Test Questions SA

Question 1

What Is the FVRCP Cat Vaccine?

Answer 1

Combination Vaccine

• Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FHV-1)
• Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
• Feline Panleukopenia

Question 2

1. Minimum legal age for rabies vaccine in dog?
   
   1. 3 months
   2. 4 months
   3. 5 months
   4. 6 weeks

Answer 2

4 months

Question 3

1. Boston terrier comes in with a thick, mucoid discharge eye its eye. It is most likely:
   
   1. Corneal ulcer
   2. Foxtail
   3. KCS

Answer 3

KCS

is an extremely common eye condition diagnosed in Boston Terriers that is caused by a decrease in tear production in one or both eyes

Question 4

Mucocele in a dog. What should you do to treat this condition?

1. Incise the mucocele and place a drain
2. Aspirate the mucocele and place on systemic antibiotics
3. Remove the ipsilateral salivary gland
4. Remove the mucocoele and salivary gland

Answer 4

Remove the mucocoele and salivary gland

Question 5

1. A woman brings in her 8 week old shelter kitten. The kitten will be a strictly indoor cat. In addition to FVRCP at 8, 12 weeks and rabies at 12 weeks (4 months), what else do you recommend?
   
   1. Deworm based on fecal float results
   2. Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks
   3. FeLV vaccinate at 8, 12 weeks and deworm based on fecal float results
   4. Deworm every 2 weeks with pyrantel pamoate until 12 weeks

Answer 5

Deworm every 2 weeks with pyrantel pamoate until 12 weeks

Pyrantel pamoate (embonate) given orally is effective for removal and control of ascarid and hookworm infections in puppies and dogs (adult Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina, Ancylostoma tubaeforme, An. braziliense, Uncinaria stenocephala), cats (adult Toxocara cati, Toxa.

Question 6

1. Piperazine is used for control of what parasite?
   
   1. Hookworms
   2. Tapeworms
   3. Roundworms
   4. Flukes

Answer 6

Roundworms

Piperazine belongs to the family of medicines called anthelmintics. Anthelmintics are used in the treatment of worm infections. Piperazine is used to treat: common roundworms (ascariasis) and. pinworms (enterobiasis; oxyuriasis)

Question 7

1. Right ventricular hypertrophy caused by
   
   1. Heartworm disease
   2. Aortic stenosis
   3. Mitral regurgitation
   4. VSD

Answer 7

Heartworm disease

(the rest cause left sided ventricular hypertrophy)

Thoracic radiographs may reveal moderate disease such as dilated pulmonary arteries and right heart enlargement

Question 8

1. Cat comes in with pruritic lesions on ears, neck and face:
   
   1. Notoedres cati
   2. Otodectes cyanotic
   3. Cheyletiella
   4. Demodex

Answer 8

Notoedres cati

• Otodectes has lesions on the ears
• Cheyletiella leads to “walking dandruff”
• Demodex is NOT pruritic

Question 9

1. Cat that is PU/PD and has a plantigrade stance with difficulty jumping onto furniture. Most likely has what disease?
   
   1. Diabetes mellitus
   2. Hyperthyroid
   3. Cushings

Answer 9

Diabetes Mellitus

Cats with diabetic neuropathy display classic plantigrade stance (inability to stand upright in the tarsus) and hindlimb paresis. The neuropathy develops weeks to months after commencement of hyperglycaemic state. Associated signs of polyuria and polydipsia due to diabetes are invariably seen

Question 10

1. Pain management consideration for 1 yo OVH?
   
   1. Post-op parental morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
   2. Post-op parental butorphanol, followed up with oral butorphanol
   3. Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
   4. Pre and post-op butorphanol followed up with fentanyl patch

Answer 10

Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl

• Rimadyl is one of the brand names for the veterinary drug carprofen.
• Carprofen belongs to a group of drugs called NSAIDs

Question 11

1. Which is zoonotic?
   
   1. Yersinia pestis
   2. Babesia
   3. Neospora
   4. Neorickettsia helminotheca

Answer 11

Yersinia pestis

• Plague is a disease that affects humans and other mammals. It is caused by the bacterium, Yersinia pestis. Humans usually get plague after being bitten by a rodent flea that is carrying the plague bacterium or by handling an animal infected with plague

Question 12

1. Tech gets bit by cat in finger joint. In addition to cleaning and bandaging immediately, as supervising veterinarian, you should:
   
   1. Recommend that the tech see a physician
   2. Advise to keep bandage clean
   3. Start tech on antibiotics
   4. Something else like watch the finger for swelling

Answer 12

Recommend that the tech see a physician

Question 13

1. Indicator of poor response to therapy for EPI (exocrine Pancreatic insufficiency)?
   
   1. Increased appetite
   2. Increased stool
   3. Increased urine
   4. Increased activity

Answer 13

Increased appetite

Question 14

1. Pot-bellied, febrile kitten with a viscous fluid on abdominocentesis, diagnosis?
   
   1. Ascarids
   2. FIV
   3. FIP

Answer 14

FIP

Question 15

1. Middle aged standard poodle with pelvic limb lameness and swollen stifle
   
   1. Radiographs
   2. Joint tap
   3. Elicit a cranial drawer

Answer 15

Elicit cranial drawer

Question 16

1. 17 year old FS mixed breed dog with anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, USG=1.018. What else would you do next?
   
   1. Fundic exam
   2. Neuro exam
   3. Rectal exam
   4. Orthopedic exam

Answer 16

Rectal Exam

check for anal sac adenocarcinoma

A retrospective study of 43 dogs with anal sac adenocarcinoma (ASAC) was performed to characterize the clinical presentation and response to treatment. Clinical signs at presentation varied considerably, with signs related either to sublumbar nodal metastasis (tenesmus or constipation) or hypercalcemia (polyuria-polydipsia and anorexia) being the most frequent findings.

Question 17

1. What changes would you expect to see in a dog with pleural effusion?
   
   1. Stridor
   2. Wheezing
   3. Dyspnea
   4. Increased breath sounds

Answer 17

Dyspnea

• stridor (narrowing of upper airway) indicates laryngeal issues (like paralysis)
• Wheezing is from fluid filling the alveolar space

Question 18

1. 10 yo white outdoor DSH with chronic nasal discharge and facial rubbing. There are pink ulcerated masses at his ear tips and on his right nasal planum. What’s the most likely diagnosis?
   
   1. Upper respiratory infection
   2. SCC
   3. Notoedres Cati

Answer 18

SCC

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is a malignant cancer seen in a variety of locations in cats, including sparsely-haired areas of the skin (particularly the eyelids, nasal planum, and ears), as well as other locations within the body, such as the tonsils, under or on the tongue, mouth, esophagus, or lungs

Question 19

1. Bacteria most commonly associated with foxtail migration?
   
   1. Pasteurella
   2. Actinomyces pyogenes
   3. Mycobacterium
   4. Staphylococcus

Answer 19

Actinomyces pyogenes

Actinomycosis is an infection that can occur in dogs when microbes from the Actinomyces bacteria group penetrate the skin or body. The Actinomyces bacterium is naturally occurring in the mouth of dogs. However, when the bacteria penetrate the skin or enter the airways or body cavities, it can lead to a serious infection

Question 20

1. Toxoplasmosis is associated with which of these?
   
   1. Corneal ulcer; myositis
   2. Anterior uveitis; fever
   3. KCS; anemia
   4. Chemosis; arthritis

Answer 20

Anterior uveitis; fever

Toxoplasmosis is one of the most frequently identifiable causes of uveitis worldwide

Question 21

1. Acute ethylene glycol toxicity?
   
   1. Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
   2. Increased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis
   3. Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
   4. Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis

Answer 21

Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis

Question 22

1. What did a dog ingest causing it to get acute renal failure?

Answer 22

Ethylene glycol

Question 23

1. Why do you not want to vaccinate a pregnant bitch or queen?
   
   1. May cause fetal deformation and/or death
   2. May cause revision to a virulent form
   3. May cause fetal immunosuppression
   4. Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production

Answer 23

May cause fetal deformation and/or death

Question 24

1. What toxicosis does a bird get from a galvanized cage?
   
   1. Zinc
   2. Lead
   3. Copper
   4. Iron

Answer 24

Zinc

Question 25

1. A 2 yo lab has a chronic draining tract in the 11 o’clock position near the anus which as been non-responsive to antibiotic therapy. You most likely differential is:
   
   1. Foxtail
   2. Anal gland impaction
   3. Infected perianal hernia (would resolve with antibiotics)
   4. Anal sac adenocarcinoma (not usually a draining tract)

Answer 25

Foxtail

• an infected perianal hernia would resolve with antibiotics
• Anal sac adenocarcinomas do not usually a draining tract

Question 26

1. How do you restrain a bird to prevent injury to the patient?
   
   1. Hold beak and head
   2. Make sure the keel is freely moveable
   3. Keep legs tucked close to body
   4. Keep wings folded closely to the body

Answer 26

Make sure the keel is freely moveable

A keel or carina (plural carinae) in bird anatomy is an extension of the sternum (breastbone) which runs axially along the midline of the sternum and extends outward, perpendicular to the plane of the ribs

Question 27

1. A dobie presents with a right thoracic limb lameness. What diagnostic should be included in your initial work up?
   
   1. Lyme titer
   2. Chem panel
   3. Orthopedic examination
   4. Survey rads of the right thoracic limb

Answer 27

Orthopedic examination

Question 28

1. What is the treatment for warfarin toxicity in addition to vitamin K1?
   
   1. Fresh plasma
   2. Whole blood
   3. pRBCs
   4. Charcoal

Answer 28

Fresh plasma

The risk of haemorrhage increases with increasing intensity of anticoagulation and overanticoagulation is common. Reversal can be achieved by stopping the coumarin drug or administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma or coagulation factor concentrates.

Question 29

1. Complications caused by snake bite envenomation ultimately manifests as?
   
   1. Coagulopathy
   2. Cardiovascular
   3. Depression
   4. DIC

Answer 29

DIC

Question 30

1. You tested a cat with HW but it is asymptomatic. What is your recommendation?
   
   1. Don’t treat
   2. Treat with melarsomine
   3. Treat with ivermectin

Answer 30

Don’t treat - (risk of adverse effects doesn’t justify treatment)

DO NOT TREAT WITH MELOSARMINE!

• Melarsomine is an antiparasitic medication derived from an organic arsenic compound that is used in a veterinary hospital setting to treat dogs that are suffering from heartworm disease.
  
  • Melarsomine contains arsenic, which is the active ingredient that kills both the adult and immature (>4 months old) heartworms. After treatment with melarsomine, the patient should undergo cage rest for four to six weeks.
• Melarsomine is approved for use in dogs only. It never should be administered to cats or to other pets.
• the most-common side effects of melarsomine include pain, swelling, and tenderness at the injection site; fever, lethargy, a loss of appetite, vomiting, gagging, lung congestion, and depression
• More-severe side effects of melarsomine, although rare, include coughing up blood, diarrhea, excessive drooling and panting, and death. It is important to note that these signs can be directly related to treating heartworm disease and not necessarily the drug itself.

Question 31

1. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in rabbits and what is the appropriate treatment?
   
   1. Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline
   2. Salmonella, oral antibiotics
   3. Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics
   4. Coccidiosis; sulfadimethoxine

Answer 31

Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline

• salmonella is rare in rabbits
• for mucoid enteropathy –> diarrhea as a result of mixture of constipation, toxins and non-specific bacteria – need to increase fiber, not put on AB’s
• coccidiosis is usually subclinical

Question 32

1. What is the proper protocol for transferring radiographs from vet A to vet B?
   
   1. Vet A mails them directly to vet B with verbal consent of owner
   2. Owner verbally requests them from vet A and hand delivers to vet B
   3. Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B
   4. Vet obtains oral authorization from owner and mails them to vet B

Answer 32

Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B?? (not sure?)

Question 33

1. What information must be on the label of a non-controlled drug?
   
   1. Name and address of prescribing veterinarian
   2. Patient weight
   3. Patient’s condition
   4. Prescribing veterinarian’s license number

Answer 33

Name and address of prescribing veterinarian

Question 34

1. Cat that has difficulty jumping up onto furniture with poor haircoat. What is you next diagnostic step?
   
   1. FeLV/FIV test
   2. BG and urinalysis
   3. T4
   4. CBC

Answer 34

BG and urinalysis (ddx diabetes mellitus)

Something that can be unique to the diabetic cat (compared to affected dogs) is the significant change in their hair coat. Their coat may become dull, oily and develop flakes or “dandruff.” They may also develop loss of muscle mass, most notably along their back and rear legs.

Question 35

1. Your patient is a puppy with T=102.5, P=150, R=48. What is the cause?
   
   1. Left in hot car
   2. Normal
   3. Excited puppy

Answer 35

puppy’s temperature should always range between 99.5º and 102.5º

In general, all dogs and cats, with or without heart disease, have a breathing rate of between 15-30 breaths every minute (maybe a bit excited in this case?)

Small dogs and puppies normally have heart rates of 120 to 160 beats per minute

1. Normal

Question 36

1. You patient needs to have an ocular exam. What is the correct order of diagnostics?
   
   1. Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry ??
   2. Tonometry, fluoroscein dye, STT, procainamide

Answer 36

Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry

Question 37

1. What is the best method for diagnosing pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?
   
   1. Kidney histopathology
   2. BUN
   3. Liver histopathology
   4. AST

Answer 37

Liver histopathology

Typically, pyrrolizidine alkaloidosis is a chronic poisoning that results in hepatic failure

Question 38

1. What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in a dog?
   
   1. Carries
   2. Tooth pulp exposure (Fracture)
   3. Periodontal disease
   4. Tooth wear

Answer 38

Tooth pulp exposure (Fracture)

Endodontic Disease refers to infection or inflammation of the pulp of the tooth

Question 39

1. What is contraindicated in a dog with tick paralysis?
   
   1. Oxygen
   2. Vitamin K1
   3. Hyperimmune serum
   4. Fipronyl

Answer 39

Vitamin K1

• oxygen needed for repiratory distress, hyperimmune serum is tick antisreum, and fipronyl (frontline) is tick preventative
• Tick paralysis is a rapidly progressive motor paralysis caused by a toxin in the tick’s saliva that attacks the nervous system. Certain species of ticks are known to cause tick paralysis
• Early signs in affected dogs include change or loss of voice, lack of coordination of the hind legs, change in breathing rate and effort, gagging or coughing, vomiting, and dilated pupils. Signs occur 3–5 or 5–9 days after the tick attaches, depending on the type of tick involved
• The presence of a tick along with the sudden (within 12 to 24 hours) appearance of leg weakness and/or difficulty breathing is diagnostic.

Question 40

1. When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch?
   
   1. Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia
   2. 12-24 hours before sx
   3. 1-2 hours before sx
   4. 12-24 hours after sx

Answer 40

12-24 hours before sx

The primary use of the fentanyl patch is to provide a continuous delivery of pain reliever to a patient with on-going pain

Question 41

1. Which mycotic disease is most zoonotic?
   
   1. Histoplasmosis
   2. Blastomycosis
   3. Sporotrichosis
   4. Coccidioidomycosis

Answer 41

Sporotrichosis

• Sporotrichosis (also known as “rose gardener’s disease”) is an infection caused by a fungus called Sporothrix. This fungus lives throughout the world in soil and on plant matter such as sphagnum moss, rose bushes, and hay
• People get sporotrichosis by coming in contact with the fungal spores in the environment.

Question 42

1. Which species is reservoir for rabies in CA?
   
   1. Foxes
   2. Skunks and bats
   3. Raccoon
   4. Opposum

Answer 42

Skunks and bats

Any warm-blooded mammal can carry or contract rabies, but the primary carriers in North America are raccoons, skunks, bats, foxes and coyotes. Thanks to an increase in pet vaccinations, wildlife now account for more than 90 percent of all reported rabies cases.

Question 43

1. Which condition is most likely to contribute to recurrent UTI?
   
   1. Hyperthyroidism
   2. Diabetes mellitus
   3. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)
   4. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease)

Answer 43

Diabetes mellitus

• The two common causes of infection in dogs with diabetes are urinary tract infections and dental disease.
• Urinary tract infections are common in dogs with diabetes for several reasons.
  
