. Ensuring the cockpit remains brightly lit D. Drinking lots of carrot juice

Looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view

After being exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation (night vision) returns after a recovery period of about: A. 30 mins B. 1 hr C. 2 mins D. 10 mins

30 - 40 mins

For a pilot who is exposed to high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), what would help to enhance night vision: A. Do not read small print within one hour of flying B. Wear good quality sunglasses throughout the day C. Avoid using contact lenses D. Keep the cockpit lighting as bright as possible until just before takeoff

Wear good quality sunglasses throughout the day

Night vision is extremely sensitive to any reduction of oxygen supply to the retina. The lowest level at which night vision starts to be affected by is: A. 2000ft B. 4000ft C. 10,000ft D. 15,000ft

4000ft

True or false: The most effective method for scanning the sky for other aircraft is to move the head to scan small sectors allowing the eyes to stop regularly through the scan whilst focusing on the horizon

True

What is the limit of resolution for a person with good vision at a distance of 2nm? A. A circle with a diameter of 0.5m B. A circle with a diameter of 1m C. A circle with a diameter of 2m D. A circle with a diameter of 3m

1m diameter circle

Which of the following is a natural consequence of ageing: A. Astigmatism B. Myopia C. Hyperopia D. Presbyopia

Presbyopia = old *Astigmatism = distortion Myopia = short Hyperopia = long

Which of the following would have the most detrimental effect on the pilots forward vision with a dirty and scratched windscreen: A. Flying beneath a thick overcast of cloud B. Flying above a thick overcast of cloud C. Flying away from the setting sun D. Landing into a low sun

Landing into a low sun

Heavy rain may have the effect of making objects viewed through the windscreen: A. Further away than they are B. Closer than they are C. Larger than they are D. Brighter than they are

Further away than they are

To avoid the possibility of the eyes taking up a resting position when in flying conditions without visual texture, it's recommended to: A. Stare at the horizon B. Periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip C. Blink regularly D. Fixate at infinity

Periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip

To avoid an aircraft moving into the visual blind spot in a pilots field of view, it's recommended to: A. Move the head as well as the eyes B. Move the eyes only C. Close one eye when scanning D. Not rely on see and avoid for separation

Move the head as well as the eyes

While night flying the pilot of a passenger aircraft is exposed to the momentary flash of a match in the cabin. Full dark readaptation will take: A. <5mins B. about 30mins C. 10-15mins D. >1hr

About 30-40 mins

Flicker vertigo is a condition which may occur during flight in a helicopter due to the strobe effect of light through the rotor disc. It may lead to: A. A feeling of excessive speed B. Disorientation C. An over alert state of mind D. A state of total relaxation

Disorientation

Night vision may be assisted by: A. Avoiding dark rooms during the day B. Avoiding the use of sunglasses during the day C. Avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses D. Avoiding the use of a hat when out in bright sunshine

Avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses

Night vision is enhanced by looking slightly off centre. This is due to: A. The concentration of rods in the foveal periphery B. The concentration of cones in the foveal periphery C. The concentration of cones in the retinal periphery D. The concentration of rods in the retinal periphery

The concentration of rods in the retinal periphery

When scanning the horizon for traffic, the pilot should: A. Move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements B. Move the head smoothly and continuously with many long pauses between eye movements C. Move the head smoothly with pauses and many long pauses between eye movements

Move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements

When visually scanning, the saccade/rest cycle duration is: A. 1 second B. 0.3 second C. 0.1 second D. 0.7 second

0.3 second

The anatomical part of the eye which focuses the visual image onto the retina is: A. Fovea B. Iris C. Lens D. Maculus lutea

Lens *Fovea = on the retina used for fine detail Iris = coloured part of the eye which changes shape to respond to intensity of the light Lens = works with cornea to put images on the retina

The eye adapts to changes in ambient lighting intensity by adjusting: A. The iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina B. The shape of the lens with the ciliary muscles C. The cornea and the shape of the lens D. The position of the rods and cones

The iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina

Light is focused onto the retina by the action of: A. The lens only B. The cornea and the lens C. The cornea only D. The cornea and the iris

The cornea and the lens *Lens = works with cornea to put images on the retina

The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by: A. Processing information from the eyes (visual cues) B. Processing information from the inner ear (vestibular cues) C. Processing information from the skeletal muscles and joints (postural cues) D. Combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues

Combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues

In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from: A. Eyes B. Inner ear C. Middle ear D. Proprioceptive system

Eyes

Which of the following is most likely to cause disorientation: A. A change in the information coming from the inner ear B. A conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues C. Poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received D. A rapid transition from level flight to steep climb

A conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues

In the absence of reliable visual information, which of the following states of motion would be most difficult to differentiate: A. A steep turn and rapid deceleration in level flight B. Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a dive C. Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb D. Rapid deceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb

Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb

The most effective way to deal with disorientation in flight is to: A. Keep a constant look out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B. Rely absolutely on the aircrafts instruments C. Keep the control column central and maintain constant power D. Disregard the instrument indications and fly by feel until it passes

Rely absolutely on the aircrafts instruments

The leans is a state of disorientation which occurs when: A. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is below that threshold B. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is below that threshold C. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold D. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold

The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold

The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It's most likely to occur when: A. The head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. The head is bowed forwardly rapidly during instrument flight C. A rapid deceleration occurs during level flight D. An aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight

The head is bowed forwardly rapidly during instrument flight *Coriolis illusion is when a sudden change in fluid flow within the canals sends confusing signals to the brain

The somatogravic illusion (falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered: A. During a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. Just after the transition from instrument to visual flight C. During an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night D. During and just after takeoff in a high performance aeroplane on a dark night

During and just after takeoff in a high performance aeroplane on a dark night *Somatogravic illusion = acceleration can be mistaken for a steep climb and the pilot may respond by lowering the nose, same in descent

When an aircraft is performing a shallow turn during instrument flight, a common illusion is: A. A sensation of being banked int he opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to level B. A sensation of remaining banked in the turn when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude C. A sensation of climbing when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude D. A sensation of diving when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude

A sensation of being banked int he opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to level attitude

True or false: If a pilot who experiences the somatogravic illusion reacts to the false sensation, there would be a danger of the aircraft being flown into the ground after takeoff

True *Somatogravic illusion = acceleration can be mistaken for a steep climb and the pilot may respond by lowering the nose - leading to flying into the ground Deceleration can be mistaken for a steep descent and the pilot may respond by raising the nose - leading to stalling

Which is true regarding perspective? A. If 2 aircraft are in the field of view, the one which appears larger is always closest to the observer B. If 2 aircraft are in the field of view, the one which appears closer tot he horizon is always further away C. Any point which is on the horizon must be at the same height as the observer D. If 2 aircraft in the field of view are at the same height, they will also appear to be the same distance above or below the horizon

Any point which is on the horizon must be at the same height as the observer

An illusion which may be experienced on a dark night approach to a wide runway which is remote from street or town lighting is: A. The aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is in the flare B. The aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is in the flare C. The aircraft appears to be travelling slower than it is during landing D. The aircraft appears to be higher than it is during the approach

The aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is in the flare

An illusion which may be experienced on a dark night approach to a narrow runway which is remote from street or town lighting is: A. The aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is in the flare B. The aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is in the flare C. The aircraft appears to be travelling slower than it is during landing D. The aircraft appears to be higher than it is during the approach

The aircraft appears to be higher than it is in the flare

You are making an approach by day into a runway where the terrain slopes up from the threshold of intended landing. The most likely misjudgement during this approach would be: A. An overestimate of your height above the runway threshold B. An underestimate of your height above the runway threshold C. An underestimate of your speed on the approach D. An overestimate on the length of the runway

