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TEXT--Operations Flashcards

1
Q

THIS plan includes…

(1) Short and long-term priorities
(2) Agency goals/policies
(3) FACILITY ASSESSMENT data
(4) Agency INVENTORIES
(5) SOCIODEMOGRAPHIC DATA
(6) Asset DEFICIENCIES
(p. 73)

A

Comprehensive Plan (Think SWOT)

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2
Q

THIS type of plan is a subset of the Comprehensive Plan and includes…

(1) Focus on SPECIFIC PHYSICAL ASSETS, including land use and park/facility DEVELOPMENT PLANS
(2) Typically UPDATED EVERY 10 YRS
(3) Data-driven
(p. 73)

A

Master Plan (Think 10-year master development plan)

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3
Q

THIS type of plan includes…

(1) DEVELOPMENT/REVISION OF AGENCY MISSION/VISION
(2) Assessment of internal/external ISSUES/TRENDS derived from data
(3) List of mission-driven GOALS/OBJECTIVES
(4) Plan for achieving goals/objectives
(p. 73)

A

Strategic Plan (Think strategic, mission-driven goals/objectives)

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4
Q

Reviewing an agency’s schedule of _______ debt is crucial in assisting with capital improvement programs. (p. 74)

A

Outstanding bonded

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5
Q

A schedule of outstanding bonded debt often includes what 5 things? (p. 74)

A

(1) Description of all debt issued by agency
(2) Purpose for issuing debt
(3) Issue date and maturity dates
(4) Amount outstanding at end of FY
(5) Amount of principal and interest to be paid in upcoming FY

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6
Q

A _______ schedule lists agency parks/facilities/major equipment and should be considered part of a long-term (> 5 yrs) financial plan to forecast spending. (p. 74)

A

Capital Outlays

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7
Q

When working with contractors/concessionaires, a contract should be developed outlining what 3 things? (p. 74)

A

Scope of duty
Agency oversight
Performance standards

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8
Q

When monitoring performance of contractors/concessionaires, THIS approach considers reports submitted by the contractor/concessionaire on topics such as number of programs, attendance, revenue/expenses, problems, accomplishments, and future activities. (p. 76)

A

Progress report review

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9
Q

When monitoring performance of contractors/concessionaires, THIS approach utilizes a rating instrument with space provided to comment on quality/quantity of services. This approach may be carried out with/without the contractor’s knowledge by internal or external staff or volunteers (p. 76)

A

Inspections

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10
Q

When monitoring performance of contractors/concessionaires, THIS approach requires seeking/addressing complaints. (p. 76)

A

Complaint review

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11
Q

When monitoring performance of contractors/concessionaires, THIS approach requires collecting user surveys on perceived program quantity/quality (p. 76)

A

End user satisfaction review

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12
Q

INTERNAL customer service is facilitated by what 4 things? (p. 78)

A

(1) Provide info needed to do the job
(2) Convey agency values to staff
(3) Coordination of organizational systems (aiding in effective internal communication)
(3) Crisis communication procedures

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13
Q

In delivering EXTERNAL customer service, it is important to remember these 3 elements influencing customer quality perceptions. (p. 78)

A

(1) Expectations (perceived agency reputation, prior experiences, marketing materials, and word-of-mouth)
(2) Relationship between expectations and actual experience
(3) Post-experience reflection

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14
Q

Successful EXTERNAL customer service training should include what 5 things? (p. 78)

A

(1) Environment promoting agency commitment/support among employees
(2) Clearly defined customer base (customer’s facility, services, and expectations should be reviewed)
(3) Eval of current service quality in all service areas
(4) Development of a service improvement plan (including objectives, performance standards, etc.)
(5) Continual monitoring/assessment of service levels among customers and staff

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15
Q

Name 5 registration methods. (p. 79)

A

(1) Walk-in
(2) Mail-in
(3) Telephone
(4) Fax-in
(5) Web-based

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16
Q

The EPA encourages agencies to implement waste reduction procedures through what 3 practices? (p. 82)

A

(1) Waste prevention (agency produces less wast/toxic waste)
(2) Recycling
(3) Composting

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17
Q

What are the 14 best practices the US Dept of Energy encourages agencies to adopt? (p. 83)