  • First, diabetic animals have more dilute urine than healthy animals. This allows for bacterial growth since the chemicals present in concentrated urine, which normally kill bacteria, are diluted.
  • Second, the urine of diabetic animals contains sugar, which attracts bacteria and helps facilitate bacterial growth.
  • Finally, dogs with diabetes will often have distended bladders because they drink more, and this allows bacteria to be in contact with the bladder for longer than it should

Question 44

1. You think a dog has nasal Aspergillus. To make the diagnosis:
   
   1. Flush nasal cavity first then radiograph
   2. Biopsy first, then flush, then radiograph
   3. Radiograph before biopsy or flush
   4. Obtain negative culture, rhinoscopy and serology before radiographing

Answer 44

Radiograph before biopsy or flush

Question 45

1. Ethylene glycol toxicity presents with which lab abnormalities?
   
   1. Increased anion gap, alkalosis
   2. Increased anion gap, acidosis
   3. Decreased anion gap, acidosis
   4. Decreased anion gap, alkalosis

Answer 45

Increased anion gap, acidosis

Question 46

1. Which clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog with digitalis toxicity?
   
   1. Increased appetite
   2. Decreased appetite
   3. Increased urination
   4. Decreased defecation

Answer 46

Decreased appetite

Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias). It helps the heart work better and it helps control your heart rate

Side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, lack of appetite, weight loss, tiredness, or behavior changes

Question 47

1. Which of the following conditions and treatments would interfere with the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease in a dog?
   
   1. Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone
   2. Hypothyroidsm; thyroxine
   3. Degenerative joint disease; carprofen
   4. Epileptic seizures; Phenobarbital

Answer 47

Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone

• Triamcinolone acetonide is a highly potent synthetic glucocorticoid which is primarily effective because of its anti-inflammatory activity
• steroid adminiteration would affect analysis

Question 48

1. A 9 year old fractious cat is paraparetic. Which body system should you examine closely?
   
   1. Cardiovascular
   2. Endocrine
   3. Genitourinary
   4. Lymphoid

Answer 48

Cardiovascular

(HCM and saddle thrombus)

Question 49

1. The heartworm antigen test detects what?
   
   1. Microfilaria
   2. Male worm
   3. Female worm
   4. L3

Answer 49

Female worm

• Knott’s test is used to detect Microfilaria - The modified Knott’s method is used for the concentration and identification of microfilariae, specifically the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis
  
  • which involves using a centrifuge (a machine that spins the sample very quickly in a small circle) to concentrate the microfilariae.

Question 50

1. To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal tumor, what test should you use?
   
   1. ACTH stim (measure cortisol)
   2. Urine creatinine:cortisol ratio
   3. Low dose Dex suppression
   4. High dose Dex suppression

Answer 50

High Dose Dex Suppression

• With pituitary origin Cushing’s disease, we normally see a markedly increased cortisol level following the synthetic ACTH injection. This exaggerated response occurs because the adrenal glands have been over-stimulated with naturally occurring ACTH secreted by the diseased pituitary (pituitary origin Cushing’s disease).
• These adrenal glands are therefore highly responsive to stimulation by the synthetic ACTH. With adrenal origin Cushing’s disease, an exaggerated cortisol level after the synthetic ACTH injection may also be seen.
• In rare instances with pituitary origin Cushing’s disease, the negative feedback loop is more resistant to the effects of dexamethasone. A higher dosage of this synthetic cortisol may be required to overcome this resistance and demonstrate the negative feedback mechanism. If there is a reduction in cortisol levels at either 4 and/or 8 hours after the higher dose of dexamethasone, then we have diagnosed pituitary origin Cushing’s disease. If the levels do not budge from the high values of the pre-injection sample, then the diagnosis is adrenal origin Cushing’s disease.

Question 51

1. A woman brings a litter of Dalmatian puppies to your clinic. How do you check for deafness?

Answer 51

BAER test

• Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) testing is an electro-diagnostic test used to evaluate the hearing of dogs, cats, and other domestic animals
  1. Early diagnosis of hearing loss secondary to cochlear agenesis/degeneration.
  2. Assessment of brainstem (caudal part of the brain) function.
  3. Conductive hearing loss, which is the result of a dysfunction of the external ear canal and middle ear space.
  4. Sensorineural hearing loss, which is the result of dysfunction of the cochlea, cochlear nerve or central auditory pathway.

Question 52

1. Performing an orchiectomy in a rabbit is dangerous because?
   
   1. Increased risk of hemorrhage as compared to dog/cat
   2. Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings
   3. Increased anesthetic needed for sedation

Answer 52

Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings

Rabbits possess an open inguinal ring that allows the testes to be withdrawn into the abdomen. A closed castration or an open castration with closure of the inguinal ring (also called open-closed technique or open technique with closure of the tunica vaginalis) are recommended to decrease the risk of herniation

Question 53

1. What drug can you use for parasite control in a reptile?
   
   1. Ivermectin
   2. Praziquantal
   3. Pyrantel
   4. OP (Organophosphates?)

Answer 53

Ivermectin - but NOT in turtles!

• Ivermectin is absolutely contraindicated in turtles and tortoises, even as a spray.
• Ivermectin has also been employed against mites and ticks by injecting the reptile, by giving oral doses, or by doing both concurrently
• praziquantal and pyrantel are both wormers
• Praziquantel is the only drug shown to be effective and safe for use in reptiles with tapeworms or flukes
• Pyrantel pamoate is a safe dewormer that is given orally. It is used to remove many types of nematodes.

Question 54

Best diagnostic to ID a dog infected with coccidiomycosis (Valley Fever)?

Answer 54

IgG and IgM titer

• Valley fever is a disease caused by a fungus known as Coccidiodes immitis
• This soil-dwelling fungus has adapted to survive in desert climates and is prevalent in certain parts of Arizona, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Texas, Utah, northwestern Mexico, and parts of Central and South America
• This disease is common in humans, and has been isolated in dogs, cattle, horses, deer, elk, mules, llamas, apes, monkeys, kangaroos, wallabies, tigers, bears, badgers, otters, fish, and marine mammals.
• Dogs appear to be very susceptible to infections with valley fever, probably because they sniff the ground and dig in the dirt, potentially inhaling large numbers of spores at a time.

Question 55

1. Horse with myositis from IM injection. What besides C. difficile causes myositis?
   
   1. Staph spp
   2. Strep spp
   3. C. novei
   4. C. hemolyticum

Answer 55

C. novei

• Clostridial myositis results from rapidly progressive necrosis of muscle from infection with clostridial organisms
• Other Clostridium species isolated in equine CM have included C chauvoei, C novyi, C fallax, C sporogenes, C ramosum, and C tertium

Question 56

1. A horse has increased lacrimation, blepharospasm, episcleral injection, corneal edema and photophobia. There is no uptake of flourescein dye. What is the most likely differential?
   
   1. Uveitis
   2. Entropion
   3. Glaucoma
   4. Corneal ulcer

Answer 56

Uveitis

Question 57

1. What are the recommendations for tetanus vaccination in an older horse?
   
   1. Vaccinate when wounded
   2. Vaccinate infrequently because older horses have an increased sensitivity to vaccine
   3. Vaccinate yearly
   4. Vaccinate semi-annually

Answer 57

Vaccinate yearly

Question 58

1. Ivermectin is ineffective against which parasite?
   
   1. Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)
   2. Parascaris
   3. Strongyles

Answer 58

Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

• Provides effective treatment and control of the following parasites in horses:
• large and small strongyles, pinworms, ascarids, hairworms, large-mouth stomach worms, bots, lungworms, intestinal threadworms and summer sores caused by Habronema and Draschia spp. cutaneous third-stage larvae
• P. equorum (ascarid; roundworm) is a common nematode parasite which occurs in the small intestine of immature horses world-wide.
• Anoplocephala perfoliata is the most common intestinal tapeworm of horses, and an agent responsible for some cases of equine colic
  
  • Praziquantel at a dose of 1 mg per kg is 89-100% effective at eliminating an infection of Anoplocephala perfoliata

Question 59

1. To perform an emergency tracheotomy in a horse, you should?
   
   1. Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament
   2. Make a horizontal incision through a cartilage ring
   3. Make a vertical incision through 2 cartilage rings
   4. Make a 2cm horizontal window in trachea

Answer 59

Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament

Question 60

1. In a mare with a uterine torsion, you will?
   
   1. See right flank swelling
   2. See left flank swelling
   3. Visualize twisted vagina/cervix
   4. Feel broad ligament over uterus

Answer 60

Feel broad ligament over uterus

Question 61

1. Which anesthetic should you not use in a horse?
   
   1. Xylazine, ketamine, diazepam
   2. Atropine, acepromazine, halothane
   3. Dobutamine, guaifenesin
   4. Dobutamine, ketamine, diazepam

Answer 61

Atropine, acepromazine, halothane

• Some horses are susceptible to developing colic caused by the slowing of the gastrointestinal tract due to administration of atropine.
• Paralysis of the retractor penis muscle has been noted with the use of Acepromazine - priapism in stallions
• Halothane may cause cardiac depression and dysrhythmias

Question 62

1. Pony presents with signs of COPD (Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Pony spends most of time in stall but is out on pasture 2 days a week. What recommendations do you give the owner?
   
   1. Stall confinement
   2. Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food
   3. Change bedding, keep in stall
   4. Put out to pasture a little more and switch to grass feed

Answer 62

Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food

• NOW KNOWN AS RECURRENT AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION (RAO)

Question 63

1. A pony with COPD (RAO) is kept in a 40 yo wooden barn and has access to pasture twice a week. Besides medication, how else would you treat?
   
   1. Dirt paddock, baled hay, regular exercise
   2. Pasture 50%, hay in open manger, regular exercise
   3. Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially
   4. Keep in barn, sun-cured baled hay, limited exercise initially

Answer 63

Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially

Question 64

1. Presented with a colt for elective castration. Initial physical exam findings are T=102.5, P=48, R=40. What do you do?
   
   1. The foal is febrile, normocardic, do surgery
   2. The foal is febrile, tachycardic, postpone sx
   3. The foal is normal; do sx
   4. The foal is normothermic, tachycardic; postpone sx

Answer 64

The foal is normal; do sx

• T is normally 99.5-102C
• Foal heart rates vary depending on age. Newborn foals have a heart rate of between 80 to 100 beats per minute.
  
  • Foals which are a few weeks to a few months of age will have heart rates of 60 to 80 beats per minute
  • The normal heart rate for an adult horse is about 32 to 36 beats per minute.
• Respiration: The normal respiratory rate for adult horses is eight to 12 breaths per minute.
  
  • Newborn foals have respiratory rates that are 60 to 80 breaths per minute.
  • Older foals have resting respiratory rates from 20 to 40 breaths per minute

Question 65

What is the cause of synchronous diaphragmatic flutters?

Answer 65

electrolyte imbalance

• synchronous diaphragmatic flutter (SDF), also known as “thumps,” is a rare condition characterized by hiccup-like contractions
• Synchronous diaphragmatic flutter (SDF), or “thumps,” arises when fluid and electrolyte imbalances disrupt the membrane potential of the phrenic nerve
• The phrenic nerve is a bilateral, mixed nerve that originates from the cervical nerves in the neck and descends through the thorax to innervate the diaphragm. It is the only source of motor innervation to the diaphragm and therefore plays a crucial role in breathing.

Question 66

1. When should you move a mare to a different farm before foaling in order for the mare to develop Ig to the local pathogens?
   
   1. 4-6 weeks
   2. 8-10 weeks
   3. 12-14 weeks
   4. 16-18 weeks

Answer 66

4-6 weeks

Question 67

1. When should artificial lighting program begin in order to achieve the best ovulation in a horse?
   
   1. Dec 1
   2. March 1
   3. 30 days before ovulating

Answer 67

Dec 1 (8-10 weeks before breeding season)

Question 68

1. Horse with vesicles around mouth, what should you do?
   
   1. Call local public health vet
   2. Call state vet
   3. Give antibiotics
   4. Quarantine

Answer 68

Call state vet

• Vesicular Stomatitis is a reportable disease; in a suspect case, state and federal animal health authorities will be contacted by your veterinarian. When a case of vesicular stomatitis is confirmed, your state veterinarian’s office will quarantine the affected farm or ranch.

Question 69

1. A 12 year old barren mare has purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following is contraindicated for diagnosis?
   
   1. Abdominocentesis
   2. Transrectal ultrasound
   3. Endometrial cytology and culture
   4. Vaginal and cervical exam with speculum

Answer 69

Abdominocentesis

White or yellow vaginal discharge in a non-pregnant mare can be a sign of uterine or vaginal infection, or inflammation from a variety of causes. White or cloudy semen-containing discharge may be present shortly after breeding, which is normal. Mares in heat (estrus) often have a clear or mucous discharge

Question 70

1. Where would you take pulse in the horse
   
   1. External carotid, lateral thoracic, median
   2. Facial, femoral, external carotid
   3. Median, external iliac, digital
   4. Facial, digital, metatarsal

Answer 70

Facial, digital, metatarsal

Question 71

1. What is an RVT not allowed to do in CA?
   
   1. Place a cast
   2. Take a skin punch biopsy
   3. Suture a pre-existing incision
   4. Induce anesthesia

Answer 71

Take a skin punch biopsy

Question 72

1. Which can you feel on normal rectal palpation of horse with abdominal discomfort?
   
   1. Urinary bladder, spleen, cecum
   2. Urinary bladder, transverse colon, cecum
   3. Stomach, transverse colon, cecum
   4. Stomach, spleen, cecum

Answer 72

Urinary bladder, spleen, cecum

Question 73

1. Three year old horse with bilateral, mandibular symmetrical, non-painful swellings. What is it?
   
   1. Tooth root abscess
   2. Dental caries
   3. Permanent tooth eruption
   4. Interdental feed impaction

Answer 73

Permanent tooth eruption

Question 74

1. What parasite group is not killed by ivermectin?
   
   1. Gastrophilus
   2. Anoplocephala (tapeworm)
   3. Cyathostomes
   4. Strongylus

Answer 74

Anoplocephala (tapeworm)

Question 75

1. What do you do when a horse that you are treating with TMS becomes anorexic and develops diarrhea?
   
   1. Stop TMS, CBC, banamine
   2. Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
   3. Stop TMS, chemistry, bute
   4. Continue TMS, chemistry, bute

Answer 75

Stop TMS, CBC, banamine

• Side effects of this drug include diarrhea, allergic reactions, and effects on the blood, including decreased number of red blood cells (anemia), decreased number of platelets (thrombocytopenia), and decreased number of white blood cells (leucopenia).
• In horses, SMZ/TMP is used in the treatment of acute strangles, respiratory infections, equine protozoal myeloencephalitis, acute urogenital infections, wound infections, abscesses, and uterine infections. It is also used as a treatment or prevention of post parturient infections, including vaginitis and metritis.

Question 76

1. Yearling is being fed diet consisting of 8% protein, 0.6% Ca, and 0.1% phosphorus. This diet is:
   
   1. Adequate in protein and Ca:Ph
   2. Deficient in protein, but adequate Ca:Ph
   3. Adequate in protein, but deficient in Ca:Ph
   4. Deficient protein and Ca:Ph

Answer 76

Deficient protein and Ca:Ph

• Weanlings need 15% crude protein and yearlings need 13% crude protein in the diet. Young green grass/clover pasture contains 15–20% crude protein, but this amount falls rapidly as the plants begin flowering and go to seed. Dry summer pasture contains very little protein, so yearlings will need supplementation
• In growing horses, the ratio of calcium to phosphorus in the diet must be 1:1
• The ideal ratio is 2:1 and certainly no more than 4:1

Question 77

1. An 8 year old Warmblood presents with signs of colic. You are unable to perform a rectal exam, abdominocentesis, or gastric reflux. What drugs would you use?
   
   1. Xylazine and acepromazine
   2. Xylazine and butorphanol
   3. Detomidine and atropine
   4. Ketamine and valium

Answer 77

Xylazine and butorphanol

• In horses, diazepam (valium) may cause muscle fasciculations, weakness and ataxia at doses sufficient to cause sedation

Question 78

1. A 2 year old Quarterhorse shows signs of intermittent muscle fasciculations, weakness, recumbency, facial spasms. These signs are reduced following administration of IV Calcium gluconate, Bicarb, dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
   
   1. Increase protein, decrease carbs,, supplement with Ca and P, molasses
   2. Acetazolamide, vitamine supplementation
   3. Feed more beet pulp
   4. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture

Answer 78

Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture

• In general, alfalfa and brome hays typically contain higher levels of potassium than what an HYPP-affected horse would be able to handle and should be fed sparingly, if at all.
• Horses with HYPP (Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis) should be allowed consistent access to hay that has low or moderate potassium levels such as Timothy or Bermuda grass hays

Question 79

1. A 24 hr. old white foal was normal at birth, but has not passed any feces and is now inappetant. What do you do?
   
   1. Euthanize immediately
   2. Give mineral oil
   3. Perform a pelvic flexure enterotomy
   4. Give fluids

Answer 79

Euthanize immediately (fatal white foal syndrome)

• Lethal white overo (LWO) syndrome, also known as ileocolonic aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is an autosomal recessive inherited disease primarily reported in Paint horses.
• Horses with a particular white spotting pattern known as frame overo can produce affected offspring
• Affected foals are all white and are born with an underdeveloped intestinal tract. They cannot move food through their intestinal tract properly and cannot defecate, leading to colic.

