Textbook Q's Flashcards
The type of human errors which feature most commonly in aircraft accidents are:
A. Errors in manipulating the flying controls (handling errors)
B. Errors in judgement caused by poor decision making
C. Errors caused through lack of theoretical knowledge
D. Errors caused through lack of experience on type
Errors in judgement caused by poor decision making
The most common cause of pilot incapacitation during flight is:
A. Heart attack
B. Dehydration
C. Blocked sinus passages
D. Food or drink poisoning
Food or drink poisoning
Dehydration is more likely to be experienced after several hours at:
A. High altitude on a dry day
B. Low altitude on a humid day
C. High altitude on a humid day
D. Low altitude on any day
High altitude on a dry day
The symptoms of dehydration include:
A. Profuse sweatinbg
B. Drying of the nasal passaged and a prickly sensation in the eyes
C. Runny eyes and nose
D. Stomach cramps and a high temperature
Drying of the nasal passaged and a prickly sensation in the eyes
CASA has a recommended period on the ground after making a blood donation of at least:
A. 6 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 48 hours
24 hours
CAR 256 requires total abstinence by all pilots from any alcohol for a period of:
A. 8 hours before departure
B. 24 hours before departure
C. 8 hours before commencing duty
D. 12 hours before departure
8 hours before departure
Which of the following is true of drugs taken by pilots for medical reasons before flight:
A. Any over the counter drugs can be considered safe
B. Drugs can be considered safe if they prescribed by a doctor
C. Drugs can be considered safe unless there is a warning on the packet
D. The opinion of a DAME should be sought before using any drug
The opinion of a DAME should be sought before using any drug
Discomfort or pain in the ears or sinuses is most likely during:
A. Long periods of cruise at high altitude
B. High rates of descent in an unpressurised aircraft
C. High rates of climb in an unpressurised aircraft
D. Long slow descents in an unpressurised aircraft
High rates of descent in an unpressurised aircraft
If an otherwise healthy pilot suffers a bout of dizzy spells, the appropriate action required by CASR 67.205 is:
A. Notify a DAME and refrain from all flying until cleared
B. Notify a DAME and refrain from all commercial flying until cleared
C. Notify a DAME and refrain from all instrument flying until cleared
D. Resume flying providing there is no recurrence within 24 hours
Notify a DAME and refrain from all flying until cleared
Pilots can best assist airsick passengers by:
A. Warning them they will have to clean up their mess if they vomit
B. Descending quickly to land before they get sick
C. Reassuring them that airsickness is nothing to worry about
D. Flying as smoothly as possible and making all manoeuvres and descents gentle
Flying as smoothly as possible and making all manoeuvres and descents gentle
Which is a condition caused by excessive uric acid in the blood and can be aggravated by poor diet:
A. Gout
B. Angina
C. Leprosy
D. Tinea
Gout
Which of the following is not likely to result from a severe cold:
A. Dizziness caused by pressure build up in the middle ear (pressure vertigo)
B. Discomfort or pain in the ears during a rapid descent
C. Blurring of vision
D. Rupturing of the eardrum
Blurring of vision
It is generally accepted that human error can be totally eliminated from aviation with proper training and SOP’s?
A. True
B. False
False
Too much salt in the diet can lead to:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Increased chance of catching colds
C. High blood pressure
D. Low blood pressure
High blood pressure
Foods most likely to produce intestinal gases are:
A. Salty foods
B. Green vegetables
C. Foods high in sugar
D. Chicken
Green vegetables
Obesity has been linked to the following health conditions:
A. Drowsiness, headaches, low blood pressure and gout
B. Cancer, drowsiness, headaches and heart disease
C. High blood pressure, gout, diabetes and heart disease
D. Diabetes, headaches, cancer and high blood pressure
High blood pressure, gout, diabetes and heart disease
Too little iron in the diet can lead to:
A. Anaemia
B. Low blood pressure
C. Skin rashes
D. Dizzy spells
Anaemia
High blood pressure is a common cause of disqualification on medical grounds. Hypertension is most directly linked to:
A. Heart disease
B. Anaemia
C. Anorexia
D. Old age
Heart disease
On a hot day, it is possible for the body to lose about 5 litres of water?