An underestimate of your height above the runway threshold When terrain slopes up from runway, pilot feels low, tendency to end up high/fast and overshoot

During a constant angular acceleration in the yawing plane, the hairlike cells in the semicircular canals of the inner ear will be: A. Deflected in the same direction of a turn B. Deflected in the opposite direction of the turn C. In an upright position D. Waving to and fro

In an upright position

Which organ mediates the sense of balance: A. Eustachian tube B. Eardrum C. Semicircular canals D. Cochlea

Semicircular canals *Semicircular canals = angular motion Otolith = linear motion Cochlea = processes vibrations converting them to electrical signals which get sent to the brain as sound Eustachian tube = connects throat to middle ear

The effects of vertigo can be reducer or eliminated by: A. Rapidly scanning between instruments and features on the ground B. Looking for the horizon when visibility is poor C. Concentrating on the artificial horizon only D. Scanning all the instruments and ignoring any sensations that are not confirmed by instrument indications

Scanning all the instruments and ignoring any sensations that are not confirmed by instrument indications

True or false: The susceptibility to disorientation is increased if the pilot is suffering from anxiety, stress or mental fatigue

True

The proprioceptive system generates sensation from: A. Semicircular canals B. Otolith C. Skeletal muscles, joints and tendons D. Skin

Skeletal muscles, joints and tendons

Autokinetic illusion is responsible for: A. An isolated distant light appearing to move when stared at for a period of time B. Brightly lit towns appearing closer than they actually are on a dark night C. A pilot rounding out too high when landing on a wide runway on a dark night D. A pilot confusing acceleration on take off for a steep climb

An isolated distant light appearing to move when stared at for a period of time *Autokinetic = An isolated distant light appearing to move when stared at for a period of time Somatogravic = A pilot confusing acceleration on take off for a steep climb

When viewed from the cockpit, the bright lights of a small town which is approx 5nm away will appear: A. Closer than it is on a dark night B. Further away than it is on a dark night C. Closer than it is in daylight D. Further away than it is in daylight

Closer than it is on a dark night

Somatogravic illusion causes the pilot to think: A. Deceleration in descent is level flight B. Deceleration in level flight is a climb C. Acceleration in a climb is level flight D. Acceleration in level flight is a climb

Acceleration in level flight is a climb *Deceleration in level flight is a descent

The effects of vertigo may be reduced or eliminated by: A. Rapidly scanning between instruments and external visual features B. Looking only outside in conditions of poor visibility C. Scanning all instruments only D. Fixating on only one instrument

Scanning all instruments

The Black Hole phenomena on take off refers to: A. Somatogravic illusion B. Autokinesis C. The place where odd socks go D. The inability of light to escape beyond the event horizon

Somatogravic illusion *Black hole on takeoff means no visual reference so acceleration can feel like a steep climb

A pilots susceptibility to visual illusions during approaches will be increased by: A. Fatigue B. The amount and nature of their flying experience C. Good night adaptation D. The presence of good glide slope guidance

Fatigue

Disorientation is likely to occur as a result of: A. Flying on instruments only if you accidentally enter a cloud in flight B. Avoiding looking at instruments for reference if you accidentally enter a cloud when in flight C. Avoiding fast head movements when no external horizon is visible D. Only looking outside the cockpit on a sunny day with no cloud

Avoiding looking at instruments for reference if you accidentally enter a cloud when in flight

A pilot experiencing spatial disorientation in IMC should: A. Avoid all head and eye movements B. Scan all instruments C. Fixate on one instrument D. Concentrate on outside visual cues

Scan all instruments

When on approach to a wide runway with terrain which slopes down to the landing threshold, the pilot may think they are: A. Low on approach resulting in the tendency to overshoot B. High on approach resulting in the tendency to overshoot C. Low on the approach resulting in the tendency to undershoot D. High on approach resulting in the tendency to undershoot

Low on approach with the tendency to overshoot *Because you feel like you're closer to the ground with terrain sloping down to the threshold (up from threshold), you tend to be high so will overshoot

On approach to land on a runway at night with an overwater approach, a pilot is likely to perceive the runway is: A. Further away than it really is, the approach is too low resulting in an overshoot B. Further away than it really is, the approach is too high resulting in an undershoot C. Closer than it really is, the approach is too low resulting in an overshoot D. Closer than it really is, the approach is too high resulting in an undershoot

Closer than it really is and perceive the approach is too high resulting in an undershoot *With no references, you think it's closer, you have more distance to go than you actually think You think you're too high so you correct with a quicker descent which causes you to undershoot

The most important cue used by a pilot in judging height is: A. Aircraft altitude B. Runway length C. Texture flow on the ground D. Ground illumination intensity from landing lights

Texture flow on the ground

A disoriented pilot should: A. Vigorously seek external visual cues B. Avoid head movements C. Combine flight instrument indications with external visual cues D. Roll the aircraft in a rate one level turn and maintain the turn until reoriented

Avoid head movements

A pilot is most likely to fly an approach which is too low when: A. The runway is wider than usual B. The runway lights are brighter than usual C. The runway slopes down from the aiming point D. The runway is shorter than usual

The runway lights are brighter than usual Pilot thinks they're low (and tend to overshoot) when: Runway slops up to/down from the threshold Terrain slopes down to/up from the threshold Runway is wide Runway is short Vis is poor Runway lights are dimmer than usual

Disorientation is a condition which exists when: A. There is not enough visual information available to the brain B. There is insufficient information from visual, vestibular and proprioceptive cues C. The body is subjective to rapid deceleration D. There is a conflict between visual, vestibular and proprioceptive cues

There is a conflict between visual, vestibular and proprioceptive cues

Information from the eyes, ears, combine with proprioceptive information to give the body a sense of: A. Equilibrium B. Situational awareness C. Navigation position D. Vertigo

Equilibrium

During takeoff on a dark night it is important during the initial climb to: A. Seek as many visual cues as possible from outside the cockpit B. Keep checking the instrument indications with outside information C. Concentrate only on the instruments to maintain aircrafts altitude D. Fly by feel as much as possible

Concentrate only on the instruments to maintain aircrafts altitude

When maintaining the correct approach path to land on a runway which is shorter, you may: A. Think that you are low and tend to overshoot B. Think that you are high and tend to overshoot C. Think that you are low and tend to undershoot D. Think that you are high and tend to undershoot

Think that you are low and tend to overshoot *Low has an O in it, so does Overshoot *You think you're low: -Short runway -Wide runway -Poor vis -Dim lights -Runway slopes down from the threshold -Terrain slopes down to the threshold

Which of the following will always be accompanied by an increase in positive G load: A. Increased IAS in a dive B. Any manoeuvre which requires extra power C. Any manoeuvre which requires the pilot to pull back on the control column D. Any manoeuvre in which the aircrafts nose is above the horizon

Any manoeuvre which requires the pilot to pull back on the control column *Positive G is when the body has to work extra hard like in a big steep climb

Which of the following is an effect of sustained high G load? A. Slowing of the heart beat B. Decreased flow of oxygenated blood to the brain C. Increased flow of oxygenated block to the brain D. An irregular heartbeat

Decreased flow of oxygenated blood to the brain *Positive G's mean the heart beat increases to work harder

Very high transient (short duration) G loads can be tolerated with little effect because: A. The brain can continue to function for a few seconds on the residual oxygen which was present before the onset of the G load B. The heart responds immediately to the onset of high G loads by pumping faster C. High G load forces freshly oxygenated blood to the brain D. The brain can continue to function without oxygen until the increased heart rate compensates

The brain can continue to function for a few seconds on the residual oxygen which was present before the onset of the G load *The heart rate doesn't increase instantaneously, it takes a few seconds

Which would a normal healthy person be most likely to experience G-LOC? A. 8G sustained for 2 secs B. 3G sustained for 5 secs C. 7G sustained for 7 secs D. 2G sustained for 15 secs