A

(1) Energy efficiency goals in strategic plan
(2) Energy management plan (purchasing clean energy, replacing old equipment/systems, and operating energy consuming equipment properly)
(3) Energy accounting system (locates areas for saving/ measures success)
(4) Adequate qlty/qnty maintenance staff
(5) Ongoing staff training
(6)

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18
Q

What are the 14 best practices the US Dept of Energy encourages agencies to adopt? (p. 83)

A

(1) Energy efficiency goals in strategic plan
(2) Energy management plan
(3) Energy accounting system (locates areas for saving/measures success)
(4) Adequate maintenance staff
(5) Ongoing staff training
(6) Contracts addressing energy efficiency
(7) Equipment use/maintenance documentation
(8) Diagnostic tools to address maintenance needs
(9) Regular assessments of operation/maintenance practices
(10) Understanding of equipment’s automatic control features
(11) Turn off lights/equipment when possible
(12) Track major equipment performance and compare to expectations

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19
Q

According to the the US Dept of Energy, an agency energy management plan should include what 3 things? (p. 83)

A

(1) Purchasing clean energy
(2) Replacing old equipment/systems
(3) Operating energy-consuming equipment properly

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20
Q

What does “LEED” stand for? Who established it and when? (p. 85)

A

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design; est. by the US Green Building Council in 1993

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21
Q

Depending upon the external review, sites may be eligible for one of what 3 levels of LEED certification? (p. 85)

A

Silver, gold, or platinum

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22
Q

Completed at scheduled intervals or in response to facility user requests, THESE are activities that preserve/improve the appearance of a facility or equipment. (p. 86)

A

Routine maintenance

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23
Q

Stripping and waxing floors, painting walls, changing furnace filters, adjusting doors, and changing light bulbs in difficult locations are all examples of… (p. 86)

A

Routine maintenance

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24
Q

Routine maintenance is often driven by what 3 things? (p. 86)

A

(1) Seasons
(2) Experience
(3) User preference

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25
Q

THIS is a form memorandum requesting specific maintenance services. (p. 87)

A

Work order

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26
Q

Name 4 ways landscaping can promote programming/facility? (p. 87)

A

(1) Enhance attractiveness, inviting users to come in
(2) Channel people along pathways
(3) Contribute to user safety
(5) Disguise human-made structures

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27
Q

T/F Unless the design goal is to create a formal, landscaped area, landscaping should support, not dictate, program efforts. (p. 87)

A

True

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28
Q

THIS is undertaken to prolong the life of equipment, result in fewer equipment failures with resulting loss of service, better utilize maintenance staff, and lower maintenance costs. (p. 87)

A

Preventative maintenance

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29
Q

The frequency of a preventative maintenance program depends on what 3 factors? (p. 87)

A

(1) Equipment nature
(2) Equipment cost
(3) Equipment importance (in relation to service delivery)

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30
Q

One of the 1st steps in working with a contractor is to prepare WHAT? (p. 88)

A

Bids

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31
Q

What are the 2 most important elements in contracting for constructor or maintenance? (p. 88)

A

(1) Ensure the work can be performed at a level delineated in the contract
(2) Ensure projected is purchased at the lowest measurable cost

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32
Q

THESE are accurate, scaled depictions of the dimensions/angles of a proposed park or facility. (p. 88)

A

Site plans

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33
Q

Most site plans include what 6 things? (p. 88)

A

(1) Locations of proposed structures
(2) Current/future grades and drainage direction
(3) Ground elevations
(4) Location of any easements (e.g. utility company easements)
(5) Proposed modifications
(6) Renderings of facilities, natural areas, infrastructure, etc.

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34
Q

What are the 2 types of opening and closing inspection checklists? (p. 89)

A

Daily and seasonal

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35
Q

In some facilities, THIS is developed to provide systematic surveillance of an area. (p. 90)

A

Operations checklist

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36
Q

An operations checklist commonly includes what 4 things? (p. 90)

A

(1) Periodic inspection of high-use areas
(2) Take down/setup of activity equipment
(3) Emergency cleanups
(4) Systematically walk facility to create supervisory presence; observe safety hazards, patron behaviors, equipment use

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37
Q

THIS is the practice of reducing or preventing personal injury or financial loss through the implementation of safety/security practices. (p. 90)