Question 80

1. In a horse with exercise intolerance, which of the following is associated with increasing age?
   
   1. Allergic bronchitis
   2. Bacterial pneumonia
   3. Selenium/vitamin E deficiency
   4. VSD

Answer 80

Allergic bronchitis

• Allergic bronchitis in horses, also known as heaves or recurrent airway obstruction, is a chronic, non-infectious airway condition that is caused following exposure to allergens such as pollen, dust or fungal spores.
• Common causes of exposure are hay and straw.
• This condition causes the airways to become obstructed, leading to difficulty breathing. This increased respiratory effort may lead to the development of a heave line due to enlargement of the abdominal muscles.

Question 81

1. What is the most common cause of food material coming out of a horse’s nose?
   
   1. Pharyngeal paralysis
   2. Sphenopalatine bone fracture
   3. Esophageal obstruction
   4. Guttural pouch empyema

Answer 81

Esophageal obstruction

Question 82

1. A BAR 7 yo Holstein cow with lymphadenopathy is unable to rise. After diagnosis, what should you do?
   
   1. Recommend flotation therapy
   2. IV administration of Ca gluconate
   3. Euthanasia
   4. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories

Answer 82

Euthanasia

• Animals with BLV-associated lymphosarcoma commonly show lesions in the central or peripheral lymph nodes, leading to lymphadenopathy (bovine leukosis) - but maybe a bit old?
• would not give Ca gluconate as it is not milk fever

Question 83

1. What food animal species is susceptible to malignant hyperthermia from inhalation anesthetic halogens?
   
   1. Cattle
   2. Swine
   3. Sheep
   4. Goats

Answer 83

Swine

Question 84

1. What is the best diagnostic test for nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) in a 4 month old Suffolk ewe?
   
   1. CSF selenium
   2. Whole blood selenium
   3. Plasma selenium
   4. Urine selenium

Answer 84

Whole blood selenium

• Definitive antemortem diagnosis of white muscle disease is based on measurement of deficient whole blood levels of selenium and plasma levels of vitamin E.

Question 85

1. Cows in a dry lot in February present with matted fur on dorsum and scabby lesions under hair mats. What is most likely?
   
   1. Trichophyton verrucusum
   2. Chorioptes
   3. Dermatophilus congolensis (rain scald)

Answer 85

Dermatophilus congolensis (rain scald)

Question 86

1. In a cow with a schizont emphasematous fetus, what should you do?
   
   1. Fetotomy
   2. C-section

Answer 86

Fetotomy

• Occasionally, Salmonella spp cause abortion storms. The cows are usually sick, and the fetuses and placentas are autolyzed and emphysematous. Salmonellae can be isolated from the abomasal contents and fetal tissues and from uterine fluids and the dams’ feces

Question 87

1. What would help to treat a cow with fusobacterium necro foot rot?
   
   1. Bandage
   2. Wire affected claw to unaffected claw
   3. Systemic antibiotics
   4. Topical anesthetics/never block

Answer 87

Systemic antibiotics

• Footrot is caused a combination of the bacteria Fusobacterium necrophorum and Dichelobacter (formally Bacteroides) nodosus (more common in sheep), and Bacteroides melaninogenicus (more common in cattle).
• Fusobacterium necrophorum is a normal inhabitant of the ruminant digestive tract and may survive in soil for up to ten months. It produces a leukocidal exotoxin that reduces the protective white blood cells from ingesting bacteria (phagocytosis) and causes suppurative necrosis.
• Penicillin and oxytetracycline are effective antibiotics if started early in the disease process and given at the recommended dosage

Question 88

1. What one finds on necropsy with Bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater disease)?
   
   1. Hepatic infarct
   2. Renal infarct
   3. Splenic infarct

Answer 88

Hepatic infarct

• Bacillary hemoglobinuria is an acute, infectious, toxemic disease caused by Clostridium haemolyticum. It affects primarily cattle but has also been found in sheep and rarely in dogs
• C haemolyticum is a soilborne organism naturally found in the GI tract of some cattle.
• It can survive for long periods in contaminated soil or in bones from carcasses of infected animals. After ingestion, latent spores ultimately become lodged in the liver. The incubation period is extremely variable, and onset depends on the presence of a locus of anaerobiosis in the liver.
• Such a nidus for germination is most often caused by liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica) infection, rarely by high nitrate content of the diet, accidental liver puncture, liver biopsy, or any other cause of localized necrosis. When conditions for anaerobiosis are favorable, the spores germinate, and the resulting vegetative cells multiply and produce β toxin (phospholipase C).
• This causes intravascular hemolysis, resulting in hemolytic anemia and hemoglobinuria.

Question 89

1. Antibiotic for 2 day old septicemic calf?
   
   1. Ceftiofur
   2. Gentamicin
   3. Pen G
   4. NSAIDs

Answer 89

Ceftiofur

• Second choice antimicrobials in those countries where cephalosporin administration is permitted are third and fourth generation cephalosporins, such as ceftiofur and cefquinome.
• Parenteral ceftiofur has evidence of efficacy in experimentally-induced S enterica subsp enterica serovar dublin infection

Question 90

1. What would you expect to see with a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow?
   
   1. Exophthalmos and miosis
   2. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
   3. Endophthalmos and miosis
   4. Endophthalmos and mydriasis

Answer 90

Exophthalmos and mydriasis

• Mydriasis indicates a successful block
• exopthalmos from retractor bulbi m. being hit with LA?

Question 91

1. What is the most important first step to do when treating foot rot?
   
   1. Bandage
   2. Systemic antibiotics
   3. Wire claws together
   4. Foot block

Answer 91

Systemic antibiotics

Question 92

1. How to surgically correct LDA?
   
   1. Left sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
   2. Left sided ometopexy and left sided abomasopexy
   3. Right sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
   4. Right sided omentopexy and left sided omentopexy

Answer 92

Left sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy

Treatment Options:

Fluid therapy – hypertonic saline and oral water after surgery; avoid LRS (more alkalinizing)

Surgical options

• Roll and toggle or tack
• Right sided omentopexy and/or antropexy (pyloropexy)
• Left side abomasopexy (long tack)
• Right sided abomasopexy (long tack)
• Right paramedian abomasopexy
• Laparoscopic abomasopexy

Question 93

1. A pregnant cow is BAR and has emphysematous schistasomus reflex calf. What do ou do?
   
   1. C-section
   2. Euthanize cow because of poor prognosis
   3. Fetotomy
   4. Manually remove calf

Answer 93

Fetotomy

• Schistosomus reflexus (SR) is a rare and fatal congenital disorder. Primarily observed in ruminants, its defining features include spinal inversion, exposure of the abdominal viscera because of a fissure of the ventral abdominal wall, limb ankylosis, positioning of the limbs adjacent to the skull and, lung and diaphragm hypoplasia.
• Variable components of SR include scoliosis, cleft sternum, exposure of thoracic viscera, and abnormalities of the digestive and urogenital systems.

Question 94

1. It is February in a CA dry lot dairy, 15% of cows have crusty lesions on their backs. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
   
   1. Photosensitization
   2. Dermatophilus congelensis
   3. Chorioptes
   4. Trichophyton verricosum

Answer 94

Dermatophilus congelensis

(rain scald)

Question 95

1. Signs of bluetongue in cattle
   
   1. No signs
   2. Oral ulcers
   3. Abortion and congenital defects
   4. Cough and increased respiratory rate

Answer 95

No signs

• Bluetongue is an insect-borne, viral disease affecting sheep, cattle, deer, goats and camelids (camels, llamas, alpacas, guanaco and vicuña).
• Although sheep are most severely affected, cattle are the main mammal reservoir of the virus and are critical in the disease epidemiology.
• he disease is non-contagious and is only transmitted by insect vectors (midges of the Culicoides species).
• The disease is caused by a virus belonging to the family Reoviridae
• Goats, cattle, and wild ruminants such as deer can appear healthy when infected. This can lead to silent spread by midges feeding on the infected animals.

Question 96

1. Which of the following is consistent with signs of heart failure, thoracic edema and swollen liver in dairy calves
   
   1. Nitrate toxicity
   2. Urea toxicity
   3. Copper toxicity
   4. Gossypol

Answer 96

Gossypol (cardiotoxic)

• Gossypol poisoning, usually chronic, cumulative, and sometimes insidious, follows consumption of cottonseed or cottonseed products that contain excess free gossypol
• Prolonged exposure can cause acute heart failure resulting from cardiac necrosis
  
  • Pulmonary effects, labored breathing, and chronic dyspnea are most likely secondary to cardiotoxicity from congestive heart failure.
• Hepatotoxicity can be a primary effect from direct damage to hepatocytes or metabolism of phenolic compounds to reactive intermediates, or liver necrosis may be secondary to congestive heart failure.

Question 97

1. You are performing a necropsy on a 6 mo angus steer. On inspecting the brain tissue with a UV light you get fluorescence. What disease does this finding suggest?
   
   1. TEME
   2. Salt poisoning
   3. Polioencephalomalacia
   4. Lead poisoning

Answer 97

Polioencephalomalacia

• Necrotic tissue from thiamine deficiency actually glows under UV light

Question 98

1. You are performing surgery on the distal extremity of a cow. What anesthetic technique is most appropriate?
   
   1. Lumbar epidural
   2. Sacral epidural
   3. Perineal block
   4. IV local block

Answer 98

IV local block (Bier block)

Question 99

1. Which agent is transmitted venerally in a horse?
   
   1. Staph aureus
   2. Strep equi zooepidemicus
   3. E. coli
   4. Klebsiella

Answer 99

Strep equi zooepidemicus (most common infectious cause of infertility)

• Klebsiella spp. are implicated as a common cause of bacterial pneumonia in horses, but few reports describe clinical presentation and disease progression
• S. zooepidemicus is found on mucus membranes of healthy horses, but can cause acute and chronic endometritis

Question 100

1. How do you STORE the brain of a rabies suspect?
   
   1. Freeze the brain
   2. Refrigerate in airtight container
   3. Store in formalin
   4. Store in alcohol

Answer 100

​Refrigerate in airtight container

Question 101

1. What is minimum age when a horse has all of its permanent dentition
   
   1. 1 year
   2. 3 years
   3. 5 years
   4. 7 years

Answer 101

5 years

Question 102

1. What is the vector for Lyme’s disease?
   
   1. Flea
   2. Ixodes (tick)
   3. Dermacentor (RMSF- rocky mountain spotted fever)
   4. Rhipicephalus (Ehrlichia)

Answer 102

Ixodes

• Lyme disease, also known as Lyme borreliosis, is a bacterial illness that can be transmitted to humans, dogs, and other animals by certain species of ticks.
• it only causes symptoms in 5-10% of affected dogs. So some dogs may have it, but never show symptoms.
• When infection leads to Lyme disease in dogs, the dominant symptoms are:

Recurrent lameness due to inflammation of the joints

Fever1

General feeling of malaise

Many dogs who develop Lyme disease have periodic lameness because their joints are inflamed. Sometimes the lameness lasts for only 3-4 days but recurs days to weeks later, either in the same leg or other legs.

This is known as “shifting-leg lameness.” One or more joints may be swollen, warm, and painful.

Question 103

1. What is the best way to control Strongylus vulgaris in a horse ranch with high stocking of 0.25 acres/horse?
   
   1. Double dose of antihelmintics
   2. Rotate pastures by age of horse
   3. Clean up and compost manure biweekly
   4. Fertilize and keep the pasture lush

Answer 103

Clean up and compost manure biweekly

• The equine bloodworm Strongylus vulgaris is regarded as the most pathogenic equine GI helminth. The prevalence was reported to be 80%–100%, but decades of routine deworming has reduced its occurrence to very low levels.
• Most horses present with an acute peritonitis as the primary finding
• Typically, Strongylus vulgaris-associated disease is a nonstrangulating intestinal infarction presenting as peritonitis and accompanied by these clinical signs:

fever

decreased or absent borborygmus

hyperemic mucous membranes

normal to slightly elevated heart rate

no or mild pain

negative gastric reflux

a sore mass palpable on rectal examination

Question 104

1. You suspect a horse has pleuropneumonia and pleuritis; how would you verify this?
   
   1. Lung FNA
   2. Thoracic ultrasound
   3. Pleuroscopy
   4. Thoracic ultrasound and percussion

Answer 104

​Thoracic ultrasound and percussion

Question 105

1. How do you treat duodenal and stomach ulcers in a horse as a once a day treatment?
   
   1. Sucralfate
   2. Ranitidine
   3. Omeprazole
   4. Aluminum magnesium hydroxide

Answer 105

Omeprazole

• Omeprazole (Gastrogard/Ulcergard) is the only FDA approved medication for the treatment of gastric ulcers in horses.
• It is a proton pump inhibitor, which means that it works by decreasing the amount of acid that is produced in the stomach. It can be used both for treatment and prevention of gastric ulcers

Question 106

1. What factors predispose horses to urolithiasis?
   
   1. Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial
   2. Exercise level, nutrition, gender, bacterial
   3. Viral disease, nutrition, exercise, gender
   4. Urine constituents, viral disease, gender, exercise level

Answer 106

Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial

Question 107

1. Which drug would provide effective treatment for Gasterophilus?
   
   1. Ivermectin
   2. Praziquantel
   3. Pyrantel
   4. Fenbendazole

Answer 107

Ivermectin (oral and gastric stages)

• Praziquantel is effective against tapeworms
• Horse bots are the parasitic larvae of the botflies, Gasterophilus spp. Adult females deposit their eggs onto hair shafts of horses.
• Bot larvae are eventually ingested through grooming and can cause inflammatory reactions during migration within the oral cavity and by attachment to the stomach wall.
• In general, bot larvae are considered benign, even though some pathology is observed.

Question 108

1. A horse presents with a swollen sheath that is painful upon urination. A lesion is palpable and has yellow granules in it. What is likely diagnosis?
   
   1. SCC
   2. Pseudomonas cellulitis
   3. Granulation tissue
   4. Habronemiasis

Answer 108

Habronemiasis (stomach worm)

• The larvae emerge from flies that feed on wounds or secretions from around the eyes or genital region.
• When the larvae emerge from flies feeding on preexisting wounds or on moisture of the genitalia or eyes, they migrate into and irritate the tissue, which causes a granulomatous reaction.
• The lesion becomes chronic, and healing is protracted. Diagnosis is based on finding nonhealing, reddish brown, greasy skin granulomas that contain yellow, calcified material the size of rice grains.

Question 109

1. What can you give to a mare to decrease OCD in her foal?
   
   1. Supplement calcium
   2. Supplement phosphorous
   3. Supplement copper

Answer 109

Supplement copper

High phosphorus diets (five times NRC) did produce lesions of OCD in young foals. Low copper has been implicated as a cause

Question 110

1. A female intact horse is anestrus and is mouting other females. In addition to a rectal exam and ultrasound, what would you do to determine her reproductive status?
   
   1. Vaginoscopy
   2. Uterine culture
   3. Endometrium biopsy
   4. Endocrine assay

Answer 110

​Endocrine assay

Question 111

1. Which of the following practices would predispose a horse to Strongylus vulgaris infection? What is treatment?
   
   1. Dry pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
   2. Dry pasture, benzimiadazole
   3. Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
   4. Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

Answer 111

Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

The benzimidazoles are a large chemical family used to treat nematode and trematode infections in domestic animals.