A. True
B. False
True
One common characteristic of ageing is a deterioration of hearing. This usually is noticed first in the:
A. Low frequencies
B. Medium frequencies
C. High frequencies
D. Across all frequencies
High frequencies
The purpose of the Eustachian tube in the respiratory system is to connect:
A. Middle ear to outer ear
B. Inner ear to middle ear
C. Outer ear to inner ear
D. Middle ear to throat
E. Inner ear to throat
Middle ear to throat
The primary cause of pilot incapacitation in flight is:
A. Disorientation due to inner ear infections
B. Gastrointestinal disorders
C. Heart attack
D. Stroke
Gastrointestinal disorders
A person flying with a head cold would not usually be affected by:
A. Hypermetropia
B. Pressure vertigo
C. Difficulty clearing ears on descent
D. Rupturing of the tympanic membrane
Hypermetropia
The recommended time between blood donations and commencement of flying duties is:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 96 hours
24 hours
If a pilot is suffering from heat stress, they should:
A. Drink sufficient fluid to quench their thirst
B. Drink more fluid dictated by thirst alone
C. Drink ample quantities of carbonated fluids
D. Drink ample water (rather than other fluids)
Drink more fluid dictated by thirst alone
Pilots who are inclined to suffer from air sickness:
A. Should never take travel sickness tablets
B. Should always deliberately induce vomiting
C. Should use caution when using travel sickness preparations
D. Can safely take any travel sickness preparation
Should use caution when using travel sickness preparations
The Valsalve Manoeuvre:
A. Could never be the cause of pressure vertigo
B. Is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb
C. Is more likely to be needed during a climb than descent
D. Is not likely to be needed in a climb or descent
Is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb
An excessively cold environment does not pose the danger of;
A. Impairment of thinking
B. Apathy
C. Loss of consciousness
D. A feeling of elation
A feeling of elation
An obese pilot with hypertension would be unlikely to suffer from:
A. Increased risk of heart disease
B. Difficulty in breathing due to lung cancer
C. Pain in the joints due to excess wear and tear
D. Poor circulation
Difficulty in breathing due to lung cancer
The condition of Barotrauma is likely to occur:
A. With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent
B. With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb
C. With a decreased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent
D. With a decreased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb
With an increased differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent
The ideal relative humidity for passenger comfort in jet transport aircraft is considered to be:
A. 10-20%
B. 20-30%
C. 40-60%
D. 60-70%
40-60%
During a descent with blocked Eustachian Tubes, the gas volume in the middle ear:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
Decreases
Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with:
A. A blocked Eustachian tube during a climb
B. A head cold during descent
C. A blocked Eustachian tube during descent
D. A head cold during a climb
A head cold during descent
If you pinch yourself just above the hip, a good level of fitness is indicated if the fold of flesh in your grasp has a thickness of:
A. 12mm
B. 6mm
C. 20mm
D. 25mm
12mm
The lowest operating environment temperature at which the symptoms of heat stress are likely is:
A. 15C
B. 25C
C. 32C
D. 40C
32C
The best way to guard against dehydration is to:
A. Drink water only when you are thirsty
b. Drink a large amount of water at the beginning of each day
C. Drink water regularly throughout the day
D. Drink only when you are out of the sun
Drink water regularly throughout the day
The period of validity of a medical certificate unless otherwise cancelled or suspended is:
A. 4 years for student and private pilot licences (under 40) and 1 year for commercial pilot
B. 2 years for student and 1 year for private and commercial
C. 1 year for student and 2 years for private and commercial
D. 2 years for all classes of licence
4 years for student and private pilot licences (under 40) and 1 year for commercial pilot
The most important process by which alcohol is removed from the body after consumption of alcoholic drinks is:
A. Expiration (breathing)
B. Perspiration (sweating)
C. Via kidneys as urine
D. Through chemical breakdown in the liver
Through chemical breakdown in the liver
For the average male, the rate at which alcohol can be metabolised is equivalent to one:
A. Drink every 15 minutes
B. Drink every 30 minutes
C. Drink every hour
D. Drink every 2 hours
Drink every hour
Hyperventilation is likely to result in:
A. A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels
B. Severe headaches and vomiting
C. Sinus pain and discomfort in middle ear
D. Lightheadedness associated with an increase in carbon dioxide levels
A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels
Abdominal pain caused by an expansion in gases within the body is most likely to be associated with:
A. Rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft
B. Rapid descent in high performance unpressurised aircraft
C. Rapid climb in high performance pressurised aircraft
D. Rapid descent in high performance pressurised aircraft
Rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft
At an altitude of 18,000ft, the atmospheric pressure is approximately:
A. One third of its sea level
B. One half of its sea level
C. Two thirds of its sea level
D. One tenth of its sea level
One half of its sea level
At a depth of 30ft, the underwater pressure is closest to:
A. 1.5x normal sea level pressure
B. 2x normal sea level pressure
C. 3x normal sea level pressure
D. Half normal sea level pressure
2x normal sea level pressure
Antihistamines are commonly found in cold and flu medications. Their side affects include:
A. Severe headaches
B. Sleeplessness
C. Blurred vision
D. Drowsiness
Drowsiness
Decompression sickness (the bends) is caused by:
A. Difficulty experienced in breathing under the high ambient pressure which occurs in deep water
B. The excess oxygen which dissolves the blood during a deep dive
C. The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water
D. Cramps caused by the low ambient temperature which occurs in deep water
The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water
A scuba diver has completed a dive which required decompression stops but was less than 4 hours. The minimum recommended period before flying is:
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
12 hours
Which would be an appropriate way to combat the effects of hyperventilation:
A. Breathe more rapidly
B. Make a conscious effort to slow down breathing rate
C. Take deep breath and hold it
D. Breathe more deeply
Make a conscious effort to slow down breathing rate
Which is most likely to reduce the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?
A. High blood pressure
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Obesity
D. Use of analgesics
Cigarette smoking
After heavy drinking, even though the blood alcohol level has returned to 0, some deterioration in physical and mental performance is likely to persist for up to:
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
24 hours
Hyperventilation is caused by:
A. Too much carbon dioxide in the air
B. Too much carbon monoxide in the air
C. Breathing too fast or too deep for the body’s requirement
D. Holding the breath too long
Breathing too fast or too deep for the body’s requirement
To which drug family does alcohol belong:
A. Stimulants
B. Depressants
C. Sedatives
D. Analgesics
Depressants
For how many hours after ingestion can alcohol be detected in the brain?
A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
24 hours
*Brain for 24 hours
*Blood for 14 hours
Alcohol can still be detected in the blood:
A. 14 hours after ingestion
B. 14 hours after blood alcohol level has reached 0.05
C. 24 hours after ingestion
D. 24 hours after blood alcohol level has reached 0.05
14 hours after ingestion
*Brain for 24hrs
*Blood for 14hrs
Which would be an appropriate remedy for someone suffering the effects of hyperventilation:
A. Hold your breath for 40 seconds
B. Breathe into a paper bag
C. Increase the rate and depth of breathing
D. Use a nasal decongestant
Breathe into a paper bag
If you have to take sleeping tablets, how much time should be allowed before flying:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. None if they provide a good nights sleep
D. 8 hours
24 hours
If a scuba dive required decompression stops during ascent and was more than 4 hours duration, they would need:
A. Rest at sea level of 24 hours before flying
B. Rest at sea level of 48 hours before flying
C. Rest at sea level of 12 hours before flying
D. Rest at sea level of 6 hours before flying
Rest at sea level of 48 hours before flying
The minimum time before alcohol consumption and taking off is:
A. 8 hours which is about right for all levels of intoxication
B. 12 hours which is sufficient if 0.05 has not been exceeded
C. 10 hours which is very conservative
D. 8 hours which may not be sufficient in many cases
8 hours which may not be sufficient in many cases
Symptoms of hyperventilation include:
A. Tingling or numbness in the hands and feet
B. Pain in the middle ear
C. Blue colouration in lips and fingernails
D. Sinus pain
Tingling or numbness in the hands and feet
Pilot completed a scuba dive of 5 hours to 40ft depth where compression stops were required on the way up. The recommended rest at sea level before a flight at cabin altitude of 6000ft is:
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
48 hours
While flying, a pilot suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection is liable to:
A. Be more susceptible to hypoxia
B. Become spatially disoriented
C. Suffer from pressure vertigo
D. Suffer from cyanosis
Suffer from pressure vertigo
*Pressure vertigo is dizziness caused by pressure affecting the ears balance mechanism
If you become aware of any changes in your medical condition that indicates you no longer meet the relevant medical standard:
A. You must exercise extreme caution to ensure you do not become incapacitated
B. You many continue to fly, as soon as practicable advise CASA of the change
C. Cannot fly until you have undertaken a full medical examination
D. You may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a DAME
You may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a DAME
The maximum period which the flight crew licence holder can suffer an impairment of efficiency relating to an act authorised by the licence without DAME certification that the impairment no longer exists is:
A. 30 days for private or commercial pilots
B. 7 days private pilots
C. 30 days for commercial pilots
D. 7 days for commercial pilots
7 days for commercial pilots
After a 3 hour session of diving, with decompression stops, the minimum recommended time before you fly again is:
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
12 hours
During a climb, expanding gases are most likely to cause severe pain and discomfort when trapped in the:
A. Stomach
B. Large bowel
C. Small bowel
D. Lungs
Small bowel
Select the statement which is most true for the use of analgesics:
A. They may not be used by pilots under any circumstances
B. They may only be used after getting clearance from a DAME
C. They may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief
D. They may be used by pilots without restrictions
They may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief
The upper limit of alcohol intake on standard drinks over a period of one week is:
A. 20 for men and 14 for women
B. 28 for men and 21 for women
C. 32 for me and 28 for women
D. 40 for men and 20 for women
28 for men and 21 for women
One of the functions of the outer ear is to:
A. Prevent the pilots cap from slipping down their eyes
B. Mediate sense of balance
C. Protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects and dust etc
D. Equalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum
Protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects and dust etc
It is always advisable to check with a DAME before taking:
A. Any over the counter medication
B.Any prescribed medication
C. Any over the counter or prescribed medication
D. Any blood pressure medication
Any over the counter or prescribed medication
Which of the following is a function of the middle ear:
A. To protect the eardrum from foreign bodies
B. To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea
C. To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses
D. To assist in maintaining the sense of balance
To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea
*Middle ear is eardrum, hammer, anvil and stirrup - connects to the throat via Eustachian tube
*The cochlea processes vibrations, converting them to electrical signals which go to the brain
What’s the function of the inner ear:
A. To protect the eardrum from foreign bodies
B. To amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum to transfer them to the cochlea
C. To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses
D. To assist in maintaining the sense of balance
To convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses
*Inner ear is cochlea and semi-circular canals
Which of the following serves to detect the loudness and pitch of sound by converting the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses:
A. The cochlea
B. The semicircular canals
C. The hammer, anvil and stirrup
D. The vestibular system
The cochlea
Which mediates the sense of balance:
A. The cochlea
B. The semicircular canals
C. The hammer, anvil and stirrup
D. The Eustachian tube
The semicircular canals
As a rough guide, hearing protection should be worn if the ambient noise levels are such that it is necessary to conduct a conversation over a distance of:
A. 10m
B. 5m
C. 3m
D. 0.5m
0.5m
Deterioration of hearing caused by exposure to loud noise usually occurs first:
A. In the high frequency range above normal speech
B. In the frequency range of normal speech, 300-5000Hz
C. In the frequency range below normal speech
D. Across the whole range of audible frequencies
In the high frequency range above normal speech
A decibel dB is a unit used to measure:
A. Frequency or pitch of sound
B. Intensity or loudness of sound
Intensity or loudness of sound
A Hz Hertz is used to measure:
A. Frequency or pitch of sound
B. Intensity or loudness of sound
Frequency or pitch of sound
Continuous exposure to high noise levels in the cockpit should be avoided:
A. The effect is cumulative and can eventually lead to deafness
B. Stress levels can are increased and concentration levels are decreased
C. General performance and efficiency is reduced
D. All of the above
All of the above
What is the minimum intensity of a noise that would result in sensation of pain to the ears?
A. 85 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 140 dB
D. 160 dB
140 would cause pain
What is the minimum noise level that would mar the onset of temporary or permanent deafness after prolonged exposure?
A. 85 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 140 dB
D. 160 dB
85 dB prolonged for hearing loss
What is the function of the Eustachian tube?