7G for 7 secs *Up to 5 secs the brain can use residual oxygen -Grey out around 3.5 -Black out around 5G -G-LOC in excess of 5G

Which of the following would not increase a pilots tolerance to high G loads: A. Adopting a more reclined seating position B. Tensing the stomach muscles just before the onset of and during the G load C. Maintaining a high level of physical fitness D. Adopting a more erect seating position

Adopting a more erect seating position *More reclined means the heart and brain get closer to being at the same level so requires less effort to pump the blood to the brain *Tensing the muscles can help reduce blood pooling

Which of the following is an effect of sustained negative G load: A. A slowing of the heart beat B. A decreased flow of oxygen to the blood C. Pooling of blood in the abdomen and legs D. Adopting a more erect seating position

A slowing of the heart beat *Negative G's mean there's an excess of blood in the arteries Heart slows down Red out can occur where the bottom eyelid goes over the eyeball causing a red out Most common effect is bursting small blood vessels of the face and eyes Safe limit for negative G = -3G *Positive G's is excess blood pooling in vascular spaces in lower abdomen and legs

Which of the following would be most likely to cause G-LOC: A. From high positive to high negative G load B. From high negative to high positive G load C. From low positive to high positive G load D. From low negative to high negative G load

From high negative to high positive G's Grey out will occur sooner when you go from a high negative G to high positive because the heart has to go from slower than normal to faster than normal

Which sustained G load would a healthy person be likely to experience grey out: A. 1.5G B. 2.5G C. 3.5G D. 4.5G

3.5G sustained for grey out *5G sustained for black out *excess of 5G for GLOC

Which sustained G load would a healthy person be likely to experience black out: A. 5G B. 7G C. 3.5G D. 2.5G

5G *3.5 grey out 5G black out Excess of 5G for GLOC

Which of the following would likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit: A. Excessive use of carburettor heat B. Electrical short circuit C. Flying low in thick smoke haze D. Leak in the engine exhaust system

Leak in the engine exhaust system

Which is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning: A. Headache and fatigue B. Feeling of euphoria C. Discomfort in breathing D. Impairment of vision and mental confusion

Feeling of euphoria Carbon monoxide takes the place on the blood that oxygen usually gets Low level no symptoms Marginal impaired performance Slight headache, fatigue and mild discomfort in breathing Vision and mental confusion, severe headache and vomiting Unconsciousness and death

What's a suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning: A. Administer oxygen B. Give plenty of water C. Give a sleeping pill D. Have them rebreathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth

Administer oxygen Because the blood is getting carbon monoxide instead of oxygen so needs to oxygen

When using cabin heat in a light single engine aircraft it should be remembered that: A. There is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heat exchanger B. Frequent use of cabin heat can increase the risk of fire C. The use of cabin heat during takeoff can degrade the aircrafts takeoff performance D. Cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only and never in climbs or descent

There is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heat exchanger

Carbon monoxide is dangerous because: A. It displaces oxygen from the bloods red cells B. It stings the eyes and impairs the vision C. It is highly acidic and attacks the linings of lungs D. It displaces the oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation

It displaces oxygen from the bloods red cells Carbon monoxide sticks to the blood where the oxygen usually goes It doesn't sting the eyes but can impair vision

A design feature which would improve the tolerance of positive G loads is: A. 5 point aerobatic harness B. More reclined seating position C. Upright seating position D. Joystick rather than control column

More reclined seating position More reclined means the heart is more level to the brain so not as far for the heart to pump

When a person is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning, you should: A. Provide oxygen B. Give water C. Lie the patient down and keep them warm D. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag

Provide oxygen *Carbon monoxide displaces where the oxygen usually goes in the red blood cells so needs to be put back *Breathing into a paper bag helps hyperventilation because they're exhaling too much carbon dioxide which reduces the acidity of the blood so needs to be replaced *Keeping a patient warm helps hypothermia

A symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is: A. Feeling of wellbeing with no pain or discomfort B. Tingling of the bodies extremities C. Blue colouring of the fingers and toes D. Warm and sluggish feeling with tendency of headaches

Warm and sluggish feeling with tendency of headaches *The others are symptoms of hypoxia which is a lack of oxygen

Most likely result of exposure to negative G's is: A. GLOC B. Sagging facial features C. Burst blood vessels in the eyes D. Black out

Burst blood vessels in the eyes Negative G's has red out and bursting blood vessels in the eyes and face, it's a excess of blood in the arteries Positive G's is grey out 3.5, black out 5, and GLOC excess of 5G

If you suspect that you're suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning during flight, you should: A. Open all available air vents and use oxygen B. Close all air vents and use cabin heat C. Slow down your breathing rate D. Hold your breath

Open all available air vents and use oxygen *Use O2 because carbon monoxide is attaching to red blood cells where oxygen usually goes

Items of clothing that offer good resistance to flame contain a high percentage of: A. Synthetic fabrics B. Wool C. Cotton D. Plastic

Wool

The accepted level for negative G for a healthy person is considered to be: A. -1G B. -2G C. -3G D. -4G

-3G

The transfer of oxygen to the blood stream during respiration depends most directly on: A. Breathing rate B. Partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs C. Percentage of lung capacity achieved with each breath D. Volume of oxygen inhaled in each breath

Partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs

The component of blood which most directly involved in the transport of oxygen through the body is: A. Plasma B. Haeomoglobin C. White blood cells D. Red blood cells

Haemoglobin Haemoglobin is the main component of the red blood cell, it's an iron rich pigment that combines loosely with oxygen

When suffering from hypoxia at high level in an unpressurised aircraft, the pilot or passengers feel no unpleasant suffocating sensation because: A. In the absence of physical exertion, there is no change in the carbon dioxide level in the blood so the brain does not respond B. There is a subconscious increase in breathing rate to compensate for the dropping ambient atmospheric pressure C. The heart rate increases to increase the blood flow to the brain to compensate for the dropping ambient atmospheric pressure D. The drop in partial pressure of oxygen is accompanied by a similar drop in the partial pressure or carbon dioxide

In the absence of physical exertion, there is no change in the carbon dioxide level in the blood so the brain does not respond

If a pilot suspects they're suffering from hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be: A. Voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake B. Voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce ore oxygen to the lungs C. Voluntarily increase the rate and depth of breathing D. Use supplemental oxygen or descend immediately to a lower level

Use supplemental oxygen or descend immediately to a lower level Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen to the brain so you need more oxygen

In the event of a rapid depressurisation at 30,000ft the effective performance time for a pilot without supplemental O2 is: A. 5 mins B. 2 mins C. 1 min D. 15 secs

1 min *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

Which is not a normal symptom of hypoxia: A. Cyanosis B. Feeling of euphoria C. Severe headache D. Erratic behaviour

Severe headache *Headache could be from carbon monoxide poisoning *Cyanosis is blue fingertips

One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins: A. 4000ft B. 10,000ft C. 14,000ft D. 20,000ft

4000ft *The rods of the retina are sensitive to the lack of oxygen

Which will increase your susceptibility to hypoxia: A. Smoking and alcohol B. Anaemia C. Cold and fatigue D. All of the above

All of the above

The average time of useful consciousness for a pax sitting quietly after a rapid decompression at 30,000ft is: A. 3 mins B. 5 mins C. 1 min D. 10 mins

3 mins *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

Oxygen is transported around the body by: A. Haemoglobin B. White blood cells C. Plasma D. The nervous system

Haemoglobin *Haemoglobin is the main part of the red blood cell which carries the oxygen

The average time of useful consciousness while engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 25,000ft is: A. 1 min B. 3 mins C. 5 mins D. 10 mins