Question 112

1. A 2 yo Quarterhorse shows signs of muscle fasciculations, facial spasms, weakness, and recumbency. Signs are reduced after administration of IV calcium gluconate, Bicarb and dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
   
   1. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay and oats, put out to pasture
   2. Give molasses

Answer 112

Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay and oats, put out to pasture

• HYPP is a muscular disease caused by a genetic mutation that disrupts the sodium ion channel and results in an excessive amount of potassium in the blood (hyperkalemia).
• This causes the muscles to contract more readily than normal. Horses with HYPP can experience unpredictable attacks of muscle tremors or paralysis, which in severe cases can lead to collapse and sudden death due to cardiac arrest or respiratory failure.

Question 113

1. You auscultate a horse with decreased gut sounds, intermittent diarrhea, and scratchy ventral abdominal sounds. Likely diagnosis?
   
   1. Intussception
   2. Enterolith
   3. Sand
   4. Strangulating lipoma

Answer 113

Sand

Question 114

1. Which disease is NOT reportable in CA?
   
   1. EIA
   2. VSV (Vesicular Stomatitis)
   3. EPM
   4. Equine encephalitis

Answer 114

EPM

• EIA is repotable within 2 days
• VSV is reportable within 24 hours
• Equine Encephalitis within 2 days

Question 115

1. A horse has a retained placenta; what is a likely sequelae?
   
   1. Laminitis
   2. Uterine torsion
   3. Anaphylaxis

Answer 115

Laminitis

Retention of fetal membranes may mediate development of metritis or even peritonitis. Laminitis is a potential sequela.

Question 116

1. What plant causes necrosis of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra in a horse?
   
   1. Yellow star thistle
   2. Lupine

Answer 116

Yellow star thistle

• Lupine leads to cleft palate in the cow

Question 117

1. What are male neonate foals predisposed to?
   
   1. Urolith
   2. UTI
   3. Ruptured bladder
   4. E. coli

Answer 117

Ruptured bladder

Question 118

1. Goat with epididymitis. What should you do?
   
   1. Cull the goat
   2. Treat with tetracycline
   3. Vaccinate for Brucella ovis
   4. Advise that it be rested sexually

Answer 118

Cull the goat

Question 119

What animal does NOT get Foot and Mouth disease:

A) Horse

B) Cow

C) Pig

D) Goat

Answer 119

Horse

• Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) or hoof-and-mouth disease (HMD) is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids

Question 120

Schedule I Controlled Substances

Answer 120

Substances in this schedule have no currently accepted medical use in the United States, a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and a high potential for abuse.

Some examples of substances listed in Schedule I are: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana (cannabis), peyote, methaqualone, and 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (“Ecstasy”).

Question 121

Schedule II/IIN Substances

Answer 121

Substances in this schedule have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

Examples of Schedule II narcotics include: hydromorphone (Dilaudid®), methadone (Dolophine®), meperidine (Demerol®), oxycodone (OxyContin®, Percocet®), and fentanyl (Sublimaze®, Duragesic®). Other Schedule II narcotics include: morphine, opium, codeine, and hydrocodone.

Examples of Schedule IIN stimulants include: amphetamine (Dexedrine®, Adderall®), methamphetamine (Desoxyn®), and methylphenidate (Ritalin®).

Other Schedule II substances include: amobarbital, glutethimide, and pentobarbital.

Question 122

Schedule III/IIIN Controlled Substances

Answer 122

Substances in this schedule have a potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I or II and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.

Examples of Schedule III narcotics include: products containing not more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit (Tylenol with Codeine®), and buprenorphine (Suboxone®).

Examples of Schedule IIIN non-narcotics include: benzphetamine (Didrex®), phendimetrazine, ketamine, and anabolic steroids such as Depo®-Testosterone.

Question 123

Schedule IV Controlled Substances

Answer 123

Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III.

Examples of Schedule IV substances include: alprazolam (Xanax®), carisoprodol (Soma®), clonazepam (Klonopin®), clorazepate (Tranxene®), diazepam (Valium®), lorazepam (Ativan®), midazolam (Versed®), temazepam (Restoril®), and triazolam (Halcion®).

Question 124

Schedule V Controlled Substances

Answer 124

Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics.

Examples of Schedule V substances include: cough preparations containing not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams (Robitussin AC®, Phenergan with Codeine®), and ezogabine.

Question 125

What is Epizootic Bovine Abortion?

(EBA)

Answer 125

• Foothill abortion in cattle, also known as epizootic bovine abortion (EBA), is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacteria Pajaroellobacter abortibovis.
• It is a significant problem for beef producers in foothill and mountainous regions of California, Northern Nevada and Southern Oregon
• Epizootic bovine abortion usually causes a protracted abortion storm affecting primarily heifers or cows recently introduced to the geographic region; however, abortion can occur 3–5 months after leaving the endemic area.
• Abortion is usually in the last trimester, and rates may be as high as 60%. The animals abort without illness, and the fetus is seldom autolyzed.
• Appearance of Fetus:
  
  • hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and generalized lymphomegaly (Merck)
  • A)hemorrhagic thymus, enlarged spleen B) gunmetal or whatever blue colored organ
  • Microscopically, there is marked lymphoid hyperplasia in the spleen and lymph nodes and granulomatous inflammation in most organs.
  • Fetal IgG is increased.
• Cows seldom abort in subsequent pregnancies, and heifers are often exposed to endemic areas before breeding age in an effort to prevent abortions.

Question 126

What are oats high in?

Answer 126

Phosphorus

(therefore may need to supplement Ca in oat heavy diets)

Question 127

Clinical Signs of BSE

Answer 127

• BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) is a progressive neurological disorder of cattle that results from infection by an unusual transmissible agent called a prion –> Prion Disease
• Initial clinical signs are subtle and behavioral in nature. The spectrum increases and progresses over weeks to months, with most animals reaching a terminal state by 3 mo after clinical onset.
• Commonly observed clinical signs include hyperesthesia, nervousness, difficulty negotiating obstacles, reluctance to be milked, aggression toward either farm personnel or other animals, low head carriage, hypermetria, ataxia, and tremors.
• Weight loss and decreased milk production are common. Yet, in a large portion of affected animals, clinical signs may be nonspecific, and involvement of the nervous system is not obvious in every case.

Question 128

What Mastitis pathogen can be eradicated?

Answer 128

Streptococcus agalactiae

Intra-mammary infusion of antimicrobials following the last milking of the lactation (dry cow therapy) can greatly reduce the cases of Streptococcus agalactiae mastitis by eliminating existing infections and controlling new infections early in the dry period.

Question 129

Treatment for Anaplasma marginale in cows?

Answer 129

Oxytetracycline

• Up to 17 different tick vector species (including Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus, Ixodes, Hyalomma, and Argas) have been reported to transmit Anaplasma spp. Not all of these are likely significant vectors in the field, and it has been shown that strains of A marginale also coevolve with particular tick strains
• There is a strong correlation between age of cattle and severity of disease. Calves are much more resistant to disease (although not infection) than older cattle. This resistance is not due to colostral antibody from immune dams. In endemic areas where cattle first become infected with A marginale early in life, losses due to anaplasmosis are minimal.

Question 130

Treatment for Salmon Poisoning

Answer 130

Doxycycline and fenbendazole or Praziquantel

• Salmon Poisoning Disease is a potentially fatal condition seen in dogs that eat certain types of raw fish. Salmon (salmonid fish) and other anadromous fish (fish that swim upstream to breed) can be infected with a parasite called Nanophyetus salmincola.
• Overall, the parasite is relatively harmless. The danger occurs when the parasite itself is infected with a rickettsial organism called Neorickettsia helminthoeca. It’s this microorganism that causes salmon poisoning.
• Salmon poisoning occurs most commonly west of the Cascade mountain range

Question 131

Possible complication of giving a horse steroids?

Answer 131

Laminitis

Question 132

Is Acetominophen an NSAID?

Answer 132

NO.

• Acetominophen is not an anti-inflammatory or NSAID.
• It relieves minor aches and pains, but doesn’t reduce swelling or inflammation

Question 133

What is a CVI?

Answer 133

(Certificate of Veterinary Inspection)

• It is good for up to 30 days after a veterinarian perfoms a physical examination

Question 134

Urinary crystals seen with ethylene glycol intoxication?

(antifreeze)

Answer 134

Calcium Oxalate

• calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are transported intracellularly by kidney cells, the renal toxicity of ethylene glycol may result from inhibition of mitochondrial respiratory function in proximal tubular cells by calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals
• The best way to confirm ethylene glycol poisoning is by measuring the blood concentration of ethylene glycol.
• A urinalysis may also confirm ethylene glycol poisoning and underlying kidney damage by the presence of dilute urine containing blood, protein, cellular casts (plugs of cells which have taken the shape of dying tubules in the kidneys), and calcium oxalate crystals (which are seen with ethylene glycol poisoning). Lastly, a special black-light lamp (Wood’s lamp) can sometimes be used to examine the urine, muzzle, and paws of the patient to look for the presence of the warning dye which is added to automotive antifreeze.

Question 135

Placing an esophagostomy tube in cat

(positioning?)

Answer 135

• Place the patient in right lateral recumbency with the left side uppermost.
• The tube can be placed on either the right or left side of the midcervical region; however, the esophagus lies slightly left of midline making left-sided placement more desirable

Question 136

Where do we see enteroliths in the horse?

Answer 136

Right Dorsal Colon and Transverse Colon

• Enteroliths are mineral accumulations of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate (struvite) around a foreign object (a piece of metal, pebble, bailing twine, hair, rubber) that form round, triangular, or flat stones inside the bowel usually over the course of multiple years.
• They form in the large colon of horses where they can remain for some time until they move and cause an obstruction in the large or small colon, resulting in colic

Question 137

What does a positive membrane slip in the cow confirm?

Answer 137

That they are approximately 55 days in pregnancy

• The examiner can detect the chorioallantois within the lumen of the pregnant uterus by compressing the uterine horn between the thumb and forefingers, lifting the uterus, and then allowing the horn to slowly “slip” from the grasp.
• If the cow is pregnant, the chorioallantois can be felt to slip through the fingers just in front of the uterine wall. This membrane slip can be felt in the pregnant uterine horn as early as 30 days of pregnancy and can be reliably detected by day 35.
• The fetal membrane slip can be detected in the nongravid horn by approximately day 70 of pregnancy. During early pregnancy, the fetal membranes are thin, and a delicate touch and some experience are required to recognize this sign of pregnancy.

Question 138

What caused this wound?

Answer 138

Cuterebra larvae

• The adult botfly deposits its eggs in or near the openings of rodent and rabbit burrows.
• After hatching, the botfly larvae, which typically infect rodents and rabbits, enter the host’s body through an opening such as the nose, mouth, or a skin wound.
• After several days, the botfly larvae migrate to the tissues beneath the skin, where they encyst and continue their development.
• Dogs and cats are accidental hosts of Cuterebra larvae. They are most commonly infected when they are hunting rodents or rabbits and encounter the botfly larvae near the entryway to a rodent’s burrow.
• Most cases of warbles in dogs occur around the head and neck.

Question 139

what is porcine parvovirus?

Answer 139

• Porcine parvovirus (PPV) is a virus disease of pigs caused by a Parvovirus from the Parvoviridae family.
• It is associated with reproductive problems, including abortion, small litters, still births, neonatal deaths and weak piglets.
• There is no clinically apparent disease in non-pregnant pigs. Disease occurs when sero-negative dams are infected in the first half of gestation and the virus crosses the placenta.
• Infection of post-natal pigs occurs without detectable clinical signs. In pigs the clinical picture is variable depending on the stage of when infection occurs. There may be:
  
  • Increased returns to service,

Abortion,

Small litters,

Mummified foetuses,

Neonatal death and weak piglets.

In boars, PPV can temporarily disturb spermatogenesis.

• REPORTABLE TO THE CDFA - California Department of Food and Agriculture

Question 140

What vaccine must be given in killed form?

Answer 140

Leptospirosis

Question 141

What happens if a bird ingests avocado?

Answer 141

• The adverse effects in birds have been as quickly as 15-30 minutes after ingestion.
• The first signs that owners usually see are weakness and depression, with fluffed plumage and a reluctance to perch.
• Once respiratory signs start death usually follows quickly

Question 142

How do we diagnose Toxoplasmosis?

Answer 142

• Toxoplasmosis is usually diagnosed based on a cat’s history, signs of illness, and laboratory test results.
• Measurement of two types of antibodies to T. gondii in the blood, IgG and IgM, can help diagnose toxoplasmosis.
• High levels of IgG antibodies to T. gondii in a healthy cat suggest that the cat has been previously infected and is most likely immune to the organism and not excreting oocysts. These cats are no longer sources of infection for other hosts.
• High IgM antibody levels, in contrast, suggest an active infection. The absence of any T. gondii antibodies in a healthy cat suggests that the cat is susceptible to infection and would shed oocysts for up to two weeks following infection.

Question 143

Proparicaine in Dogs and Cats

Answer 143

• Proparacaine HCl is a local anesthetic used primarily by ophthalmologists during examinations or diagnostic tests for dogs and cats. Proparacaine basically numbs the eye.
• When applied topically, proparacaine has a rapid onset of action and its effects last for at least 15 minutes. It does not penetrate the eye well, but is absorbed across mucous membranes such as the conjunctiva.
• Although it is related chemically to other anesthetic agents, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, novocaine and cocaine, it is considered too toxic to be produced in injectable form.
• Prolonged use of this local anesthetic is not recommended because it becomes less effective with multiple applications, is toxic to corneal epithelium, delays healing of corneal defects, and may result in corneal cloudiness. These side effects prohibit the use of proparacaine as a therapeutic agent.
• Excessive amounts of anesthetics applied to mucosal surfaces may cause cardiac or respiratory abnormalities.

Question 144

What is Chinchilla fur slip?

Answer 144

• Fur slip can occur if your chinchilla is being held tightly and trying to escape, if he is stressed out or if he gets his fur caught on something.
• Typically fur slip is done to “escape” the situation your chinchilla is in
• often related to the stress of handling
• If this happens, use minimal restraint in the future

Question 145

What is a myringotomy?

Answer 145

• surgical incision into the eardrum, to relieve pressure or drain fluid.
• Can use to assess for otitis media

Question 146

What is papillomatous digital dermatitis?

Answer 146

• Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD) is a polymicrobial infection in soft tissue adjacent to the hoof and is the leading cause of lameness in dairy cattle.
• Treponema phagedenis-like (TPL) spirochetes are a constant feature of PDD lesions and are localized deep in infected tissue

Question 147

When looking at a canine vaginal cytology, what would indicate the likelihood of high breeding success?

Answer 147

• cornified epithelium
• Rising levels of estrogen cause the vaginal epithelium to become “cornified” - the surface cells become large and flattened, with small or absent nuclei. In essence, vaginal cytology is a type of endocrine assay.
• During estrus the vaginal epithelium is very thick. You will see almost 100% cornification.

Question 148

Treatment for Chlamydia conjuncitivitis in cats?

Answer 148

doxycycline

Question 149

Acute death and splenomegaly in a cow?

Answer 149

Anthrax

Question 150

Mycoplasma mastitis in a cow?

Answer 150

CULL

• Mycoplasma is a contagious pathogen, and thus is transmitted cow-to-cow through infected milk on milking equipment or milker’s hands.
• There is no treatment for Mycoplasma mastitis and once infected, cows should be considered infected for life. The only means of control is identification, segregation and culling

Question 151

What anaesthetic agent should be avoided in a dog with glaucoma?

Answer 151

Atropine

• Atropine sulfate causes a significant increase in IOP when given both topically and by intramuscular injection. It should be used with caution, or indeed avoided entirely, in dogs with glaucoma or in those with a predisposition to the condition.

Question 152

What horse breed is predisposed to laryngeal hemiplegia?

Answer 152

Thoroughbreds

• Horses with laryngeal hemiplegia have paralysis of the arytenoid cartilage, which prevents them from abducting or opening their throat during inspiration.
• This leads to decreased airflow into the lungs due to obstruction from the paralyzed cartilage resulting in respiratory noise and exercise intolerance
• Roaring (laryngeal hemiplegia) is a condition in horses that greatly reduces their airflow during exercise. Affected horses make a “roar” sound under work

Question 153

How to diagnose coccidiomycosis

(Valley Fever)

Answer 153

While coccidioidomycosis can be definitively diagnosed via biopsy, the most common way it is diagnosed is by testing for antibodies to the organism (complement fixation (AGID) = IgG, tube precipiten test = IgM)

• low false positives –> good specificity
• This is a fungal disease caused by the soil fungus Coccidioides immitis
• The early signs of coccidioidomycosis include fever, lethargy, lack of appetite, coughing, and joint pain.
• The dog may develop lameness and/or weakness, as well as back and neck pain. In severe cases, if the organism spreads throughout the body, becoming systemic, the dog may develop seizures or blindness due to the central nervous systems becoming involved.