A

Risk management

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38
Q

Who is responsible for developing/administering a risk management plan? (p. 90)

A

ALL staff

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39
Q

THIS element of a risk management plan ensures conformance to national, state, and local standards for facilities including fire, emergency, and building codes. (p. 91)

A

Safe sites/facilities

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40
Q

THIS element of a risk management plan involves ensuring frontline staff are qualified and prepared to adhere to acceptable standards of program delivery. (p. 91)

A

Safe programs

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41
Q

THIS element of a risk management involves identifying what should be inspected and how frequently, and then creating checklists and procedures for reporting maintenance problems. (p. 91)

A

Safety inspections/investigations

42
Q

THIS element of a risk management involves recording and monitoring all accidents in an objective manner, providing a reference for trends and necessary changes. (p. 91)

A

Accident reporting/analysis

43
Q

THIS element of a risk management involves ensuring staff receive 1st aid/CPR/AED training, requiring medical checks for participants enrolled in high-risk activities, placing 1st-aid kits in all facilities and with off-site staff–accompanied by instructions, and making arrangements for emergency phone use at all activity areas. (p. 91)

A

Emergency procedures

44
Q

THIS element of a risk management involves obtaining participant signatures on statements of fact describing the roles and responsibilities of park/rec agencies and participants. (p. 91)

A

Proper releases/waivers/agreements

45
Q

In parks/rec, what 6 things should be addressed in a risk management plan? (p. 90-92)

A

(1) Safe sites/facilities
(2) Safe programs
(3) Safety inspections/investigations
(4) Accident reporting/analysis
(5) Emergency procedures
(6) Proper releases/waivers/agreements

46
Q

Program realeases and waivers include what 5 components? (p. 92)

A

(1) The activity nature/potential risk
(2) Agreement to obey specified rules/regulations
(3) Acknowledgement that the participant is phyisically fit to participate
(4) Clear language to ensure signer undertstands
(5) Signature space for someone 18+, or not considered a minor (depends on state)

47
Q

THIS document is often used with minors, and includes instruction for parents to discuss rules of conduct with their children. (p. 92)

A

Agreement to participate

48
Q

T/F With all releases/waivers/agreements, admissibility in court varies from state to state, but experts agree well-written waivers provide some protection from lawsuites. (p. 92)

A

True

49
Q

Name 3 risk management steps to prepare for weather-related threats. (p. 92)

A

(1) Install warning devices in areas with history of extreme weather (sirens, flashing lights, etc.)
(2) Develop relationship with local media to broadcast warnings
(3) Provide signage warning visitors of risk/describing what to do in extreme weather

50
Q

Name 1 risk management step to shield participants from threats from plants/animals. (p. 92)

A

Staff should communicate possible plant/animal dangers involved at the site and provide safety guidelines

51
Q

Name 3 risk management steps to prepare for societal threats. (p. 92)

A

(1) Police/security presence, when appropriate
(2) Electronic surveillance
(3) Effective lighting
(4) Emergency procedures for terrorist acts
(5) Coordinate events with large crowds, celebrities, or politicians with local, state, and/or federal law enforcement; in these cases, security gates and visitor search procedures should be employed

52
Q

Routine inspections should be executed to facilitate facility safety and security. Describe 4 things you should do when developing routine inspections. (p. 93)

A

(1) Determine what to inspect/how often
(2) Consistently conduct inspections
(3) Develop standard inspection checklists for all facilities
(4) Implement a system that monitors/reports maintenance problems

53
Q

Carefully documented equipment/facility inspection schedules are evidence of reasonable care. Inspection ______ should be kept on file. (p. 93)

A

Duplicate copies

54
Q

Name/describe 6 preventative safety/securing measures. (p. 93)

A

(1) Lock and key security–key issuance/return policy; exterior gates for increased security
(2) Fencing–can help park visitor safety, direct traffic, prevent accidents
(3) Fire protection–adhering to state and local fire codes
(4) Safety items–fire extinguishers, AEDs, 1st aid, weather radios, CO2 alarms, etc.
(5) Signs/symbols–informing visitors of security issues
(6) Illumination–adequate lighting reduces crime

55
Q

Name 3 potential responses to “premises defects.” (p. 94)

A

(1) Complete work order
(2) Keep the public isolated from the hazard
(3) Close facility until repairs are complete