3 mins *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

A heavy smoker will suffer the effects of hypoxia at a lower altitude than a non-smoker. While flying at an altitude of 5000ft, a smoker could be experiencing the same degree of hypoxia as a non-smoker at: A. 5000ft B. 10,000ft C. 15,000ft D. 20,000ft

10,000ft

Hypoxia may be caused by: A. Flying with a head cold B. Flying at altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C. Breathing too quickly or too deeply for the requirements of the body D. Flying after a period of underwater diving

Flying at altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low *Hypoxia is lack of oxygen to the brain

Hypoxia is always accompanied by: A. High temp and vomiting B. Dizziness C. Profuse sweating D. Degradation of pilot performance

Degradation of pilot performance

Which would not increase the likelihood of suffering the effects of hypoxia at low altitude: A. Flying at night B. Flying with elevated blood alcohol level C. Flying in a state of poor physical fitness D. Smoking heavily

Flying at night Night has no effect on hypoxia and oxygen to the brain Degraded night vision is an effect of hypoxia, this begins around 4000ft

The time of useful consciousness while cruising at 20,000ft and sitting quietly would be: A. 1 min B. 20 mins C. 15 mins D. 5 mins

20 mins *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

Symptoms of hyperventilation: A. Similar to hypoxia B. Different to hypoxia C. Cyanosis D. Profuse sweating

Similar to hypoxia

Above what altitude does it first become necessary for a pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breathe 100% oxygen: A. 10,000ft B. 33,700ft C. 40,000ft D. 45,000ft

33,700ft

Cyanosis can be identified by: A. Rapid breathing B. Blue colouration of finger nail beds and lips C. Slurred speech D. Difficulty maintaining balance

Blue colouration of finger nail beds and lips

Compared to sitting quietly, the uptake of oxygen in a life threatening emergency can be increased by a factor of: A. 2 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5

Up to 20 times more

The most likely effect of a sudden decompression at 35,000ft would be: A. Pains in the stomach B. Forced exhalation of breath C. Gasping for air D. Dizziness

Forced exhalation of breath

A regular smoker at seal level can be assumed to have an effective altitude of: A. 2000ft B. 4000ft C. 8000ft D. 10,000ft

8,000ft The difference reduces as height increases because the drop of pressure with increasing height is not linear So when a normal person is at 5000ft, smoker would be about 10,000ft

The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 20,000ft is: A. 10 mins B. 20 mins C. 3 mins D. 1 min

10 mins *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

Oxygen is transported around the body by: A. White blood cells B. Leukocytes C. Plasma D. Haemoglobin

Haemoglobin *Haemoglobin are the part of the red blood cell that carries the oxygen Leukocytes are white blood cells

The average time of useful consciousness with moderate activity following a decompression at 30,000ft is: A. 1 min B. 3 mins C. 5 mins D. 10 mins

1 min *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

A smoker who has an elevated carbon monoxide in the blood stream may suffer a greater reduction in performance at altitude. At a cabin altitude of 5000ft, the physiological altitude of a smoker with a 5% carboxyhemoglobin saturation can be up to: A. 7000ft B. 10,000ft C. 15,000ft D. 20,000ft

10,000ft

Hypoxia may be caused by: A. Flying with a head cold B. Flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C. Breathing too quickly for the amount of activity D. Flying after scuba diving

Flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low *Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen to the brain The other factors don't affect getting hypoix

Hypoxia is always accompanied by: A. Unconsciousness B. Dizziness C. Deterioration in flying performance D. Perspiration

Deterioration in flying performance

Susceptibility to hypoxia will not be increased by: A. Flying at night B. Flying with a hangover C. Lack of physical fitness D. Smoking E. Excessively cold environment

Flying at night *Night has no affect on susceptibility to hypoxia but night vision can be effected at 4000ft

The time of useful consciousness at FL200 following an oxygen supply failure while sitting quietly is closest to: A. 1 min B. 10 mins C. 15 mins D. 20 mins`

20 mins *20,000ft 10 mins for pilot, 20 mins for pax 25,000ft 3 mins for pilot, 5 mins for pax 30,000ft 1 min for pilot, 3 mins for pax

When should 100% oxygen be given to a pax: A. If they're hyperventilating B. If they're suffering from the bends C. If they're suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning D. If they're suffering from hypoglycaemia

If they're suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning *Because carbon monoxide displaces the oxygen with carboxyhemoglobin so oxygen is needed

Hyperventilation: A. Produces a chemical imbalance in the body which may give rise to symptoms that are often mistaken for hypoxia B. Is not likely if a person is breathing from supplemental oxygen C. Cannot lead to unconsciousness D. Is usually due to factors other than anxiety or apprehension

Produces a chemical imbalance in the body which may give rise to symptoms that are often mistaken for hypoxia

A method to help overcome hyperventilation: A. Breathe more deeply and at a slightly faster rate B. Hold your breath or try to breathe more slowly C. Hold your nose and blow out hard D. Avoid reading 'penthouse' during class

Hold your breath or try to breathe more slowly *Or a paper bag so you can inhale the carbon dioxide again

If you are experiencing feelings of warmth and wellbeing, associated with blue discolouration around the lips and fingernails, you may be suffering from: A. Hyperventilation B. The Bends C. CO poisoning D. Hypoxia

Hypoxia *The bends = decompression sickness when nitrogen bubbles, hurt the joints, spinal chord and brain with tingling sensation *Carbon monoxide poisoning = no symptoms at low doses but then impairment of performance, headache, fatigue, vision impairment, mental confusion, vomiting, unconsciousness and death

Hypoxia and hyperventilation symptoms can appear the same so to assist in deciding the condition being experienced: A. Only hypoxia causes tingling sensations B. Only hyperventilation causes blue colouration around the extremities of the body C. Only hyperventilation causes feelings of warmth and well being D. Only hypoxia causes blue colouring around the lips

Only hypoxia causes blue colouring around the lips *Hyperventilation only causes tingling *Hypoxia causes blue coloured extremities *Hypoxia and hyperventilation cause feelings of well being

A voluntary reduction in the rate of respiration is a treatment for: A. Hyperventilation B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. Hypoxia D. The bends

Hyperventilation *Hyperventilation = solved by holding breath or breathing into a paper bag because the body is breathing out too much carbon dioxide *Hypoxia = lack of O2 to the brain so reducing the breathing rate isn't helpful *Carbon monoxide poisoning = needs oxygen *The bends needs recompression for the nitrogen bubbles

A pilot should breathe 100% O2 under pressure above: A. 20,000ft B. 30,000ft C. 40,000ft D. 45,000ft.

40,000ft

As altitude increases, the percentage of oxygen present in the atmosphere: A. remains constant B. decreases C. increases D. decreases then increases

Remains constant Pg 7.1 Bob Tait

The average retention span of the short term memory is: A. 5 to 10 secs B. 15-30 secs C. 1 min D. 3 mins

15-30 secs *Short term memory is basically error free, can remember approx. 7 items for 30 secs

Which of the following is true regarding the short term memory: A. Very susceptible to error B. Free of error C. Almost free of error D. More susceptible to error in the young

Almost free of error *Short term memory is basically error free and can remember 7 items for approx 30 secs

The long term memory performs best when the information is presented: A. In one large block B. In a series of unrelated items C. By associating with previous items already stored in the long term memory D. With the aid of overhead projector slides

By associating with previous items already stored in the long term memory

Attitude is considered as incorporating 3 different elements, they are: A. Believing (cognitive), Feeling (affective), Acting (behavioural) B. Seeing (visual), Believing (cognitive), Feeling (affective) C. Seeing (visual), Hearing (auditory), Feeling (affective) D. Feeling (affective), Acting (behavioural), Hearing (auditory)

Believing, feeling and acting *Believing - cognitive, feeling - affective, action - behavioural -You believe skydivers are relaxed based on no rational justification - you feel that you might like to be one - then you act and go skydiving

The source of motivation is: A. Different for everybody B. Same for everybody C. Associated with only monetary gain D. Associated with only personal satisfaction

Different for everybody

True or false: Attitudes are often the result of our thoughts or beliefs colouring our perception of reality.