Question 154

Toxoplasmosis is associated with what presentations?

Answer 154

anterior uveitis, fever

• Toxoplasmosis is a common infection from the microscopic parasite Toxoplasma gondii. It appears in many species of animals, but cats are the most common that transmit the parasite to humans

Question 155

Drug used for parasite control in reptiles

Answer 155

• Fenbendazole
• Ivermectin (not in turtles/tortoises!)

Question 156

Time it takes for a mare to develop antibodies to local pathogens?

Answer 156

4-6 weeks

Question 157

How often should horses be vaccinated for tetanus?

Answer 157

annually

Question 158

Diagnostic to run for nutritional myodegeneration?

Answer 158

• Whole blood selenium or liver selenium
• Plasma Vitamin E

Question 159

HYPP horse diet changes?

Answer 159

need to aim to reduce Potassium content!

• decrease alfalfa
• increase timothy hay/grass
• put out to pasture
• feed several times a day, exercise regularly

Question 160

Two pathogens involved in footrot?

Answer 160

Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum

• It is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus, a pathogen apparently highly specialised for feet, while Fusobacterium necrophorum, a secondary pathogen in footrot is reportedly ubiquitous on pasture
• Have to treat fusobacterium necrophorum footrot with systemic antibiotics and local wound therapy

Question 161

Strongylus vulgaris infects which animal?

control measures?

Answer 161

Horse

• blood worm of the horse (nematode)
• Strongylus vulgaris has at times been a very common parasite in horses; it was estimated that it was present in 90% to 100% of horses in the U.S.
• The inflammation caused by the strongyle travelling throughout the arteries and intestines can cause blood clots to form.
• The clots can block oxygen passage to the intestines, causing parts of them to die.
• Ultimately, besides causing abdominal pain (colic) in equines, the complications from S. vulgaris infestation can lead to death
• Control measures: clean up and compost manure biweekly

Question 162

4 types of predisposition to urolithiasis in horses?

Answer 162

• Urine constituents
• Nutrition
• Gender
• Bacterial

Question 163

Surgical correction for an LDA?

Answer 163

• left sided paralumbar fossa abomasopexy
• right sided paralumbar fossa omentopexy

HOWEVER

• Right paramedian abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy appear to be the most widely used means of correcting left displacement of the abomasum in dairy cattle
• LDA can be corrected surgically using right flank pyloric omentopexy, right paramedian abomasopexy, left paralumbar abomasopexy, combined left flank and right paramedian laparoscopy (two-step procedure), or left flank laparoscopy (one-step procedure)

Question 164

Status of TB and Brucella in California?

Answer 164

• TB = was “Accredited free” for TB, but United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) downgraded California’s TB status to “Modified Accredited Advanced” in September 2008.
• Brucella = Brucella free
  • ​California has been brucellosis free since 1997. The disease may be avoided by employing effective sanitation and management practices

Question 165

BRSV clinical signs in calves?

Answer 165

• BRSV has a predilection for the lower respiratory tract, where it can cause varying degrees of pneumonia by itself.
• Secondary bacterial infections, frequently involving Mannheimia (Pasteurella) haemolytica, causes disease of greater severity or death. Transmission is via respiratory aerosols or from direct contact with infected cattle.
• Clinical disease from uncomplicated BRSV tends to favor young, previously unexposed cattle, although mature animals can be clinically or subclinically infected.
• Clinical infection produces high fever, increased respiratory rate, spontaneous coughing, and nasal discharge.
• Diffuse interstitial pneumonia and emphysema

Question 166

3 diseases that can be food borne in soft cheese?

Answer 166

• Brucella
• Listeriosis
• Tuberculosis

Question 167

What is ruminal parakeratosis?

Treat with?

Answer 167

• Ruminal parakeratosis is a disease of cattle and sheep characterized by hardening and enlargement of the papillae of the rumen
• It is most common in animals fed a high-concentrate ration during the finishing period.
• It also is seen in cattle fed rations of heat-treated alfalfa pellets, as well as in calves with prolonged ruminal acidosis due to ruminal drinking
• The lesions are thought to be caused by the lowered pH and the increased concentration of volatile fatty acids (VFAs) in the ruminal fluid, and do not usually develop in cattle fed unprocessed whole grain (on which animals gain weight as readily).
• The disease is caused by a relative deficiency of zinc
• Treat with zinc oxide

Question 168

Treatment for chlamydophila in birds?

Answer 168

Doxycycline for 45 days

Question 169

3 findings with PA toxicity?

How to diagnose?

Answer 169

• biliary hyperplasia
• hepatic fibrosis
• megalocytosis - Megalocytosis is caused by impaired cell division, resulting in enlarged hepatocytes with markedly enlarged nuclei

Diagnose by liver histopathology

Question 170

Type of toxicity from mushroom ingestion in dogs?

Answer 170

Liver toxicity - from the amanita mushroom (fungus)

• Amatoxins, the primary toxins found in mushrooms of the genus Amanita, are very toxic to dogs.
• Acute fulminant liver failure and death can occur within a few days of ingestion. By their curious nature, dogs, especially young dogs, are prone to ingest mushrooms.

Question 171

US appearance of a Cushingoid Liver?

Answer 171

• Diffusely hyperechoic
• Highly granular

Question 172

What is Pulmonary coccidioidomycosis?

zoonotic potential?

Answer 172

• is an infection in the lungs caused by the fungus Coccidioides. Coccidioidomycosis is commonly called valley fever.
• You can get valley fever by inhaling spores from Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii fungi
• fungal agent that cuases polyarthritis in dogs
• Little threat to owner of infected animal
• pulmonary form is not zoonotic
• Coccidioidomycosis is not usually considered to be contagious; however, at least two cases of zoonotic transmission have been documented

Question 173

Anesthetic agent given to young aggressive rottweiler to perform proper oral exam?

Answer 173

IM Medetomidine

• benefit: reversible!

Question 174

How to treat anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock in the dog or cat?

Answer 174

• Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate (DexSP) - 0.1 mg/kg IM or IV
• Diphenhydramine (antihistamine) - 2.2mg/kg IM

Question 175

Sign that a horse is light under ketamine anaesthesia?

Answer 175

Rapid nystagmus (they maintain reflexes)

Question 176

Most common diagnosed supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in dogs?

Answer 176

Atrial fibrillation

• It typically develops when atrial enlargement occurs secondary to underlying cardiovascular disease.
• The prognosis varies and is especially guarded in the presence of significant underlying cardiac disease, such as dilated cardiomyopathy
• The physiologic consequences of AF include a reduction in cardiac output and development or worsening of clinical signs of heart failure
• May note tachycardia, pulse deficits, and a cough

Question 177

Most common pathogen in cat bites?

Answer 177

Pasturella multocida

Question 178

Diagnosis of cryptococcus in cats?

Treatment?

Answer 178

• Feline cryptococcosis can often be diagnosed through an antigen detection test, known as a Latex Agglutination Test (LAT), on a cat’s blood, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid.
• In certain cases with localized disease, such as nasal or cutaneous disease, the blood test may be negative even when cryptococcosis is suspected.
• The most rapid method of diagnosis is cytologic evaluation of nasal exudate, skin exudate, CSF, or samples obtained by paracentesis of the aqueous or vitreous chambers of the eye or by impression smears of nasal or cutaneous masses.
• Gram stain is most useful; the organism retains the crystal violet, whereas the capsule stains lightly red with safranin.
• Tx: Fluconazole, Amphotericin B can be considered if severe but has severe side effects

Question 179

Cow with uterine mass and exopthalmos likely has?

Answer 179

• BLV - Bovine leukosis virus (lymphoma)
• When retrobulbar lymph nodes are enlarged, proptosis or exophthalmos can result.

Question 180

3 modes of treatment for hyperkalemia

Answer 180

• dextrose
• insulin
• bicarbonate

Question 181

what age group of calves are most commonly affected by cryptosporidium?

Answer 181

1-3 week old calves

• often 100% morbidity and 0% mortality

Question 182

Clenbuterol in FPA’s

Answer 182

• Clenbuterol (bronchodilator) is an anabolic agent sometimes used for performance-enhancement by athletes to increase lean muscle mass and reduce body fat.
• In some countries, clenbuterol has also been used to promote muscle mass and meat yield, including cattle, lamb, poultry, and swine.
• Such use is illegal in the U.S. and in Europe, but reports have shown that it does occur in other countries, including China, Mexico, and Guatemala.

Question 183

Mineral deficiency that causes paresis in lambs

Answer 183

Enzootic ataxia (swayback)

• caused by copper deficiency during the prenatal/neonatal period.
• This condition is caused by bilateral, symmetric loss of myelin in the dorsolateral spinal cord tracts and the cerebral white matter.
• The congenital form (present at birth) is called swayback. These kids may be unable to rise or may walk with severe incoordination. They may be depressed and have muscle tremors; most die soon after birth. These signs are due to the loss or abnormal formation of the “insulation” portion of the nervous system (myelin) and damage to some motor nerve cells.
• True enzootic ataxia is the second form of this condition; it has a delayed onset of signs. Affected kids actually appear normal at birth but start showing problems between one week and six months of age. These animals are ataxic and also usually show hindquarter weakness or paralysis.

Question 184

What can infect cows after a liver biopsy?

Answer 184

C. novyi (lies dormant in liver until anaerobic env’t created by punch or liver fluke) –> Black Disease

Question 185

3 ways that Toxacara canis can be spread?

Answer 185

1. Transplacental
2. Transmammary
3. Fecal - oral

Question 186

What type of suture in prolene (polypropylene)?

Answer 186

• Prolene is a synthetic, monofilament, nonabsorbable polypropylene suture
• least reactive in skin
• good for contaminated wound suturing on horses

Question 187

Block for bovine enucleation

Answer 187

Retrobulbar 4-point block

Question 188

Wildlife reservoir for Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE)

Answer 188

BIRDS

• Western Equine Encephalitis is a viral illness that is transmitted to people and horses through the bite of an infected mosquito
• Western equine encephalitis (WEE) is a viral disease carried by mosquitoes. WEE occurs in the western parts of the United States, including Iowa and Canada. WEE causes “sleeping sickness” in horses

Question 189

Horse that has Xanthochromia, straining to urinate, decreased perineal tone?

Answer 189

EHV-1/EHV-4

Question 190

Type I vs. Type II

FORLs

Answer 190

• Type 1, characterized by roots with normal appearance of the periodontal ligament space, and radiodensity similar to adjacent tooth roots
• Type 2, with extensive root replacement by alveolar bone and roots that are radiolucent when compared to adjacent tooth roots.
• This classification provides clinically useful information regarding treatment, with teeth with Type 1 resorption requiring complete extraction and teeth with Type 2 resorption being suitable candidates for crown amputation with intentional root retention

Question 191

What are 2 main diseases carried by Ixodes spp.?

Answer 191

• borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
• Anaplasmosis

Question 192

Hypoderma bovis?

2 species differences? (migration of H. lineatum and H. bovis)

Answer 192

• Hypoderma lineatum migrates through the submucosa of the esophagus
• H. bovis migrates in the epidural fat of the spinal canal.
• In the spring the larvae migrate to the subcutaneous tissues of the dorsal back, where they cut an air hole and become stationary, forming a nodule
• must condemn the hide when affected

Question 193

What is Banamine?

Withdrawal times in cattle?

Answer 193

flunixin meglumine injection

NSAID commonly used in horses and cattle

• overdose of banamine in bovids leads to gastric ulceration
• RESIDUE WARNINGS: Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within four days of the last treatment. Milk that has been taken during treatment and for 36 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food.

Question 194

What does LCAT mean?

What is it used to identify?

Answer 194

LCAT = Latex Cryptococcal Antigen agglutination Test

• used to identify cryptococcus in cats
• Latex cryptococcal antigen test to isolate capsular antigen from serum, urine or CSF. Antigen titers parallel severity of infection, therefore use to monitor response to treatment.
• Primarily a disease of cats via the inhalation route.

· Cats infected range from 1-13yrs, no breed or sex predilection.

· Zoonotic risk for immunocompromised humans.

· Usually infects nasal cavity and sinuses of cats with signs of sneezing, stertorous breathing and nasal discharge (uni- or bilateral; serous, mucopurulent or hemorrhagic).

· Can cause a facial swelling over the nose.

• May see CNS involvement in 1/4 of the Cryptococcus cases from infiltration through the cribriform plate or more likely from hematogenous spread.
• Skin lesions are present in one third of infected cats.
• Treatment: Surgery may work but chemotherapy more effective.
  
  • Chemotherapy- amphotericin B, 5-flucytosine and ketoconazole have been effective. Fluconazole crosses the BBB easily but other imidazoles have cured CNS infection.
• Prognosis: good if no CNS involvement. Grave if CNS infection.

Question 195

Aspergillosis in birds

Answer 195

opportunisitic infection - look for predisposing env’tal factors

• Aspergillosis is a fungal infection that commonly causes respiratory disease in pet birds. It can cause both upper (nose, sinuses, eye, and trachea) and lower (lungs and air sacs – a specialized part of the respiratory tract that birds have) respiratory problems or more broadly distributed systemic infections.
• birds on an all seed diet may be more prone to this disease - seeds lack vitamin A, a nutrient essential to keeping both birds’ respiratory tracts and immune systems healthy.
• Aspergillus is normally an environmental contaminant and is not contagious from bird to bird. It more commonly affects birds whose immune systems have been compromised by other diseases or by malnutrition.

Question 196

2 diseases that commonly lead to HCM?

Answer 196

• Acromegaly - In patients with acromegaly, chronic excess of growth hormone (GH) and insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) leads to the development of acromegalic cardiomyopathy.
• Hyperthyroidism - left ventricular hypertrophy can occur secondary to hyperthyroidism and systemic hypertension, these diseases should always be considered when evaluating a cat with left ventricular hypertrophy

Question 197

What is Polycythaemia (Rubra) Vera?

Answer 197

• Polycythaemia (Rubra) Vera, also known as primary polycythaemia vera, is a disorder where too many red cells are produced in the bone marrow, without any identifiable cause
• Absolute increase in hematocrit
• myeloproliferative disease

Question 198

Acanthomatous epulis

Answer 198

• Epulides are firm masses involving the gingival tissue, and constitute the most common benign oral tumors in dogs. These tumors arise from the periodontal ligament, which holds the tooth in place with relation to the jawbone.
• Epulides occur less commonly in cats
• They are seen in dogs of any age but occur more commonly in older dogs.
• Shetland Sheepdogs and Old English Sheepdogs are predisposed to these tumors, however epulides can occur in any breed of dog.
• Fibromatous and ossifying epulides are solitary, non-invasive tumors, though they can grow quite large.
• These tumors are benign, and complete surgical excision is curative.
• Acanthomatous epulides can behave more aggressively, with invasion into local tissues and destruction of underlying bone.
• They generally do not metastasize (spread), however because of their aggressive invasive and destructive biological behavior, surgical excision with a wide margin of normal tissue around the tumor is recommended to prevent recurrence

Question 199

What is contagious ecthyma also known as?

Answer 199

ORF

• Contagious ecthyma is an infectious dermatitis of sheep and goats that affects primarily the lips of young animals.
• zoonotic
• The disease is found worldwide and is caused by a parapoxovirus.
• want to vaccinate as treatment and preventative

Question 200

Inspiratory v. expiratory dyspnea

Answer 200

• Dyspnea may occur during inspiration, expiration or both (mixed).
• Clinically, pure inspiratory dyspnea implies a lesion in the respiratory tract outside the thorax
• whereas expiratory and mixed dyspnea occur in patients with thoracic or metabolic disease.
• Expiratory effort can be localized to intrathoracic (bronchi, etc.)

Question 201

What is Foothill abortion caused by?

What is it transmitted by?

Answer 201

• Foothill abortion in cattle, also known as epizootic bovine abortion (EBA), is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacteria Pajaroellobacter abortibovis
• Transmitted by ticks (ornithodoros coriaceus)

Question 202

Broodmare Vax Schedule?

Answer 202

EHV-1 and 4

• given at 5, 7, and 9 months of age

Question 203

Treatment for horse with anterior uveitis and NO corneal ulcer

Answer 203

• Topical antibiotics w/ corticosteroids
• Systemic NSAID –> Banamine (flunixin meglumine)

Question 204

What do vets need to sign an interstate transport for livestock?