A. Connects the middle ear to the outer ear
B. Connects middle ear to the inner ear
C. Connects middle ear to the throat
D. Connects inner ear to the throat
Connects middle ear to the throat
Hearing loss to long term exposure to high noise levels is usually first noticed in the loss of sensitivity to:
A. High frequency sounds
B. Low frequency sounds
C. Medium frequency sounds
D. All frequencies of sounds
High frequencies disappear first
Above which dB is hearing protection recommended to be worn:
A. 85dB
B. 110dB
C. 140dB
D. 160dB
85dB
Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when the Eustachian tube is blocked?
A. Outer ear
B. Middle ear
C. Inner ear
D. Ear lobe
Middle ear
If a head cold causes a blockage in the Eustachian tube, where is the blockage most likely to occur:
A. At the top where the tube enters the middle ear
B. At the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage
C. In the centre where the tube is narrowest
D. In any location where the tube bends
At the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage
Which component of the inner ear senses changes in speed with constant direction (linear acceleration):
A. Semi circular canals
B. Otolith organ
C. Eardrum
D. Cochlea
Otolith
*Linear = otolith
*Angular = semicircular canals
When established in a balanced level turn at constant bank angle, the hair lie cells of the semicircular canals will be:
A. Deflected in the position of the turn
B. Deflected in the opposite direction of the turn
C. In the rest position with no deflection
D. Waving back and forth
In the rest position with no deflection
The term frequency when applied to sound is most closely related to:
A. The number of pressure waves arriving at the ear in each second
B. The strength of the pressure waves
C. The loundness of the sound
D. The tone of the sound
The number of pressure waves arriving at the ear each second
Minimum noise levels which would cause a person temporary or permanent hearing loss with exposure to sustained levels is:
A. 85
B. 110
C. 140
D. 160
85 dB
The organ which provides a person with a sense of balance is:
A. Accelerometome
B. eustachian Tube
C. Cochlea
D. Semicircular canals
Semi-circular canals
During constant angular acceleration, the hair like sensors (cupula) in the semicircular canals are:
A. Upright zero deflection
B. Tilted in the direction of the turn
C. Tilted in the opposite direction of the turn
D. Oscillating
Upright, zero deflection
Hyperventilation is caused by:
A. Too much carbon monoxide in the air
B. Too much carbon dioxide in the air
C. Breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity
D. Breathing pure O2 when not necessary
Breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity
The part of the ear which converts sounds to nerve impulses is the:
A. Semicircular canals
B. Eustachian tube
C. Eardrum
D. Cochlea
Cochlea
Cochlea is part of the inner ear, it processes vibrations, converts them to electrical signals which proceed to the brain to be interpreted as sound
The part of the ear which acts as a linear accelerometer is the:
A. Stirrup
B. Anvil
C. Cochlea
D. Otolith
Otolith
*Otolith = linear
*Semicircular canals = angular
Temporary or permanent hearing loss can be caused by sustained noise exposure at levels:
A. Above 120 dB
B. of 60 dB or greater
C. typically found in the cockpit of light aircraft
D. Above 140 dB
Typically found in the cockpit of light aircraft - above 85 dB
Exposure to sustained high noise levels:
A. Is distracting only
B. Is distracting and fatiguing but only likely to cause temporary hearing loss
C. May cause permanent hearing loss
D. Is irritating and distracting but unlikely to be fatiguing
May cause temporary or permanent hearing loss
A guide to when hearing protection should be worn is:
A. If you have to yell from 5m away
B. If you can’t hear a whisper from 0.5m away
C. If you can’t hear a normal conversation from 2m away
D. If you need to yell to be heard 0.5m away
If you need to yell to be heard 0.5m away
Hearing loss due to long term exposure to high noise intensity levels usually initially affects:
A. Detection of high frequency sounds
B. Detection of low frequency sounds
C. All frequencies equally
D. Middle frequency sounds
Detection of high frequency sounds
It is strongly advised that hearing protection such as good quality headset should be worn:
A. During takeoff
B. During landing
C. During preflight inspections and throughout the flight
D. At all times during flight
At all times during flight
The function of the hammer, anvil and stirrup is to transfer vibrations from:
A. Middle ear to inner ear