True *Believing - cognitive, feeling - affective, action - behavioural

The duration of the sensory memory for sounds is: A. 1-2 seconds B. 2-4 seconds C. 4-8 seconds D. 15-20 seconds

4-8 seconds *Sounds in sensory memory is: 4-8 secs *Visual in sensory memory is 1 sec

Duration of sensory memory for visual images is: A. 1 second B. 2 seconds C. 8 seconds D. 20 seconds

1 second *Sounds in sensory memory is: 4-8 secs *Visual in sensory memory is 1 sec

The average number of items that can be held in the short term memory is: A. 7 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

7 *Short term memory is basically error free, holds approx 7 items for 30 secs

An interesting characteristic of the short term memory is that it appears to be: A. Almost entirely acoustic B. Almost entirely visual C. Equally reliant on visual and acoustic inputs D. Unaffected by alcohol

Almost entirely acoustic

When a task has been rehearsed and drilled to the point where it can be performed with no conscious monitoring it has become a: A. Motor program B. Reflex action C. Habit D. Conditioned response

Motor program Motor program is capable of being performed subconsciously The most likely error of motor skills is initiation of the skill rather than error in execution (eg putting gear down instead of flap and not being able to remember what one he did)

The four stages which information is processed by the brain are: A. decision, perception, sensation, response B. perception, sensation, response, decision C. sensation, decision, perception, response D. sensation, perception, decision, response

sensation, perception, decision, response S - P - D - R (spider information)

The performance vs arousal curve shows: A. The higher the arousal, the better the performance B. The lower the arousal, the better the performance C. The best performance is achieved at a moderate level of arousal D. Performance is virtually unaffected by arousal

The best performance is achieved at a moderate level of arousal (looks like an 'n' with performance on the vertical and arousal on the horizontal)

As arousal increased from boredom to anxiety, the performance of the particular task is liekly to: A. Increase continuously B. Decrease continuously C. Increase then decrease D. Decrease then increase

Increase then decrease

Which of the following is likely to have the most lasting effect on pilot motivation: A. High wages B. Promotion C. Threat of dismissal D. Job satisfaction

Job satisfaction

The main function of the semantic memory is: A. Recognise names and faces B. Recognise visual symbols, codes or logos C. Remember episodes of cause and effect that have occurred in the past D. Remember skills that have been learned by constant repetition

Recognise visual symbols, codes or logos *Long term memory is: episodic, semantic and motor skills Episodic - past events which have occurred as well as their outcomes Semantic memory - recognise visual symbols, codes or logos Motor sills - complex tasks which have been linked through training and practice become skills

The main function of the episodic memory is: A. Recognise names and faces B. Recognise visual symbols, codes or logos C. Remember episodes of cause and effect that have occurred in the past D. Remember skills that have been learned by constant repetition

Remember episodes of cause and effect that have occurred in the past *Long term memory is: episodic, semantic and motor skills Episodic - past events which have occurred as well as their outcomes Semantic memory - recognise visual symbols, codes or logos Motor sills - complex tasks which have been linked through training and practice become skills

A personality which features cool headed self assurance would be classified as: A. Stable extrovert B. Unstable extrovert C. Stable introvert D. Unstable introvert

Stable introvert Crossing arrow diagram: Stable it top, unstable is bottom Introvert is left, extrovert is right Stable introvert, top left = cool, self assured Stable extrovert, top right = cheerful, outgoing Unstable introvert, bottom left = moody, sad Unstable extrovert, bottom right = hot tempered

Deference is one of the 'hazardous thought' which affect human behaviour and decision making. It refers to: A. Tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. Tendency to commit to a particular course of action without considering the consequences C. Tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong D. Tendency to believe that 'it can't happen to me'

Tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong *Deferring = blaming someone else Anti-authority = refusal to listen to the advice of someone else Impulsiveness = commit to a certain course of action without giving thought to consequences Invulnerability = it can't happen to me Macho = there's nothing I can't do Resignation = there's nothing I can do about it now Pride = keen to demonstrate skills, can be positive but need to learn from experience and wisdom of others Peer pressure = pressure from peers Employment pressure = pressure from employers

Which of the following is true of the brains mental capacity: A. The brain can consciously think about several items at the same time B. The brain can only carry out one motor program at a time C. The brain can carry out more than one motor program at a time D. The brain cannot carry out a motor program without consciously monitoring the actions involved

The brain can carry out more than one motor program at a time

Long term memory is enhanced if: A. In massive chunks B. In limited quantity C. By association with existing stored information D. With continuous repetition

By association with existing stored information Long term memory: -Episodic - past events and outcomes -Semantic - symbols, codes or words -Motor skills - tasks linked through practice which become skills

When a manual task has been rehearsed and practiced it requires less conscious attention to perform than a new task. This is because the well practiced task is performed via a: A. Cerebellum loop B. Motor program C. Parasympathetic memory channel D. Mental picture

Motor program

Concerning the rate of information processing and the attention range of a pilot flying with a critically ill patient diverting to an emergency alternate in poor weather compared to a typical flight: A. The rate of information processing increases and attention range decreases B. The rate of information processing decreases and attention range increases C. The rate of information processing increases and attention range increases D. The rate of information processing decreases and attention range decreases

The rate of information processing increases and attention range decreases *Attention can be selective or divided Selective is when all the attention is focused on the input data specific to the task and excluding any irrelevant data Divided is when we perform separate task simultaneously Under stress the information processing increases but range decreases - range is the number of the individual items included in the attention span

Professionals in the field of aviation world assess pilots mental workload in order to determine: A. Minimum rest period required B. Maximum duty period which may be sustained C. Maximum flight time which may be sustained D. How much spare mental capacity is available to allow a pilot to cope in an emergency

How much spare mental capacity is available to allow a pilot to cope in an emergency

A goal oriented person who is not people oriented will relate to others in a way that appears: A. Friendly to associates and subordinates B. Aggressive to subordinates and associates C. Cool to subordinates and associates D. Friendly to associates but aggressive to subordinates

Cool to subordinates and associates G+P- odel

According to Maslows Hierarchy of needs, the motivating factvor on the highest level of the hierarchy is: A. Salary B. Job satisfaction/responsibility C. Job security D. Working relationships with colleagues E. Working conditions

Job satisfaction/responsibility Top of pyramid: job satisfaction/self fulfilment - expression of talent Self esteem - status, achievement Belonging and affection - friendships, love, sex Safety and security - no pain or danger Physiological needs - food, water

A person is best able to recall information from short term memory that is: A. Visual and clustered B. Audible and clustered C. Visual and seperate D. Audible and seperate

Audible and clustered

Captain disables the overspeed warning by pulling the CBB, the FO asks why and the captain says it'll save time and he knows what he's doing. The FO shrugs and says nothing more; his attitude may be described as: A. Anti-authoritarian B. One of vulnerability C. Assertive D. Deferent

Deferent Deferent = "don't look at me, I just work here"

A large transport jet suffered failure of all 33 hydraulic systems which meant no primary flight control response. The crew were able to crash land the aircraft using asymmetric thrust. They were able to do this by using knowledge from: A. Short term memory B. Long term memory C. Motor programs D. Semantic memory

Long term memory Long term memory = semantic (logos, pics, symbol recognition), episodic (past events and their outcomes), motor skills (practiced skills)

The ideal level of arousal for a pilot prior to completing a flight proficiency check kis: A. Very high B. High C. Low D. Low to moderate E. Moderate