Answer 204

California and National License

Question 205

How long is an interstate health certificate good for?

Answer 205

30 days

Question 206

Normal incubation period for rhodococcus equi?

Treatment?

Answer 206

• 14-21 day incubation period
• Rhodococcus equi is a bacterium that lives in the soil and can cause pneumonia in young (1 to 6 months old) foals
• Rifampin has been used in foals to control Rhodococcus equi pneumonia. Because rifamycins penetrate tissues and cells to a substantial degree, they are particularly effective against intracellular organisms.

Question 207

Treatment for equine sarcoids?

Answer 207

BENIGN NEGLECT, Sx, Chemo, cryotherapy, radiation

NOT vaccination

• Equine sarcoids are the most common tumors seen and account for approximately nine out of every ten skin tumors seen in horses
• believed to be caused by the bovine papilloma virus
• tend to find on eyes, skin or genitals

Question 208

Mycoplasma mycoides mycoides in goats?

clinical signs?

prognosis?

Answer 208

• Kids infected with Mycoplasma mycoides mycoides (large colony variant) or other Mycoplasma spp may show severe lameness with multiple hot swollen joints, weight loss, pyrexia, and poor coats.
• Some have diarrhea, and some have increased lung sounds and respiratory rates.
• Affected kids are generally 2–4 wk old.
• Morbidity and mortality rates of 90% and 30%, respectively, have been reported. Adult does with Mycoplasma infection may have mastitis and polyarthritis.
• Treatment is with tetracycline, tylosin, or tiamulin, but prognosis for complete recovery is guarded.

Question 209

What are the 2 main antidotes for Ethylene Glycol poisoning?

Answer 209

• 4- methylpyrazole
• 20% solution of ethanol

Question 210

Botulism in cattle?

What kind of paralysis?

Answer 210

• Botulism in cattle is caused by toxins produced by Clostridium botulinum.
• Spores germinate in moist, low-oxygen environments such as rotting carcasses or decaying organic material and under favourable conditions proliferate and produce botulinum toxin, leading to intoxication if consumed
• Flaccid paralysis

Question 211

How to prevent from rhodococcus equi?

Answer 211

prevent dusty environments or overcrowding

• Rhodococcus equi is ubiquitous in the environment of horse farms: it is found in soil samples of equine farms and horse feces in all continents other than Antarctica.
• The vast majority – if not all – mares have R. equi in their feces.
• The bacteria thrives in soil that is contaminated with feces from horses or other herbivores.
• It is considered impossible to eliminate R. equi from the environment of mares and foals.

Question 212

Onchocerciasis in horses?

Ocular form?

Answer 212

• Onchocerciasis is a dermatitis in equines and ruminants caused by microfilariae produced by adult Onchocerca.
• The parasites are transmitted by various biting flies, and prevention is by topical repellent.
• Diagnosis can be performed by histology or skin scraping to identify the microfilariae.
• O cervicalis has been associated with fistulous withers, poll evil, dermatitis, and uveitis in horses
• Microfilariae concentrate in the skin of the ventral midline.
• Large numbers can be found in horses without dermatitis as well as in horses with dermatitis of the face, neck, chest, withers, forelegs, and abdomen. These lesions may be pruritic and often include areas of scale, crusts, ulceration, alopecia, and depigmentation.
• Treat with macrocytic lactones

Question 213

What is altrenogest?

Answer 213

• Altrenogest (Intervet, Millsboro, DE) is a synthetic progestin approved for use in horses for the purpose of suppressing estrus
• can also help contol behavior associated with GCTs (Granulosa Thecal Cell Tumors)

Question 214

cattle age group most at risk for anaplasmosis?

Answer 214

more than 4 years old

Question 215

Horses out on pasture in late summer/early fall, what toxicity poses a threat?

(or non-irrigated pasture)

Answer 215

Yellow Star thistle

• It is now common in open areas on roadsides, rangeland, wildlands, hay fields, pastures, and waste areas

Question 216

To ship a horse accross state lines, you need ??

Answer 216

A Negative EIA status

• This disease remains active, at low levels, within the US horse population. Prior to introduction of routine testing, 3 in every 100 horses were positive for EIA. Since routine testing was introduced in 1973, the numbers have declined to 0.2% of horses testing positive
• test using Coggin’s test

Question 217

Need to anaethetize a horse for 45 min, agents? (3)

Answer 217

• Guafenisin
• ketamine
• xylazine

Question 218

When do you administer PG to a cow?

When will she come into oestrus?

Answer 218

• when an active CL is present
• estrus should occur in 3-7 days after

Question 219

What type of toxication occurs with cottonseed ingestion by cattle?

Answer 219

Gossypol toxicity

• Adult dairy cattle may show weakness, depression, anorexia, edema of the brisket, and dyspnea, and also have gastroenteritis, hemoglobinuria, and reproductive problems
• Calves also suffer from gossypol toxicity with heart failure
• Gossypol is a natural constituent of many types of cotton. It acts as an insecticide and protects the plant. The polyphenol binds to iron in cell constituents.
• It may cause kidney damage, inhibit dehydrogenase enzymes, and uncouple phosphorylation in the cell. Acute gossypol toxicity in calves can be severe.

Question 220

What agent plays the biggest role in Acorn toxicities?

Are horses or cows more susceptible?

Answer 220

• Oak tannins are hydrolyzed in the rumen to toxic gallic acid, pyrogallol.
• Cattle can normally eat some oak and handle the tannins, but when the diet consists of mainly oak the high levels of tannins disrupt the GI mucosa, and the gallic acid and pyrogallols destroy renal tubules.
• Some hydrolyzed tannins are absorbed and bound to plasma proteins and endothelial proteins, leading to vascular damage and fluid and blood loss from vessels, resulting in edema.
• Ruminants are more susceptible than horses because of the hydrolysis of gallotannins in the rumen.

Question 221

What is the definitive diagnosis for salmon poisoning?

Answer 221

FNA of LN

• Salmon poisoning can be diagnosed with a fecal sample or a needle sample of a swollen lymph node.

Question 222

Most likely diagnosis in a calf with fibrinous pneumonia (cranioventral distribution)?

Answer 222

• Pasteurella multocida
• or Mannheimia hemolytica

Question 223

What drugs should you NOT use in cases of head trauma?

(2)

Answer 223

• Ketamine
• alpha-2 agonists

Question 224

What is the agent involved in Enzootic Abortion of Ewes (EAE)

Answer 224

Chlamydophila abortus

• late-term abortions, stillbirths, and weak lambs.
• EAE occurs worldwide, except for in Australia and New Zealand, and is most important in intensively managed sheep.
• Abortions occur during the last 2–3 weeks of gestation regardless of when infection occurs, and the fetuses are fresh with minimal autolysis.
• Definitive diagnosis is by identification of C abortus by ELISA, fluorescent antibody staining, PCR, or isolation.

Question 225

Long term treatment option for cats with arthritis?

Answer 225

Buprenorphine

• No long term use of NSAIDs

Question 226

What is the most likely oral bacteria cultured after cat bite?

Answer 226

Paturella multocida

Question 227

How do you prevent poly arthritis and pneumonia in kids?

Answer 227

Feed them pasteurized milk

help protect from CAE - Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE) is a progressive, debilitating, and contagious disease in goats caused by a lentivirus, meaning it is a slow growing virus, which is one of the reasons it is hard for producers to control

Question 228

A) how do you reverse detomidine?

B) medetomidine?

Answer 228

A) Yohimbine

B) Atipamazole

Question 229

Most common cause of D+ in rabbits?

Treatment?

Answer 229

Tyzzer’s disease

• it is an acute epizootic bacterial disease found in rodents, rabbits, dogs, cats, birds, pandas, deer, foals, cattle, and other mammals including gerbils.
• It is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Clostridium piliforme, formerly known as Bacillus piliformis.
• Also, Cecal dysbiosis refers to the disruption of the delicate balance of organisms within the rabbit’s digestive tract
• Treatment for Tyzzer’s: Tetracycline

Question 230

How long can the effects of transdermal fentanyl (patch) last in dogs and cats?

Answer 230

Up to 4 days

*according to VIN*

Question 231

Anaplasma Phagocytophyllum

(erlicihia equi)

Answer 231

• causative agent of Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
• Equine granulocytic anaplasmosis is a febrile disease of horses caused by the tick-transmitted bacterium Anaplasma phagocytophilum. The disease can produce a high fever, which is responsive to tetracycline-class drugs.
• Equine granulocytic anaplasmosis (EGA) is an infectious, noncontagious, seasonal disease, originally seen in the USA in northern California but now recognized in many states where the tick vectors occur; it is also seen in Europe, Africa, and South America.
• A phagocytophilum frequently infects horses in some areas where the tick vector (Ixodes sp ) is present. The geographic distribution mirrors that of cases in people.
• horse may be found lethargic, pyrexic, have limb oedema
• Horses <1 year old may have a fever only; horses 1–3 years old may develop fever, depression, mild limb edema, and ataxia. Adults, and particularly geriatric horses, may exhibit fever, partial anorexia, depression, reluctance to move, limb edema, petechiation, and icterus

Question 232

A Mare was mated and ended up with metritis?

(possible causes?)

Answer 232

1. Taylorella equingenitalis - Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) is a venereal disease caused by the bacteria, Taylorella equigenitalis affecting only the equine species. bacteria is localized in clitoral fossa and vaginal canal?
2. Klebsiella, Streptococcus zooepidemicus, Pseudomonas, E.Coli

Question 233

Sperm count in stallion, higher in summer or winter?

Answer 233

• The sperm count (concentration of sperm per ejaculate) is lower in late autumn and winter, being only about half of that in spring and summer. The stud manager should not overwork the stallion at this time.
• Higher in summer!

Question 234

Can Sulfadimethoxine be used in cattle?

Answer 234

Yes

Question 235

1. A female intact horse is anestrus and is mouting other females. In addition to a rectal exam and ultrasound, what would you do to determine her reproductive status?
   
   1. Vaginoscopy
   2. Uterine culture
   3. Endometrium biopsy
   4. Endocrine assay

Answer 235

Endocrine assay

Question 236

1. Which of the following practices would predispose a horse to Strongylus vulgaris infection? What is treatment?
   
   1. Dry pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
   2. Dry pasture, benzimiadazole
   3. Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
   4. Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

Answer 236

Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole (may have resistance)

Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/avermectin - better answer?

Question 237

EPM in horses?

Answer 237

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM) is a neurologic disease in horses caused by infection with the protozoan Sarcocystis neurona (SN).

NOT REPORTABLE IN CA

Question 238

1. There is an outbreak of Moraxella bovis in a free-range herd. What is the best treatment option?
   
   1. Topical gentamicin (best injected into bulbar conjunctiva)
   2. Spray with??
   3. Subconjunctival injection of oxytetracycline (causes conjunctival necrosis)
   4. IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline

Answer 238

IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline

Question 239

1. How do you best prevent contagious mastitis?
   
   1. Wipe down teat before milking with iodine solution
   2. Dip the teat post-milking
   3. Spray the cows’ udders
   4. Milking machine rate 60/40

Answer 239

Dip the teat post-milking

A = environmental mastitis

Question 240

1. There is a bulk tank SCC of 800,000. What do you do?
   
   1. Culture the bulk tank on chocolate agar and Mycoplasma medium
   2. Culture the milk of mastitis cows
   3. Culture the milk of all cows
   4. CMT of all cows

Answer 240

b) Culture the milk of all cows

a) (don’t culture mastitis pathogens on chocolate – use blood agar)

b) (this milk is not in bulk tank – in hospital tank)
d) (just tells you that you have a high SCC and leukocytes which you already know)

Question 241

1. How do you treat for Actinobacillus ligneresii?
   
   1. Sodium chloride
   2. Potassium iodide
   3. Sodium iodide
   4. Potassium chloride

Answer 241

1. Sodium iodide

Question 242

1. A 6 month old calf died and on necropsy you see diffuse pleural edema and interstitial pneumonia. What is the cause?
   
   1. Mannheimia hemolytica
   2. PI3
   3. BRSV

Answer 242

c) BRSV - (diffuse interstitial pneumonia/emphysema)

a) (bronchopneumonia with CV distribution)

b) (CV lung consolidation, bronchiolitis and alveolitis)

Question 243

1. In an unvaccinated herd, 70% heifers have aborted 3^rd trimester with placentitis.
   
   1. Neospora
   2. IBR
   3. BVD
   4. Brucella

Answer 243

IBR

c) (no abortions late term)

d) (not in CA)

Question 244

1. What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?
   
   1. Xylaxine
   2. Ketamine
   3. Acepromazine

Answer 244

Xylaxine

Question 245

1. What will you see with a sweet potato toxicity in a cow?
   
   1. GI signs
   2. CNS signs
   3. Respiratory signs
   4. Musculoskeletal signs

Answer 245

Respiratory signs (4-ipomeanol = pneumotoxin)

Question 246

1. You see a goat that doesn’t want to lower its head to eat, is mildly depressed and ataxic, and has pain with neck manipulation. What is likely disease?
   
   1. Polioencephalomalacia (PEM)
   2. Cervical abscess
   3. Botulism

Answer 246

Cervical abscess

1. – head pressing, ataxia, cortical blindness

Question 247

1. What would you palpate in a 55 day pregnancy in a cow?
   
   1. Placentomes (75-90d)
   2. Fremetous in middle uterine artery (120d)
   3. Uterine fluid
   4. Membrane slip

Answer 247

Membrane slip

a) placentomes at (75-90 d)
b) 120 days

gestation of cow - about 285 days

Question 248

1. A 1-2 week old calf has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?
   
   1. Rotavirus
   2. Coccidia
   3. Johne’s
   4. M. pleuropneumonia

Answer 248

Rotavirus (1-3 weeks old)

b. Coccidia (3+ weeks)
d. Two types of pneumonia are associated with Mycoplasma infections: contagious bovine pleuropneumonia and enzootic pneumonia of calves.

Question 249

1. Castration will not decrease incidence in a dog of which disease?
   
   1. Bacterial prostatitis
   2. Benign hyperplasia
   3. Prostatic neoplasia
   4. Male feminization

Answer 249

Prostatic neoplasia

Question 250

1. How would you diagnose salmon poisoning
   
   1. Knott’s test
   2. Blood culture
   3. Fecal culture
   4. Fecal float

Answer 250

Fecal float

b. (bacteremia)

a. (microfilaria)

Question 251

1. What would you advise the owner of a large breed puppy?
   
   1. Don’t supplement phosphorous
   2. Don’t supplement calcium
   3. Supplement vitamin A
   4. Supplement vitamin D

Answer 251

Don’t supplement calcium (will grow too fast, cause skeletal mal and OCD)

Question 252

1. What is the incubation period of Chlamydophila in a parrot?
   
   1. 14 days
   2. 34 days
   3. 42 days
   4. 90 days

Answer 252

42 days

BIRDS NEED TO BE TREATED WITH TETRACYCLINE IN WATER FOR 45 days

Question 253

1. How long do you hold a non-vaccinated dog in quarantine after the dog has bitten a person?
   
   1. 3 days
   2. 10 days
   3. 20 days
   4. 30 days

Answer 253

10 days

Question 254

1. What agent causes polyarthritis in a dog?
   
   1. Ehrlichia canis
   2. Blatomycoces
   3. Histoplasmosis
   4. Coccidiomycoses

Answer 254

Coccidiomycoses

Question 255

What 4 agents are zoonotic?

Answer 255

1. Toxoplasmosis, Cryptosporidium, Campylobbacter, Brucella

Question 256

1. Which analgesic can be used safely in cats?
   
   1. Ibuprofen
   2. Acetaminophen
   3. Butorphanol tartrate
   4. Flunixin megalumine

Answer 256

Butorphanol tartrate

Question 257

1. You see a dog with a mucocele. How should you treat it?
   
   1. If it is on the ventral midline, remove salivary glands on both sides
   2. Remove mucocele and salivary gland on ipsilateral side
   3. Incise the mucocele and place drain
   4. Aspirate it and put dog on antibiotics

Answer 257

Remove mucocele and salivary gland on ipsilateral side

Question 258

1. What is the most frequent cause of corneal ulcers in a cat?
   
   1. Calcivirus
   2. Herpesvirus
   3. FeLV
   4. FIV

Answer 258

Herpesvirus

Question 259

1. What is the poison found in snail bait?
   
   1. Strychnine
   2. Metaldehyde
   3. Warfarin
   4. Coumarin

Answer 259

Metaldehyde

*other 3 are in rat poisons

Question 260

1. A daschund comes in with a diffusely hyperechoic and highly granular liver on ultrasound. It has elevated ALT, ALP, and cholesterol. What other organ would you expect to be affected?
2. Liver
3. Kidney
4. Adrenal
5. Pancreas

Answer 260

Adrenal

Question 261

1. A cat that is asymptomatic for heartworm tests positive. What do you do?
   
   1. Treat with melarsomine
   2. Treat with ivermectin
   3. Don’t treat

Answer 261

Don’t treat

b. (microfilaria) = USUALLY no microfilaria

a. (adulticide) = CONTRAINDICATED!!