56
Q

What does “MSDS” stand for? (p. 94)

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

57
Q

What is a Material Safety Data Sheet? (p. 94)

A

An info source that manufacturers of hazardous chemicals are required to provide for each chemical they produce

58
Q

What 4 things does a Material Safety Data Sheet contain? (p. 94)

A

(1) Chemical storage requirements
(2) Exposure 1st aid procedures
(3) How to safely flush the chemical off skin and eyes
(4) How to deal with spills/extinguish chemical if it catches fire

59
Q

Name 8 considerations when developing hazardous materials handling procedures. (p. 94-95)

A

(1) Material types
(2) Storage (security)
(3) Inventory (shelf life; tracking/reporting)
(4) Application
(5) Public notification of application (often posted in advance)
(6) Special clothing
(7) Emergency procedures
(8) Future directions (plans to reduce environmental impact)

60
Q

What ADA title addresses public services? (p. 95)

A

Title II

61
Q

What is the federal agency responsible for developing accessibility design guidelines for indoor/outdoor recreation areas? (p. 95)

A

The Access Board

62
Q

Any facilities built or modified after ____ must be readily accessible for people with disabilties. (p. 96)

A

1992

63
Q

What does ADAAG stand for? (p. 96)

A

Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines

64
Q

What do the Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines (ADAAG) contain? (p. 96)

A

Standards/guidelines for new construction and building modifications

65
Q

According to ADAAG, what 2 types of barriers must be removed if their removal is readily achievable w/out much difficulty or expense? (p. 96)

A

Architectural and communication

66
Q

Name the 4 priorities, in order, for barrier removal that the Department of Justice recommends. (p. 96)

A

(1) Physical access to get in the door (from parking areas, sidewalks, etc.)
(2) Access to program/service areas
(3) Access to restrooms, water fountains, phones
(4) Other measures ensuring all may benefit from services

67
Q

Give 4 ways agencies may prepare to respond to emergencies. (p. 96)

A

(1) ID potential threats (via law enforcement)
(2) Create emergency ops plan (contact info/guidelines for various scenarios, including communicating with media)
(3) Evacuation plans (routes/meeting locations)
(4) Mail-handling precautions/protocols (LRN Alert 01-37, PDRMA.org)

68
Q

THESE reports are to be filed on all accidents in most agencies immediately following the accident. (p. 97)

A

Accident reports

69
Q

THESE reports are often required for all incidents, other than accidents with injuries; these may include customer complaints, records of behavior problems, etc. (p. 97)

A

Incident reports

70
Q

An itemized _________ of facilities and equipment, their replacement cost, and their condition provides you with a holistic picture of their present state and condition. (p. 97)

A

Inventory

71
Q

WHAT is the primary purpose of developing policies/procedures for maintenance/ops of a rec facility? (p. 97)

A

To enhance user safety

72
Q

Name 7 general responsibility areas that may be included in an operations policy manual. (p. 97)

A

(1) Security–opening/closing and emergency procedures, staff/participant safety policies, facility protection
(2) Staff–staff quantity/qualifications/hrs
(3) Utilization–proper/improper facility/equipment uses
(4) Inspection–descriptions/schedules/checklists; process to w/draw item from use in unsafe conditions
(5) Hazards–eliminating current/potential hazards
(6) Enforcement–process to enforce safety
(7) Special equipment–ops/maintenance procedures

73
Q

What are 3 ways rules/regulations differ from policies? (p. 99)

A

(1) More specific
(2) Dictate employees/participants actions
(3) More rigid: do NOT require interpretation of facts of a unique circumstance

74
Q

How do rules/regulations differ from procedures?