Moderate Middle of the curve gives optimal performance

Regarding motivation: A. People may be motivated by different forces which apparently behaving in the same way B. Everyone is motivated by the same basic factors C. Motivation drives a person to behave in a socially acceptable way D. Drives are all innate in all individuals while motivation is extrinsic

People may be motivated by different forces which apparently behaving in the same way

The human brain may be considered in some ways similar to a computer. It processes inputs in the order of: A. decision, perception, sensation, response B. perception, sensation, response, decision C. sensation, decision, perception, response D. sensation, perception, decision, response

Sensation, perception, decision, response SPDR

A pilot who is anxious about night flying is conducting an approach at 11pm to an airport in poor vis; their level of arousal is likely to be: A. Low B. High C. Optimum D. Extreme

High

Cruising on a long flight over featureless terrain, pilots information processing is likely to suffer from: A. Increased rate and decreased range B. Increased rate and increased range C. Decreased rate and decreased range D. Decreased rate and increased range

Decreased rate and increased range Rate and range are opposite In high stress, rate increased but range decreases

The factors which attitude may be influenced are: A. Cognitive, affective, behavioural B. Behavioural, psychological, physiological C. Cognitive, environmental, mental D. Affective, effective, reflective

Cognitive, affective, behavioural Belief - cognitive Feeling - affective Act - behavioural

Motivation is derived from: A. The same sources for all individuals B. Different sources for all individuals C. Extrinsic factors only D. Intrinsic factors only

Different sources for all individuals

Hertzberg 2 factor theory proposes positive motivating factors in job satisfaction like achievement and recognition. Negative factors causing dissatisfaction are hygiene factors. An example of a hygiene factor is: A. Advancement B. Responsibility C. Staff relations D. Type of work

Staff relations Hygiene factors are = staff relations, company personnel policy, salary, security and working conditions Motivating factors = achievement, advancement, responsibility and recognition

After takeoff the pilot notices an oil leak from one of the engines and immediately shuys down the engine but fails to feather the propeller. The actions of the pilot indicate the attitude of: A. Invulnerability B. Macho C. Resignation D. Impulsiveness

Impulsiveness Invulnerability = it won't happen to me Macho = there's nothing I can't do Resignation = ah well

An instructor who lets a student deviate from a standard approach, hoping they will improves, uses an interactive style which may be categorised as: A. P+ G+ B. P- G- C. P+ G- D. P- G+

P+ G- Good with people, not so much goal of stable approach

The personality type most likely to have an accident as a result of risk taking: A. Stable introvert B. Stable extrovert C. Unstable introvert D. Unstable extrovert

Unstable/anxious extrovert

The typical number of unrelated items which can be retained in the working memory is: A. 3 B. 7 C. 12 D. 20

Approx 7 7 items for 30 seconds, almost error free

During periods of high stress, the pilots attention is most likely to be: A. Selective sequential B. Divided parallel C. Selective parallel D. Divided sequential

Selective sequential Deciding what's important and in what order means sequential

The 'chunking' technique may be used to: A. Improve the capacity of the short term memory B. Improve the capacity of the long term memory C. Improve the capacity of the sensory memory D. Increase the rate which information can be processed

Improve the capacity of the short term memory Long term memory is helped by associating

During which period of the day will the average person find it most difficult to stay awake? A. Midday-2pm B. 10pm-2am C. 3am-5am D. 9am-midday

3am - 5am *Body temp drops to around 36.1C early hours of the morning

What is the average rate which the body reschronises to local time after travelling through a large change in longitude: A. 6hrs per day B. 8hrs per day C. 4hrs per day D. 1.5hrs per day

1.5hrs per day *Going west is easier because the body is slowing The body is used to being slowed from a 25hr day to 24hrs

On the Holmes/Rahe scale of recent experience which of the following is the least stressful: A. Change in eating habits B. Trouble with the boss at work C. Retirement D. Death of a close family member

Change in eating habits *Holmes Rahe scale top = death of a spouse, divorce, separation, death of a close family member

After a non-stop flight through a 90degree change in longitude, the time required for the body rythmns to fully readjust to the destinations local time is: A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 4 days D. 10 days

4 days

True or false The Holmes Rahe research showed that stress levels can be increased by changes in lifestyle or conditions for better or the worse can increase stress levels

True *Any change can contribute to stress

Which is true regarding trans meridian dyschronism (jet lag): A. Flying east requires body rhythms to advance B. Flying west requires body rhythms to advance C. Flying east requires body rhythms to delay D. Flying north in summer requires body rhythms to advance

Flying east requires body rhythms to advance

Which of the following is true regarding the circadiun rhythms for a normal person: A. It always follows an exact 24hr cycle B. It tends to revert to a 25hr cycle when the subject is isolated in an artificial environment C. It speeds up in summer and slows in winter D. The body finds it easier to speed up than slow down

It tends to revert to a 25hr cycle when the subject is isolated in an artificial environment *Body finds it easier to slow down, that's why going west is easier

Which of the following would be most vulnerable to fatigue: A. Clear thinking B. Hovering a helicopter C. Seeing and hearing clearly D. Speaking clearly

Clear thinking

The lapse in performance standards which occurs daily in mid afternoon is known as: A. Post meridian depression B. Siesta syndrome C. Post prandial dip D. Afternoon lapse phase

Post prandial dip

Which of the following, in order of occurrence, the 3 phases of the body's adaptation to stress: A. Resistance, alarm collapse B. Collapse, resistance, alarm C. Resistance, collapse, alarm D. Alarm, resistance, collapse

Alarm, resistance, collapse A - R - C

Which describes excess stress on the attention span: A. Attention span is reduced B. Attention span is decreased C. Attention span is not affected by excess stress D. Attention span reduces initially but returns to normal

Attention span is reduced

Sleep is most likely to be beneficial when: A. It's late at night B. The sleep period coincides with the circadian sleep cycle C. The bedroom is kept at body temperature D. You go to bed as early as possible

The sleep period coincides with the circadian sleep cycle

Chronic fatigue differs from acute fatigue in that: A. It can usually be relieved by a good nights sleep B. It is always the result of over exertion C. It is easily treated by sleeping pills D. Usually lifestyle related and the cause may not be obvious

Usually lifestyle related and the cause may not be obvious

Tasks become mor3e affected by fatigue as they become: A. More monotonous and less complicated B. Less monotonous and less complicated C. More monotonous and more complicated D. Less monotonous and more complicated

More monotonous and more complicated

Which is true of acute stress: A. It always has a negative affect on performance and should be avoided at all costs B. It has no affect on performance C. Moderate levels of stress can enhance the dynamics of coping with a particular situation D. The higher the stress levels, the better the performance becomes

Moderate levels of stress can enhance the dynamics of coping with a particular situation

A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis: A. When the expectancy of an event is high B. After a period of intense concentration C. During a period of preoccupation with another problem D. During normal operations

During normal operations

The process of decision making in what order: A. consider the facts; define the problem, consider the solutions; act; consider the result B. define the problem; consider the facts; consider the solution; act; consider the result C. consider the facts; consider the solutions; define the problem; act; consider the result D. define the problem, consider the solutions; consider the facts; act; consider the result

consider the facts; define the problem, consider the solutions; act; consider the result

A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin engine plane experienced an engine failure on takeoff and failed the left engine only to find it was the right that failed. This pilot was a victim of: A. Expectancy producing a false hypothesis B. Motor program producing a false hypothesis C. Expectancy producing a mental bloc D. Stress producing memory loss

Expectancy producing a false hypothesis Was anticipating that the left was the dodgy one

PARIS IN THE THE SPRING illustrates the perceptual error known as: A. Coriolis illusion B. Autokinetic illusion C. Somatogravic illusion D. Mind set

Mind set *Coriolis is when you're in a turn and tilt your head down sending confusion fluid flow change signals to the brain Autokinetic when the eyeball makes sudden jerky movements which cause the focus of the light source to move on the retina - the brain perceives these movements to be caused by the movements of the light source