Question 262

1. When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch?
   
   1. Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia
   2. 12-24 hours before surgery
   3. 1-2 hours before surgery
   4. 12-24 hours after surgery

Answer 262

12-24 hours before surgery

Question 263

1. ou suspect a cat has Toxoplasmosis. How do you confirm the diagnosis?
   
   1. Serology (IgG and IgM)
   2. Fecal float

Answer 263

Serology (IgG and IgM)

Question 264

1. How would you diagnose a bird with Trichomoniasis?
   
   1. Direct smear of feces
   2. Wet mount of crop/esophagus
   3. Fecal float
   4. Direct smear of intestinal/cecal loop

Answer 264

Wet mount of crop/esophagus (lives in sinuses, mouth, throat)

Question 265

1. What clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog with digitalis toxicity?
   
   1. Increased appetite
   2. Decreased defecation
   3. Decreased appetite
   4. Increased urination

Answer 265

Decreased appetite

Question 266

puppy strangles?

Answer 266

Juvenile cellulitis

• Juvenile cellulitis most commonly affects young puppies, between one and six months of age. In rare cases, juvenile cellulitis can also affect young adult dogs and has been reported in dogs up to four years old.
• The underlying cause of juvenile cellulitis has not yet been identified. This condition is currently regarded as idiopathic, meaning that its cause is currently unknown. The condition does appear to have an immune-mediated component, meaning that the puppy’s immune system is attacking the puppy’s own skin, but the underlying cause of this immune attack has not yet been identified.
• The first sign of juvenile cellulitis is usually an acute (sudden) swelling of the face and muzzle. This generalized swelling is typically followed by the development of raised bumps and pustules (pus-filled bumps or pimples) over the face, muzzle, and ears.
• Juvenile cellulitis is an immune-mediated disease. Therefore, treatment of juvenile cellulitis relies upon suppressing the immune system, to stop the auto-immune reaction. The most commonly used drug for this condition is prednisone, which is typically administered over a period of several weeks and gradually tapered

Question 267

1. What is the most important parameter to monitor during anesthesia?
   
   1. Cardiac electrical activity
   2. Arterial blood pressure
   3. Respiration

Answer 267

Arterial blood pressure

Question 268

An intact 5 yo male cat with severe stomatitis (severely inflamed mouth) likely has what disease?

Answer 268

FIV

*too old for FeLV

Question 269

1. How do you diagnose FIP in a cat with ascites?
   
   1. Cytology of abdominal fluid
   2. FeCV titer (serology)
   3. FeCV fluid
   4. Biopsy and histopathology

Answer 269

Biopsy and histopathology

Question 270

1. You see a 5 yo Persian with elevated BUN, creatinine, phosphorus and isosthenuria. Radiographs show bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is your likely diagnosis?
   
   1. Ethylene glycol toxicity
   2. Renal failure
   3. Polycystic kidney disease
   4. Pyelonephritis

Answer 270

Polycystic kidney disease

Question 271

1. Diagnosing feline pancreatitis
   
   1. TLI
   2. Amylase
   3. ALP
   4. Triglycerides

Answer 271

Serum TLI is increased in only approximately 30-40% of cats and dogs with pancreatitis; normal test results do not rule out the possibility of pancreatic inflammation. If pancreatitis is suspected, a PLI test should be performed. In cats increased serum TLI is often also observed with small intestinal disease. In these cases serum concentrations of cobalamin and folate should be determined for evaluation of the small intestine.

1. TLI - SERUM TRYPSIN-LIKE IMMUNOREACTIVITY

Question 272

1. 9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do?
   
   1. Insufflate with O2, treat with penicillin
   2. Insufflate with O2, treat with gentamicin
   3. Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin
   4. Perform tracheostomy and treat with gentamicin

Answer 272

​Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin

• Strangles is a highly contagious disease of the equine upper respiratory tract caused by the bacterium Streptococcus equi subspecies equi (S. equi). The bacteria cross mucous membranes in the nose and mouth to infect lymph nodes where they cause abscesses that can eventually rupture. The infected lymph nodes become swollen, which can compress the upper respiratory tract (hence, the name strangles).

Question 273

1. Area of ping for LDA?
   
   1. Entire paralumbar fossa bilaterally
   2. Entire left paralumbar fossa, extending to vertebrae
   3. Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13^th rib
   4. Left paralumbar fossa extending cranial to 11^th rib (RDA)

Answer 273

Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13^th rib

d. relative to an RDA

Question 274

1. What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it?
   
   1. Transport to federal slaughter house and notify of condition beforehand
   2. Transport to state slaughter house
   3. Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs
   4. Slaughter on the dairy for meat consumption

Answer 274

Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs

* DO NOT TRANSPORT *

Question 275

1. Cat in carrier sitting quietly, then attacks the front of the carrier. What group of diseases should be considered?
   
   1. Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead poisoning
   2. Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning

Answer 275

Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning

Question 276

1. Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect?
   
   1. Hydrocephalus
   2. Toxoplasmosis

Answer 276

Hydrocephalus

• fontanelle = a space between the bones of the skull in an infant or fetus, where ossification is not complete and the sutures not fully formed. The main one is between the frontal and parietal bones

Question 277

1. Normal incubation for Rhodococcus equi?
   
   1. 1-2 days
   2. 7-10 days
   3. 14-21 days
   4. 4 weeks

Answer 277

14-21 days (according to VIN)

whereas strangles is about 3-14 days

Question 278

1. 10 yo Cocker presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take?
   
   1. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads
   2. Palpate LN, electrocardiogram (ECG), abdominal u/s or rads
   3. Lymphography, LN aspirate, abdominal u/s
   4. Lymphography, auscult heart, something else

Answer 278

1. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads

Question 279

1. Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV
   
   1. How do you confirm cat has FeLV?
   2. Do you euthanize or not?

Answer 279

a. ELISA test after 6 months

b. NO

Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.

Question 280

1. How long after 1^st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?

Answer 280

28 days

Question 281

1. What by law is DVM required to post on their door?

Answer 281

Name, Telephone #, hours and emergency clinic location/phone #, emergency #

Question 282

1. What is incubation period for strangles (Strep equi equi)?

Answer 282

3-10days (3-14 days according to Merck)

Question 283

1. Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints. What is it?
   
   1. Mycoplasma
   2. Bluetongue
   3. CAEV

Answer 283

CAEV ( causes polyarthritis with calcification)

a. (M. mycoides spp. Mycoides causes polyarthritis with necrosis)

Question 284

Where do you give an injection in a turtle?

Answer 284

Amikacin IM, in front leg

Question 285

1. Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this?
   
   1. Soft feed
   2. Missing teeth
   3. Jaw grown wrong

Answer 285

1. Jaw grown wrong (points in front of the front cheek teeth and in the back of the back caudal teeth)

Question 286

1. Sheep has caseous lymphadenopathy. What is this?

Answer 286

1. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Question 287

1. Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx?
   
   1. Serum Ab
   2. Buffy coat
   3. RBC smear
   4. Infected neutrophils

Answer 287

1. Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils)
2. Infected neutrophils

Question 288

1. Horse with anterior uveitis. What are signs of anterior uveitis?

Answer 288

Miosis, blepharospasm, low intraocular pressure, hyperemia

Question 289

Normal diet vaues for foal?

Answer 289

1. Normal: (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%; Ca:P = 1:3)

Question 290

1. Dog in DIC. Where are the symptoms of DIC?

Answer 290

1. Thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, increased D-dimers, increased PT/PTT, increased FDP, decreased antithrombin!

Question 291

1. Dog with fractured tibia. Where do you make the incision?

Answer 291

Craniomedial

Question 292

Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?

Answer 292

1. Quaratine, intramammary cefa during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic

Question 293

1. What is common cause of mastitis?

contagious pathogens v. environmental?

Dx?

Tx?

Answer 293

1. Contagious: Strep agalactiae, S. aureus, M. bovis
2. Environmental: E. coli, Strep dysagalactiae, strep uberus
3. DX: elevated SCC (nucleated cells found in milk >600,000), CMT (>1+), culture
4. TX: frequent milking, intramammary (Cefa) and systemic antibiotics, fluids, NSAIDs (banamine); cull if chronic

Question 294

1. Herd of cows. Owner worried about mycoplasma. How do you test for mycoplasma?
   
   1. Bulk tank
   2. Milk culture
   3. Perform CMT on all cows

Answer 294

Perform CMT on all cows

or culture bulk tank ?

Question 295

1. Pleuritis in a horse. How do you dx?

Answer 295

1. Thoracic ultrasound

Question 296

1. Cows, late march, snow storm, ½ dead. What plant would have killed them
   
   1. Death camas (cardiotoxic)
   2. Larkspur
   3. Oakbud

Answer 296

Oakbud

Question 297

1. Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?
   
   1. Increase Ca in diet
   2. Decrease Ca in diet
   3. Increase Energy in diet
   4. Decrease E in diet

Answer 297

Increase Energy in diet

Question 298

How do you treat sand colic?

Answer 298

exercise, offer water, psyllium

avoid: stall rest, laxatives

Question 299

1. LDA – where is the ping heard?

Answer 299

1. Along a line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13.

Question 300

1. What are the symptoms of horner’s? (4)

Answer 300

Miosis, enophthalmos, ptosis and 3^rd eyelid protrusion

Question 301

1. Animal ARF (acute renal failure). What drug does not cause diuresis?
   
   1. Epinephrine
   2. Dexamethasone

Answer 301

Epinephrine

dex leads to PU/PD

Question 302

1. Toxoplasma in a cat. How do you test for it?
   
   1. Serology (paired IgG serum titers)
   2. Fecal float

Answer 302

Serology (paired IgG serum titers)

Question 303

1. Raw milk from a farm. What are you worried about catching?
   
   1. Leptosporosis
   2. Salmonella
   3. Johnes

Answer 303

Salmonella (feces contaminated milk)

Question 304

1. What is desired side effect of acepromazine?

Answer 304

Potentiates anesthetic drugs

Question 305

1. Equine respiratory viral pathogens. What are correct?

Answer 305

1. EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4, equine influenza

Question 306

1. Animal is in left lateral see an opacity in lungs, when in right lateral mass is not visualized?
   
   1. tumor is in left lung lobe.
   2. Tumor is in right lung lobe.
   3. Mass is covered by heart silhouette
   4. Developer error.

Answer 306

1. Tumor is in right lung lobe.

Question 307

Alopecia in young horse-

a. culicoides,
b. dermatophytosis
c. flat sarcoid

Answer 307

b. dermatophytosis,

Question 308

How to diagnose coccidia in neonatal piglets?

Answer 308

fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI

Question 309

how to diagnose Toxoplasma in a cat?

Answer 309

titers, IgM goes up first 1:2000, then IgG later (do paired)

Question 310

how to diagnose BRSV?

Answer 310

antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash

Question 311

GDV- 180 degree rotation clockwise. What expect to see in surgery?

Answer 311

Caudoventral pylorus to the fundus

Question 312

Zoonotic disease spread to humans by macaques?

Answer 312

Herpes B

Question 313

Major cause of colioform mastitis?

Answer 313

Leaving udders and teats wet before milking?

Question 314

1. What pathology should you look for in a dead cat with saddle thrombus?
   
   1. Left heart hypertrophy
   2. Right heart hypertrophy
   3. DCM

Answer 314

Left heart hypertrophy

Question 315

1. What type of hay causes increases thirst and urination?
   
   1. Alfalfa
   2. Timothy hay
   3. Rye
   4. Oat

Answer 315

Alfalfa

Question 316

1. Most common location of equine enteroliths
   
   1. transverse colon
   2. jejunum
   3. Ileocecal junction

Answer 316

transverse colon

Question 317

1. Radiation exposure records are kept for *** years after employment is terminated under
   OSHA laws
   
   1. 3 years
   2. 7 years
   3. 10 years
   4. 30 years

Answer 317

30 years

Question 318

1. Ivermectin doesn’t kill
   
   1. anoplocephala
   2. gasterophilus
   3. small strongyles

Answer 318

anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

Question 319

1. What drug is used for treating conjunctivitis due to chlamydophila tx
   
   1. Tetracycline
   2. Neomycin
   3. Amikacin
   4. Gentamicin

Answer 319

Tetracycline

Question 320

What is Physaloptera?

Answer 320

stomach roundworm of dogs/cats

Question 321

1. Transmission of WEE to humans is:
   
   1. rare occurrence
   2. Often if interacting with viremic horse
   3. Rare if horse is subclinical
   4. Rare because horses die acutely

Answer 321

rare occurrence

Question 322

1. Liver disease patient anesthesia protocol
   
   1. Morphine, ket/val, iso
   2. Ace, thio, halothane
   3. Ace, thio, iso

Answer 322

Morphine, ket/val, iso

1. = nothing with barbiturate

Question 323

1. Canary presents for voice change and has lesions in liver, lung, spleen and heart. What is the diagnosis?
   
   1. Aspergillus
   2. Avian pox
   3. Polyoma virus
   4. Pacheco’s disease

Answer 323

Polyoma virus

• The polyomavirus is usually contracted through direct contact with other infected birds. It is also contracted from infected feces, dander, air, nest boxes, incubators, feather dust or from an infected parent passing it to chick.
• There is no known treatment for the polyomavirus disease.

Question 324

Lymphadenopathy, fever, inclusions in neutrophils (granulocytes), icterus in cow?

Answer 324

Bovine Granulocytic ehrlichiosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted by Ixodes pacificus in CA

Question 325

Budgerigar colony with increased death, lesions in heart, lungs, spleen, liver?

Answer 325

polyoma virus

Question 326

1. Pregnant mare with T=100.2, P=48, R=20

Answer 326

Normal temp, increased P and R

Horse (Adult):

T: 37.5-38.5C (99-101F)

P: 36-40 bpm

R: 8-15 brpm

Question 327

1. What is the most common zoonotic disease that is transmitted from rabbits to humans?

Answer 327

1. Dermatophytes (T. mentagrophytes)

Question 328

1. A dog has raised lesions on its inguinal area and abdomen that are diagnosed as cutaneous hemangioma. What environmental changes do you make?
2. Decrease sunlight
3. Increase sunlight
4. Grass
5. Cement floor

Answer 328

Decrease sunlight

Question 329

Poorly managed pasture, most likely cause of toxicity in late June and early August?

Answer 329

Yellowstar thistle

*Poorly managed pasture
*Late summer
*“chewing disease” or nigropallidal encephalomalacia
*Clinical signs:
-Often referred to as ‘chewing disease’ because affected horses try endlessly to bite-off, hold and chew food without success. The mouth may be held open and the tongue protrudes or is curled from side to side. Horses act as if they are ‘choked’. Mouth abrasions and ulcers may also develop as a result of trauma to the gums and tongue. Weight loss can be severe
-Hypertonicity of facial muscles affecting normal movement of the lips, cheeks and tongue

Question 330

What disease is reportable in commercial rabbits?

Answer 330

Tularemia

Question 331

1. A puppy was diagnosed with demodex and treated with amitraz. He is now lethargic and hypothermic. What drug is contraindicated?
   
   1. IV fluids
   2. Induce emesis
   3. Bathe in warm water
   4. IV yohimbine

Answer 331

Induce emesis (because amitraz is an OP)

Organophosphate poisoning is poisoning due to organophosphates (OPs). Organophosphates are used as insecticides, medications, and nerve agents. Symptoms include increased saliva and tear production, diarrhea, vomiting, small pupils, sweating, muscle tremors, and confusion.