A

They outline chronological sequences of required actions

75
Q

T/F Policy, rules/regulations, and procedures are hierarchically arranged, but not all policies have further defining rules. (p. 99)

A

True

76
Q

Name 5 AGENCY benefits to establishing relationships with outside organizations. (p. 99/101)

A

(1) Better use of resources
(2) Enhanced efficiency
(3) Agency credibility/visibility
(4) Staff networking
(5) Qualifying for grants/other funding

77
Q

What are 4 common reasons inter-agency partnerships fail? (p. 100)

A

(1) Lack of communication
(2) Lack of partnership agreement evaluation
(3) Loss of resource control by one agency
(4) Lack of trust

78
Q

THIS method of communication engaged by some agencies provides speakers and/or programs on request for meetings of civic clubs, PTOs, or professional groups. These speakers discuss the organization and/or focus on a particular are of interest (like programs for people with disabilities. (p. 100)

A

Speakers bureau

79
Q

What are 3 purposes for holding public meetings? (p. 100)

A

(1) Inform public of specific items or changes
(2) Consult public on issues or garner reactions to policy changes
(3) Get public input on topics like building a new community center or determining community needs

80
Q

Name 3 methods used to communicate with the public. (p. 100)

A

(1) Speakers bureau
(2) Public meetings
(3) Employee relations (informing the “internal public” helps convey more accurate info to the external public)

81
Q

Give 3 examples of networking with related organizations. (p. 100)

A

(1) Frequent phone calls with employees of similar admin authority in other orgs
(2) Discussions with professionals at local professional orgs
(3) Monthly meetings of a community council/other (e.g. Chamber of Commerce) composed of community social service and/or park/rec personnel

82
Q

Name 2 PERSONAL benefits to establishing relationships with outside organizations. (p. 99/101)

A

(1) Friendships with staff in other agencies

(2) Personal/professional growth

83
Q

Name 3 PUBLIC benefits to establishing relationships with outside organizations. (p. 99/101)

A

(1) More needs met=better quality of life
(2) Expanded services
(3) Decreased service duplication

84
Q

What is the purpose of a “needs assessment?” (p. 101)

A

Provide accurate feedback on community attitudes, opinions, and perceptions of the agency’s resources

85
Q

What 2 conflicting management strategies are often at the core of a natural resource needs assessment? (p. 108)

A

(1) Development

(2) Conservation

86
Q

Assessing a natural resource area requires consideration of what 4 things? (p. 108)

A

(1) Environmental impact
(2) Access (appropriate placement of parking/other features; park distribution in various neighborhoods)
(3) Developmental features
(4) Maintenance/operation

87
Q

When conducting a needs assessment for facility/program development, you should focus data collection on what 8 areas? (p. 109)

A

(1) Demographics
(2) Current participation pattern/rate
(3) Attitudes/opinions of current users
(4) User barriers
(5) Future interests/needs
(6) Satisfaction with existing facilities/services
(7) Facility safety perceptions
(8) Suggestions for improvement

88
Q

THIS is the process of dividing a heterogeneous market into smaller homogenous groups with similar wants, needs, demographics, and response to the marketing mix (product, place, price, promotion). (p. 109)

A

Market segmentation

89
Q

THIS is the selecting of one or more market segments and focusing the marketing mix (product, place, price, promotion) on them. (p. 109)

A

Target marketing

90
Q

Viable target markets have what 3 qualities? (p. 109)

A

(1) Measurable
(2) Accessible
(3) Large enough to warrant separate attention

91
Q

**A park/rec agency IDs the acceptable level of maintenance through WHAT process? (p. 110)

A

Establishing of maintenance standards

92
Q

**A community park/rec master plan provides WHAT? (p. 110)

A

An inclusive framework for orderly planning

93
Q

**What is the most appropriate method for collecting user input that can be generalized to the community as a whole? (p. 110)

A

Needs assessment SURVEYS

94
Q

**What is the most reliable measure for scheduling routine or preventative maintenance, to track warranties, and to schedule the replacement of automobiles used by a park/rec agency? (p. 110)

A

Number of hours the motor has operated

95
Q

**What is the primary reason for conducting safety inspections? (p. 111)

A

To protect users from accident or injury

96
Q

**What is the primary benefit of developing policies/procedures for facility maintenance? (p. 111)

A

Enhance user safety

97
Q

**What are 3 park/rec threats that can be managed by properly implementing an emergency action plan? (p. 111)

A

(1) Weather
(2) Animals and plants
(3) Society

98
Q

**What is the best reason for conducting routine facility inspections? (p. 111)

A

Guarantee patron safety

99
Q

**Upon arrival to open a facility, a staff member finds that the door is open. What action should be taken first? (p. 112)

A

Call law enforcement

100
Q

**What is the highest level of LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) certification? (p. 112)

A

Platinum

CPRP (5 decks)

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