B. Outer ear to middle ear
C. Middle ear to ear drum
D. Ear drum to inner ear
Ear drum to the inner ear
*Eardrum, hammer, anvil and stirrup is the middle ear
Eardrum - to the hammer - to the anvil - to the stirrup
Strirrup connects to the cochlea
The ciliary muscles in the eye:
A. Alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances
B. Move the eye from left to right in the socket
C. Move the eyelids to produce blinking
D. Change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye
Alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances
When light passes through the lens, it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the:
A. Retina
B. Optic nerve
C. Cornea
D. Iris
Retina
The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as:
A. Rods which are sensitive to colour and cones which work best in dim light
B. Cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light
C. Rods and cones which respond equally to all lighting conditions
D. Rods and cones which are both responsible for colour vision
Cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light
*Cones = colour
Rods = light
The blind spot is:
A. The area of the lens which is screened by the iris
B. The black spot in the centre of the coloured section of the eye
C. At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina
D. An area on the cornea which does not respond to light
At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina
If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be:
A. 3 mins
B. 5 mins
C. 15 mins
D. 30 mins
30 mins
Prolonged exposuree to bright glare such as beach or snow can cause a significant reduction in night vision for up to:
A. 12hrs
B. 1 day
C. 1 week
D. 1 month
1 week
Empty field myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. This causes the eye to take up a focal length of:
A. 1-2m
B. 6m
C. Infinity
D. 25m
1-2m
The maximum distance at which a healthy eye in good lighting and contrast could identify a circle 1m in diameter is approx:
A. 1km
B. 5km
C. 2nm
D. 500m
2nm
The perception of colour is a function of the:
A. Cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting
B. Rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting
C. Cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions
D. Rods on the retina and is diminished inn bright lighting conditions
Cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting
In level flight, a collision risk exists if a converging aircraft viewed from your cockpit appears to be:
A. On the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen
B. Below the horizon and moving closer to the centre of your windscreen
C. On the horizon and moving away from the centre of your windscreen
D. On the horizon
On the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen
The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to:
A. Move the head in a continuous arc from side to side
B. Keep the head still and move the eyes continuously from side to side
C. Do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement
D. Move the head 10-15 degrees at a time, pausing after each movement to allow peripheral vision to detect any movement
Move the head 10-15 degrees at a time, pausing after each movement to allow peripheral vision to detect any movement
Night vision is enhanced by:
A. Looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view
B. Fixing your gaze directly on the object you wish to view
C. Ensuring the cockpit remains brightly lit
D. Drinking lots of carrot juice
Looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view
After being exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation (night vision) returns after a recovery period of about:
A. 30 mins
B. 1 hr
C. 2 mins
D. 10 mins
30 - 40 mins
For a pilot who is exposed to high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), what would help to enhance night vision:
A. Do not read small print within one hour of flying
B. Wear good quality sunglasses throughout the day
C. Avoid using contact lenses
D. Keep the cockpit lighting as bright as possible until just before takeoff
Wear good quality sunglasses throughout the day
Night vision is extremely sensitive to any reduction of oxygen supply to the retina. The lowest level at which night vision starts to be affected by is:
A. 2000ft
B. 4000ft
C. 10,000ft
D. 15,000ft
4000ft
True or false:
The most effective method for scanning the sky for other aircraft is to move the head to scan small sectors allowing the eyes to stop regularly through the scan whilst focusing on the horizon
True
What is the limit of resolution for a person with good vision at a distance of 2nm?