Which of the following is not an emotional indicator of stress: A. Apathy and depression B. Constant feeling of weariness C. High pulse rate D. Changes of mood and shortness of temper

High pulse rate Pulse rate is a physical response

With reference to transmeridian dyschronism (jet lag), the worst condition for biorhythm readjustment is: A. Flying east - with the body needing to advance B. Flying west - with the body needing to retard C. Flying east - with the body needing to advance D. Flying west - with the body needing to retard

Flying east - with the body needing to advance

Human error as a cause of aircraft accidents has become a major focus of safety programs for many airlines. Concerning the link between human error and aircraft safety: A. Human error can be eliminated through training B. Human error can be eliminated through SOPs C. Human error can be eliminated through short duty periods which prevent boredom D. Human error can never be eliminated

Human error can never be eliminated

In human decision making, 'risky shift' describes the tendency for: A. An individual to be more likely to be prepared to knowingly breach a regulation than a group B. A group to be more likely to knowingly breach a regulation than an individual C. A group to be less likely to knowingly breach a regulation than an individual D. Both groups and individuals to be prepared to knowingly breach a regulation as experience levels rise

A group to be more likely to knowingly breach a regulation than an individual

A pilot on final approach may say 'gear down' during the prelanding checks without actually performing the action of lowering the gear. In this case, the error is: A. Random B. Sporadic C. Environmental capture D. Systematic

Environmental capture

In order for a nap to be considered beneficial, the duration needs to be at least: A. 10-15 mins B. 25-35 mins C. 45 mins D. 60 mins

10-15 mins

A stress management method which is defined as a cognitive method is: A. Alcohol B. Rationalisation C. Exercise D. Changing jobs

Rationalisation

When in cruise, typically autopilot is engaged and the role of the pilot is monitoring systems. The typical length which a pilot will maintain vigilance before boredom reduces performance significantly is: A. 10 mins B. 30 mins C. 50 mins D. 90 mins

30 mins

Chronic fatigue in an individual is characterised by: A. Loss of appetite, insomnia, tenseness and depression B. Physical exhaustion alone C. Irritability insomnia but not loss of appetite D. Feelings of elation and increased reliance on caffeine and alcohol

Loss of appetite, insomnia, tenseness and depression

A person who is undergoing therapy for stress is using a coping strategy which may be described as: A. cognitive B. reactive C. active D. passive

cognitive

While conducting an IAP in IMC, you have a mental picture of what you expect to see when you become visual. You break out of cloud and what you see is different to your mental picture. In this situation: A. essential details tend to be overlooked B. it will take time to orient yourself C. you will experience strong vertigo D. you will immediately discount the contribution of the mental model

essential details tend to be overlooked

The error-cause-removal approach to reducing the occurrence of human error aims to: A. Achieve zero rate error B. reduce errors through high levels of motivation C. Encourage pilots to identify potential sources of error to prevent problems in the future D. develop safeguard backups to manage error so that when it occurs, other procedures will check the result to identify any problems

Encourage pilots to identify potential sources of error to prevent problems in the future

Chronic fatigue is most likely to be initially caused by: A. Continue pressure from upper management B. Long period of poor health C. Problems at home D. Difficult rosters

Long period of poor health

Concerning the management of human error in relation to enhancing safety in aviation: A. The only way to achieve safety is through elimination of human error B. The most significant way of controlling human error is by continuously and enthusiastically publicising safety practices C. Repetition or over-learning has a significant influence on error reduction while motivation does not D. Human error can never be eliminated and to conceal errors is to encourage their repetition

Human error can never be eliminated and to conceal errors is to encourage their repetition

The most beneficial stress management strategy is a threefold approach involving modification or use of: A. attitudes, diet, fitness B. diet, medication, behaviour C. behaviour, attitude, fitness D. relaxation techniques, medication and exercise

behaviour, attitude, fitness

The function of the Eustachian tube: A. detect angular acceleration B. detect motion C. transmit nerve impulses D. equalise air pressure each side of the eardrum

equalise air pressure each side of the eardrum *Connect middle ear to the throat

A false hypothesis would be unlikely to be made: A. When expectancy is high B. After a period of intense concentration C. After a series of false alarms D. When preoccupied with another task

After a series of false alarms

Chronic fatigue differs from acute fatigue in that: A. stress is not a factor in acute fatigue, only in chronic B. Chronic fatigue can be overcome with a good nights sleep in most cases C. Chronic fatigue is unlikely to develop unless the pilot experiences jet lag D. Chronic fatigue can build up insidiously over time but be triggered or worsened by other factors

Chronic fatigue can build up insidiously over time but be triggered or worsened by other factors

The highest life change unit score on the Holmes Rahe scale is associated with: A. Martial seperation B. Marriage C. Change in sleeping habits D. Death of a close family member

Martial seperation

Escapism as a stress management mechanism may involve the use of drugs or physical escape from an intolerable work situation to a new job. Escaping: A. should never be used as a solution B. may sometimes be the only viable option C. is the first option for stress management D. will never solve a persons problems

may sometimes be the only viable option

The circadian rhythm of body temperature which influences the natural sleep wake cycle is: A. consistent at exactly 24 hrs B. consistent in isolation at 25 hrs, hence the sleep period would begin about an hour later each day C. varies widely between individuals D. generally about 12 hrs in duration

consistent in isolation at 25 hrs, hence the sleep period would begin about an hour later each day

When conducting a procedural qapproach, a pilot uses a pattern of behaviour which is: A. Rule based B. Motor program based C. Knowledge based D. Skills based

Rule based

Paradoxical sleep is used to describe: A. ROM sleep B. RAM sleep C. Stage 2 sleep D. REM sleep

REM sleep

Approximately half of normal sleep is made up of: A. ROM sleep B. RAM sleep C. Stage 2 sleep

Stage 2 sleep

Events are perceived as stressful when they result in: A. positive or negative life changes B. positive life changes only C. negative life changes only D. headaches and nausea

positive or negative life changes

The minimum time a nap to be considered restorative is: A. 10 mins B. 20 mins C. 40 mins D. 1 hr

10 mins

The order of steps involved in the PILOT model of decision making is: A. pray, initiate action, look for solutions, oversee progress, take stock B. postulate, investigate, litigate, operate, terminate C. probe the facts, identify the problem, look for solutions, operate, take stock D. postpone action, investigate the solution, listen to others, operate, tell someone

probe the facts, identify the problem, look for solutions, operate, take stock

Select which best describes an external threat: A. Pilot fatigue B. Pilot suffering the effects of a hangover C. Another aircraft entering the runway while you are on late final D. Difficulty in understanding the transmission of a foreign pilot

Another aircraft entering the runway while you are on late final

Select which best describes an undesired aircraft state: A. Arrival over the threshold too high and too fast on a landing approach B. Failing to notice a damaged tyre during a daily inspection C. Failure to realise that a destination aerodrome requires an alternate D. Aircraft overdue for its annual inspection

Arrival over the threshold too high and too fast on a landing approach

An example of an expected threat is: A. Thunderstorms forecast on the TAF B. Engine failure in flight C. Becoming lost in flight D. Being diverted in flight by ATC

Thunderstorms forecast on the TAF *Threats originate in the environment and are not directly reaalted to things the crew did or did not do Expected can be planned around

For the flight crew, the 3 basic components in the TEM model are: A. Threats, errors, undesired aircraft states B. Threats, errors and anticipated aircraft states C. Threats, flight crew human resources and aircraft states D. Errors, flight crew human resources and undesired aircraft states

Threats, errors, undesired aircraft states *Threat is the environment or cockpit *Error is direct result of pilot actions

Which would be classified as an external threat: A. Pressure to meet timetables B. Pilot fatigue C. Health and fitness D. Lack of familiarity with other crew

Pressure to meet timetables *Fatigue is an internal threat *Health and fitness is internal *Familiarity with crew is internal

An example of a latent threat is: A. Undercarriage won't retract in flight B. Wind gusts exceeding the aircrafts crosswind limitation C. Poor aircraft equipment design D. Unexpected high traffic volume in the terminal area

Poor aircraft equipment design *Latent threat is not obvious to the pilot but are 'user un-friendly' environment -Optical illusions -Company policies that don't address proper maintenance issues

Entering the incorrect waypoint data while operating in a stressful cockpit environment is an example of: A. Environmental threat B. Organisational threat C. Expected threat D. Unexpected threat

Organisational threat *Examples: -documentation -implementing wrong data -tour of duty problems

The 3 primary categories of error in the TEM model are: A. Loss of heading control, loss of attitude control, loss of airspeed control B. Navigational error, radio frequency error, navigation aid error C. Crew resource error, ATC error, ground handling errors D. Aircraft handling error, procedural error, communication error

Aircraft handling error, procedural error, communication errorU

Undesired aircraft states are categorised by the TEM model as: A. Aircraft handling, ground handling, incorrect aircraft configuration B. Aircraft ground handling, vertical navigation, incorrect inflight configuration C. Vertical navigation, ground handling, inflight navigation D. Aircraft configuration, ground handling, inflight aircraft handling

Aircraft configuration, ground handling, inflight aircraft handling *UAS=aircraft handling Ground navigation Aircraft configuration

Track and speed deviation are examples of: A. Ground navigation state B. Aircraft handling state C. Air navigation state D. Navigation configuration state

Aircraft handling state

Unauthorised penetration of controlled airspace is an example of undesired: A. Ground navigation state B. Aircraft handling state C. Air navigation state D. Navigation configuration state

Aircraft handling state *Undesired aircraft handling state: -Aircraft control - deviations in pitch, roll, yaw -Altitude, track or speed deviations -Exceeding structural load limits -Violation of CTA

Being positioned at the incorrect holding point prior to takeoff is an undesired: A. Aircraft handling state B. Ground configuration state C. Situational awareness state D. Ground navigation state

Ground navigation state *Undesired ground navigation state is taxiing too fast or using the wrong taxiway or runway

Incorrect navigation aid setting is: A. Ground navigation state B. Aircraft configuration state C. Horizontal navigation state D. Situational awareness state

Aircraft configuration state

With regard to TEM, the use of a checklist prior to takeoff is an example: A. Desirable aircraft state B. Safety state C. Countermeasure D. Safety tactic

Countermeasure

When considering the risk any threat imposes, you should consider: A/ The probability of encountering the threat irrespective of the consequences B The seriousness of the consequences irrespective of the probability of encountering the threat C. The probability of encountering the threat and seriousness of the consequences D. The probability of encountering the threat at any stage during the flight

The probability of encountering the threat and seriousness of the consequences

When an undesired aircraft state is identified, the primary task should be: A. Identify the error which lead to the UAS B. Identify and correct the error which led to the UAS C. Deal with the UAS and return to control stabilised flight D. Advise ATC of the UAS

Deal with the UAS and return to control stabilised flight

Effectiveness of actions taken by a crew to manage a threat is: A. The accuracy of the crews recall of events during the debriefing B. The speed with which the crew acted to manage the threat C. Whether the threat was detected in time for the crew to respond appropriately D. Whether an UAS was avoided

Whether the threat was detected in time for the crew to respond appropriately

The most proactive option in threat management is to: A. Anticipate the recover action required if the threat occurs B. Anticipate and avoid the threat altogether C. Take corrective action one the threat has occurred D. Concentrate on management of any UAS that may result

Anticipate and avoid the threat altogether

Mismanaged threats usually lead to: A. Errors which are then lined to UAS B. UAS which are then linked to errors C. Aircraft handling errors which then lead to environmental errors D. Diversion from SOP's

Errors which are then lined to UAS

With regard to TEM, a cockpit systems failure warning light is an example of: A. A proactive decision making process B. A systemic based countermeasure C. An UAS management device D. A handling error countermeasure

A systemic based countermeasure

A thorough pre-takeoff briefing is an example of: A. Systemic based countermeasure B. Planning countermeasure C. Execution countermeasure D. Review countermeasure

Planning countermeasure -Flight planning Preflight briefing Contingency planning to cope with expected threats

Pilot notices an alternator warning light illuminated during flight and responds by turning off all unnecessary electrical loads. This behaviour would be best described as: A. Systemic based countermeasure B. Planning countermeasure C. Execution countermeasure D. Review countermeasure

Review countermeasure *Review countermeasures: -Evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds -Remaining alert and assertive in identifying and addressing issues as they arise

Regular monitoring of flight, engine and navigation instruments during flight is an example of: A. Systemic based countermeasure B. Planning countermeasure C. Execution countermeasure D. Review countermeasure

Execution countermeasure -Monitoring engine flight and nav instruments -Cross checking information to ensure its integrity -Good systems and workload management ensure situational awareness is maintained

Stall warning is activated during flight and the pilot immediately takes action to restore the IAS. This would be an example of: A. Systemic based countermeasure B. Planning countermeasure C. Execution countermeasure D. Review countermeasure

Review countermeasure *Review countermeasures: -Evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds -Remaining alert and assertive in identifying and addressing issues as they arise

Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good team problem solving performance: A. Stand steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B. Trust your personal feelings about an issue rather than logic C. Always take a vote on final decisions to ensure that everyone on the team is happy D. Team members contribute but the team leader makes the final decision

Team members contribute but the team leader makes the final decision

Good leadership in a group is characterised by: A. High personal attention and medium task orientation B. Medium personal attention and medium task orientation C. High personal attention and high task orientation D. Medium personal attention and high task orientation

High personal attention and high task orientation

Which of the following represents the best order of priorities for tasks during flight: A. Aviate, communicate, navigate B. Aviate, navigate, communicate C. Communicate, navigate, aviate D. Navigate, aviate, communicate

Aviate, navigate, communicate

An example of push mode of conversation: A. Asking a question B. Making a proposal C. Giving your opinion D. Requesting an opinion

Giving your opinion Push: -Giving opinion -Stating beliefs or facts -Giving commands or orders -Present our side of negotiation pull: -Asking a question -Requesting an opinion -Making a proposal -Inviting other parties to negotiate

Which of the following would not be an example of good leadership: A. Leading by example B. Advising your intentions before acting C. Not involving crew in decision making D. Offering praise for good performance

Not involving crew in decision making

Mode awareness has become a concern for the crews of modern generation aircraft. This term refers to: A. Crew awareness of the flight mode on autopilot B. FO awareness of the mood of the captain C. Captains awareness of the thoughts of the flight crew D. Crew awareness of the correct speeds and power settings for various flight stages

Crew awareness of the flight mode on autopilot

One disadvantage of glass cockpit technology in the modern generation of aircraft is that: A. Pilots having difficult in understanding the mass of information presented on the displays B. Captains having difficult in monitoring the actions of the crew C. Loss of proficiency in basic instrument flying skills especially in younger pilots D. Lack of faith in the indications given by the CRTs

Loss of proficiency in basic instrument flying skills especially in younger pilots

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital display over a circular analogue display: A. Comparison between similar systems is easier B. The exact value of the item is more easily read C. It is easier to observe the direction and rate of change of a parameter D. It is easier to include it in the scan during hands on instrument flight

The exact value of the item is more easily read

Which of the following is true of linear strip display type instruments compared to circular gauge instruments: A. They provide easier comparison between systems B. It is difficult to detect a discrepancy between 2 systems C. Linear strips make it easier to obtain accurate values D. Linear display strips are easier to include in the scan durning instrument flight

They provide easier comparison between systems