A. A circle with a diameter of 0.5m
B. A circle with a diameter of 1m
C. A circle with a diameter of 2m
D. A circle with a diameter of 3m
1m diameter circle
Which of the following is a natural consequence of ageing:
A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Hyperopia
D. Presbyopia
Presbyopia = old
*Astigmatism = distortion
Myopia = short
Hyperopia = long
Which of the following would have the most detrimental effect on the pilots forward vision with a dirty and scratched windscreen:
A. Flying beneath a thick overcast of cloud
B. Flying above a thick overcast of cloud
C. Flying away from the setting sun
D. Landing into a low sun
Landing into a low sun
Heavy rain may have the effect of making objects viewed through the windscreen:
A. Further away than they are
B. Closer than they are
C. Larger than they are
D. Brighter than they are
Further away than they are
To avoid the possibility of the eyes taking up a resting position when in flying conditions without visual texture, it’s recommended to:
A. Stare at the horizon
B. Periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip
C. Blink regularly
D. Fixate at infinity
Periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip
To avoid an aircraft moving into the visual blind spot in a pilots field of view, it’s recommended to:
A. Move the head as well as the eyes
B. Move the eyes only
C. Close one eye when scanning
D. Not rely on see and avoid for separation
Move the head as well as the eyes
While night flying the pilot of a passenger aircraft is exposed to the momentary flash of a match in the cabin. Full dark readaptation will take:
A. <5mins
B. about 30mins
C. 10-15mins
D. >1hr
About 30-40 mins
Flicker vertigo is a condition which may occur during flight in a helicopter due to the strobe effect of light through the rotor disc. It may lead to:
A. A feeling of excessive speed
B. Disorientation
C. An over alert state of mind
D. A state of total relaxation
Disorientation
Night vision may be assisted by:
A. Avoiding dark rooms during the day
B. Avoiding the use of sunglasses during the day
C. Avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses
D. Avoiding the use of a hat when out in bright sunshine
Avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses
Night vision is enhanced by looking slightly off centre. This is due to:
A. The concentration of rods in the foveal periphery
B. The concentration of cones in the foveal periphery
C. The concentration of cones in the retinal periphery
D. The concentration of rods in the retinal periphery
The concentration of rods in the retinal periphery
When scanning the horizon for traffic, the pilot should:
A. Move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements
B. Move the head smoothly and continuously with many long pauses between eye movements
C. Move the head smoothly with pauses and many long pauses between eye movements
Move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements
When visually scanning, the saccade/rest cycle duration is:
A. 1 second
B. 0.3 second
C. 0.1 second
D. 0.7 second
0.3 second
The anatomical part of the eye which focuses the visual image onto the retina is:
A. Fovea
B. Iris
C. Lens
D. Maculus lutea
Lens
*Fovea = on the retina used for fine detail
Iris = coloured part of the eye which changes shape to respond to intensity of the light
Lens = works with cornea to put images on the retina
The eye adapts to changes in ambient lighting intensity by adjusting:
A. The iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina
B. The shape of the lens with the ciliary muscles
C. The cornea and the shape of the lens
D. The position of the rods and cones
The iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina
Light is focused onto the retina by the action of:
A. The lens only
B. The cornea and the lens
C. The cornea only
D. The cornea and the iris
The cornea and the lens
*Lens = works with cornea to put images on the retina
The brain perceives the body’s orientation in space by:
A. Processing information from the eyes (visual cues)
B. Processing information from the inner ear (vestibular cues)
C. Processing information from the skeletal muscles and joints (postural cues)
D. Combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues
Combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues
In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from:
A. Eyes
B. Inner ear
C. Middle ear
D. Proprioceptive system
Eyes
Which of the following is most likely to cause disorientation:
A. A change in the information coming from the inner ear
B. A conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues
C. Poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received
D. A rapid transition from level flight to steep climb
A conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues
In the absence of reliable visual information, which of the following states of motion would be most difficult to differentiate:
A. A steep turn and rapid deceleration in level flight
B. Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a dive
C. Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
D. Rapid deceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
Rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
The most effective way to deal with disorientation in flight is to:
A. Keep a constant look out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside
B. Rely absolutely on the aircrafts instruments
C. Keep the control column central and maintain constant power
D. Disregard the instrument indications and fly by feel until it passes
Rely absolutely on the aircrafts instruments
The leans is a state of disorientation which occurs when:
A. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is below that threshold
B. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is below that threshold
C. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold
D. The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold
The rate of onset of initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilots correction to a level attitude is above that threshold
The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It’s most likely to occur when:
A. The head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B. The head is bowed forwardly rapidly during instrument flight
C. A rapid deceleration occurs during level flight
D. An aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
The head is bowed forwardly rapidly during instrument flight
*Coriolis illusion is when a sudden change in fluid flow within the canals sends confusing signals to the brain
The somatogravic illusion (falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered:
A. During a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
B. Just after the transition from instrument to visual flight
C. During an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
D. During and just after takeoff in a high performance aeroplane on a dark night
During and just after takeoff in a high performance aeroplane on a dark night
*Somatogravic illusion = acceleration can be mistaken for a steep climb and the pilot may respond by lowering the nose, same in descent
When an aircraft is performing a shallow turn during instrument flight, a common illusion is:
A. A sensation of being banked int he opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to level
B. A sensation of remaining banked in the turn when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
C. A sensation of climbing when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
D. A sensation of diving when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
A sensation of being banked int he opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to level attitude