Question 332

1. A fentanyl patch was placed on the back of a dog. What drug should you avoid using due to its antagonistic effects?
   
   1. Butorphanol (mu antagonist, kappa agonist)
   2. Morphine (mu agonist)
   3. Carprofen (NSAID)

Answer 332

Butorphanol (mu antagonist, kappa agonist)

Question 333

1. A dog vomits blue/green pellets and is noise sensitive with other clinical signs. What was ingested?

Answer 333

1. Strychnine (rat bait)

Question 334

1. How long do you have to keep medical records by law?
   
   1. 3 years
   2. 5 years
   3. 7 years
   4. 9 years

Answer 334

3 years

Question 335

1. How long do you have to keep prescription records according to law
   
   1. 2 years
   2. 3 years
   3. 4 years
   4. 5 years

Answer 335

3 years (Same as medical records)

Question 336

1. A horse was given a high dose of banamine. You need to adjust the dose. What test do you do to look for the side effects of banamine?
   
   1. Measure BUN
   2. Creatitine
   3. Fecal occult blood
   4. Total proteins

Answer 336

Fecal occult blood (Bleeding due to GI ulcers)

The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is a lab test used to check stool samples for hidden (occult) blood

Question 337

1. Wrinkly, white, soft skin in a cow predisposes it to:

Answer 337

Infectious disease

Question 338

1. To maintain a veterinary-client relationship, you must examine the patient within:
   
   1. 3 months
   2. 6 months
   3. 12 months
   4. 24 months

Answer 338

12 months

Question 339

1. What 2 cell types are affected by anaplasma phagocytophilum?

Answer 339

Neutrophils and eosinophils

Question 340

1. With acute Ehrlichia canis infection, what is seen on CBC?
   
   1. Leukocytosis
   2. Thromboytopenia
   3. Anemia
   4. Lymphopenia

Answer 340

Thromboytopenia

Question 341

1. A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?

Answer 341

1. Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed

Question 342

Are these all zoonotic?

1. Brucella mellitensis
2. Bartonella henselae (cat scratch fever)
3. Franciscella tularemia

Answer 342

YES.

Question 343

1. A cat with a mass over the nose. Cytology showed large spherules. What is it?

Answer 343

1. Cryptococcus (mass over nose)

Question 344

1. What is a common cause of sickness/death of horses?
   
   1. Feed mixed with chicken feed (high in nitrites)
   2. 4^th harvest alfalfa
   3. Hay

Answer 344

Feed mixed with chicken feed (high in nitrites)

Question 345

1. Enteroliths in the large colon cause what clinical signs?
   
   1. Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain
   2. Decreased appetite, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain
   3. Increased appetite, flatulence, moderate abdominal pain

Answer 345

Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain

* Signs of COLIC*

Question 346

1. What is the worst immediate cause of death in a cow?

Answer 346

Milk tetany

Grass tetany may also be referred to as lactation tetany, winter tetany and milk tetany in calves. Cows are most susceptible to tetany immediately prior to calving and when they are nursing a calf. Often hypomagnesemia occurs along with hypocalcemia (low blood Ca).

Question 347

A Bernese Mountain Dog with histiocytic sarcoma has what prognosis

Answer 347

1. Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy

Question 348

1. An abdominal ultrasound in a pregnant dog should be done during:
   
   1. 12 day
   2. 26 day
   3. 28 day
   4. 30 day

Answer 348

30 day (embryonic vesicles)

Question 349

1. Abdominal palpation in a pregnant dog can be done at?
   
   1. 25-28d
   2. 30-32d

Answer 349

25-28d

Question 350

What is the current status of Brucella and TB in CA?

Answer 350

TB: Accredited Free

California is “Accredited Free” for Bovine Tuberculosis. The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) maintains a monitoring system that classifies states based on the presence of bovine TB within a state’s cattle population

Brucella Free

Question 351

WHere do you report notifiable diseases?

Answer 351

State Board

(if not, can contact the USDA)

Question 352

1. Treatment options for anaplasma
   
   1. Tetracycline
   2. Enrofloxacin

Answer 352

Tetracycline

Question 353

1. Glaucoma: which drug is inappropriate?
   
   1. Loop diuretic (furosemide)
   2. Topical beta-blockers (timolol)
   3. Prostaglandin analogue (latanoprost)
   4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (methazolamide)

Answer 353

Loop diuretic (furosemide) – should be mannitol (osmotic diuretic)

b. Topical beta-blockers reduce the intraocular pressure (IOP) by blockade of sympathetic nerve endings in the ciliary epithelium causing a fall in aqueous humour production

In the emergency treatment of acute glaucoma, intraocular pressure must be reduced urgently. This is done pharmacologically using osmotic diuretics such as mannitol or glycerol in combination with other topical and systemic drugs.

Question 354

1. Horse ovulated and 8 days later is in heat.
   
   1. Endometritis
   2. Nymphomania
   3. Transitional period
   4. Vaginitis

Answer 354

Transitional period

Question 355

1. Aspergillosis in birds affects what organ system?
   
   1. Liver
   2. Lungs
   3. Spleen
   4. Kidney

Answer 355

Lungs

Question 356

1. How do you abort a pregnant dog?
   
   1. Prolactin inhibitors
   2. Prostaglandin
   3. Dexamethasone

Answer 356

Prolactin inhibitors (dopamine agonists) - they will reabsorb the conceptus

Humans: Dopamine in the amniotic fluid was approximately 1.1 ng/ ml throughout most of gestation, but rose to 2.4 ng/ml near term

Question 357

1. Ehrlichia canis has an affinity for what cell type?
   
   1. Monocytes
   2. Neutrophils (Anaplasma)
   3. Eosinophils

Answer 357

Monocytes

Question 358

1. Cocciodiomycosis dog: how to diagnose?
   
   1. Serum AB AGID (IgG and IgM)
   2. Serum AB complement fixation

Answer 358

Serum AB AGID (IgG and IgM) – low false positives

Question 359

1. What group of cattle most likely to get coccidies and tx?

Answer 359

Coccidiosis is seen in animals up to two years old, and is particularly common in calves between three weeks and six months of age. Cattle become infected when placed in environments contaminated by older cattle or other infected calves

1. 4 month old heifers in pen – tx with monensin
2. 4 month old heifers on pasture – tx with monensin
3. Feed lot + tetracycline

Question 360

1. Requirements to OK an interstate transport of livestock
   
   1. Federal certification and accreditation
   2. CA license and federal accreditation
   3. CA license and federal certification
   4. CA certification and federal accreditation

Answer 360

CA license and federal accreditation

Question 361

1. Snake bit dog gross signs:
   
   1. Erythema and edema
   2. 2 puncture wounds

Answer 361

Erythema and edema

Question 362

1. 5% cows dead, recumbent, staggering (polioencephalomalacia). What is your treatment??
   
   1. Vitamin B (thiamine)
   2. Selenium/Vit E
   3. Oxytetracycline
   4. Penicillin G

Answer 362

Vitamin B (thiamine)

Question 363

1. Pigs on pasture – what parasite should you look for?
   
   1. Ascaris suum
   2. Tricuris suis
   3. Trichinella
   4. Stephanurus dentatus (kidney worm)

Answer 363

Tricuris suis (whipworm - prevent by raising pigs off soil)

ascaris suum –> roundworm (milk spot liver) - Milk spot liver mainly results from the migration of larval Ascaris suum worms. The adults occur in the small intestine and may be up to 40 cm long

Question 364

1. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi (lungworm) is in____ à given to horses if housed together
   
   1. Donkeys
   2. Cows
   3. Goats
   4. Sheep

Answer 364

Donkeys

Question 365

1. Dog post-cystotomy is ill
   
   1. BUN in abdomen fluid > serum
   2. Creatinine in abdomen fluid > serum (2x greater)

Answer 365

Creatinine in abdomen fluid > serum (2x greater)

Question 366

1. Reversal for oxymorphone
   
   1. Yohimbine (alpha 2 antagonist)
   2. Naloxone

Answer 366

Naloxone

Question 367

1. Horse with decreased platelets, icterus, anemia, neutrophil inclusions
   
   1. Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Equine granulocytic ehrlichosis)
   2. Erhlichia risticii

Answer 367

Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Equine granulocytic ehrlichosis)

Question 368

1. Salmon poisoning Dx?

Answer 368

1. Fecal float (looking for Nanophytes eggs) and lymph node aspirate (looking for neorickettsia)

Question 369

1. 2 year old cat with nasal discharge and head shaking
   
   1. Nasopharyngeal polyp
   2. Otodectes
   3. Neoplasia
   4. Tooth root abscess

Answer 369

Nasopharyngeal polyp

b. (ear)

c. older animal more likely

Question 370

1. Cat suspected to have calicivirus
   
   1. Bronchitis
   2. Diarrhea/vomiting
   3. Oral ulcers and lameness

Answer 370

Oral ulcers and lameness

Question 371

1. Horse had temp 100.8, P=38, R=10
   
   1. Normal
   2. Tachypnic and tachycardic
   3. Fever, tachycardia

Answer 371

Normal

Question 372

1. Bluetongue in cattle
   
   1. No signs
   2. Encephalitis
   3. Edema of face
   4. Lameness/sore feet

Answer 372

No signs

sheep: edema of the face, lameness/sore feet

Question 373

1. Fentanyl patch (mu agonist) on. Avoid using:
   
   1. Butorphanol
   2. Morphine
   3. Carprofen
   4. Buprenorphine

Answer 373

Butorphanol - (mu antagonist, kappa agonist) - high affinity for opioid receptor sites, hard to remove

b) (mu agonist)
c) NSAID
d) (partial mu agonist and kappa antagonist)

Question 374

1. Passive transfer in foal. Dehydration will falsely elevate:
   
   1. Refractometer of total proteins
   2. Zinc sulfate turbidity test
   3. Radial immunodiffusion

Answer 374

Refractometer of total proteins (5.2 g/dl = IgG of 1000 mg/dL)

c) (gold standard)
b) (more rapid – visible at 400-500 mg/dL IgG)

Question 375

Specificity =

Answer 375

proportion of disease negative animals that test negative

(true neg/true neg + false positive)

Question 376

1. Outcome of veratrum californicum (skunk cabbage)?
   
   1. Fetal deformities (Cyclopia)
   2. Hydrops

Answer 376

Fetal deformities (Cyclopia)

Question 377

What does OHV-2 cause?

When cattle and sheep are housed together in a pasture…

Answer 377

Malignant Catarrhal Fever

Question 378

1. What do you report to the Department of Justice?
   
   1. Class II drugs dispensed
   2. Class II drugs administered
   3. Class IV drugs dispensed
   4. Class IV drugs administered

Answer 378

Class II drugs dispensed

Question 379

1. Cutaneous larval migrans
   
   1. Ancyclostoma
   2. Toxoplasma gondii
   3. Toxocara canis
   4. Baylisascaris procyonis

Answer 379

Ancyclostoma

c. (visceral and ocular larval migrans)

d. (visceral larval migrans)??

Question 380

1. Dalmatian with desiccated corneas + ocular discharge; best question to ask?

Answer 380

1. History of antibiotics? (TMS causes KCS)

Question 381

1. Budgies sick, dead, intranuclear inclusions in liver, spleen, kidney
   
   1. Polyoma virus
   2. Pacheco’s disease

Answer 381

Polyoma virus

pacheco’s = (Herpesvirus causing sudden death with green/yellow urates)

Question 382

1. Reportable disease in birds
   
   1. Newcastle, avian influenza…
   2. Marek’s…
   3. Infectious coryza…
   4. Infectious bronchitis…

Answer 382

Newcastle, avian influenza…

Infectious bronchitis…

Question 383

1. Horse that is drooling with flickering tongue. Dx:
   
   1. Yellow star thistle poisoning
   2. Jimson weed
   3. Guttural pouch mycosis
   4. Strangles

Answer 383

Yellow star thistle poisoning

b. (parasympatholytic)
c. (dysphagia, epistaxis)

Question 384

1. Zoonotic from cat/dog
   
   1. Sporothrix
   2. Coccioiodies
   3. Histoplasma
   4. Blastomycoses

Answer 384

Sporothrix

Question 385

1. African Grey is predisposed to seizures due to:

Answer 385

Hypocalcemia (all seed diet)

Question 386

1. Bird has “clicking” sounds in lungs
   
   1. Mites (air sac mite)
   2. Aspergillosis

Answer 386

Mites

Question 387

Pruritic lesions in cows?

Answer 387

Sarcoptes

Question 388

1. Expiratory effort, problem is where?
   
   1. Bronchi
   2. Trachea

Answer 388

Bronchi (intrathoracic)

Question 389

1. How to put a cow in dorsal recumbency?

Answer 389

Xylazine

Question 390

1. How to dx physaloptera (stomach roundworm in dogs/cats)
   
   1. Endoscopy
   2. Fecal float
   3. Fecal smear
   4. Tracheal wash

Answer 390

Endoscopy

Question 391

1. How to stop E. coli mastitis (environmental pathogen)

Answer 391

1. Make sure teats are dry between milking

Question 392

Anesthesia used in animal with proptosed eye

Answer 392

Propofol (decreases IOP)

Question 393

1. Anesthetic used in ophthalmic exam on a cat
   
   1. Proparacaine
   2. Ket/val
   3. Tropicamide

Answer 393

Proparacaine - LA

c. dilation of pupil

Question 394

1. What treatment is required for a tooth fracture in a dog involving the enamel but not exposing the pulp cavity?
   
   1. Vital pulpectomy (root canal)
   2. Crown
   3. Standard endodontic treatment
   4. Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture

Answer 394

Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture

Question 395

1. What disease is transmitted transplacentally?
   
   1. Toxacara canis
   2. Toxascaris leonina
   3. Trichuris vulpis
   4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answer 395

Toxacara canis (transplacental, transmammary, fecal/oral)

b. fecal - oral –> toxascaris leonina is a parasitic nematode common in cats, dogs and other canids (e.g. foxes, coyotes, wolves)
c. fecal-oral –> whipworm
d. (burrowing, fecal-oral, transmammary) –> Strongyloides stercoralis is an intestinal nematode ofhumans that infects tens of millions of people worldwide

Question 396

1. What analgesic is safe and effective in rabbits?
   
   1. Acetominophen
   2. Ibuprofen
   3. Butorphanol
   4. Salicylic acid

Answer 396

Butorphanol

d. = (aspirin)

Question 397

1. A dog is referred to you post-cystotomy and appears ill. Abdominal radioraphs and ultrasound are unavailable. What is most indicative of leakage from the bladder?
   
   1. BUN abdominal fluid > serum
   2. BUN abdominal fluid < serum
   3. Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum
   4. Creatinine abdominal fluid < serum

Answer 397

Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum

Question 398

1. What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi
   
   1. Ixodes
   2. Boophilus
   3. Dermacentor
   4. Rhiphicephalus

Answer 398

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme’s disease) –> Ixodes (also Anaplasmosis)

c. (RMSF)
d. (Ehrlichiosis and Babesia)

Question 399

1. An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutrophilic inclusions has what?
   
   1. Ehrlichia risticii
   2. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
   3. Equine viral arteritis
   4. Equine herpes virus

Answer 399

Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)

a. (Potomac Horse fever)

Question 400

1. When is an LDA most likely to develop?

Answer 400

1. Within the first month of lactating (after freshening)

Question 401

1. A pregnant lactating cow with Actinobacillosis ligneresii is treated with?
   
   1. Potassium iodide
   2. Potassium chloride
   3. Sodium iodide
   4. Sodium chloride

Answer 401

Sodium iodide

Infection with A. lignieresii is responsible for the wooden tongue disease characterised by the presence of granulomas with pus containing small, hard yellow to white granules.

Question 402

1. Oleander toxicosis in cattle, best treatment option?

Answer 402

1. Rumenotomy

Question 403

1. Pregnant client whose cat is serologically positive for toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is true?
   
   1. The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis
   2. The cat has an active infection
   3. The cat is shedding the virus
   4. Don’t remember

Answer 403

The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis

Question 404

Treatment for Toxoplasma gondii?

Answer 404

Clindamycin

Question 405

1. A bull has had a sample of smegma from his sheath cultured in a Trichomonas pouch. Flagellated organisms are isolated in the media (Bull cultures positive for T. foetus). What do you do?
   
   1. Turn the bull out with a group of cows
   2. Cull
   3. Reculture in 2 weeks
   4. Perform further diagnostics on the sample

Answer 405

Cull

Question 406

What nutrient is beef liver high in?

Answer 406

Vitamin A

Question 407

1. A bird breeder with a bunch of birds has some of the birds come down with Aspergillosis. What do you tell them?
   
   1. This is a serious zoonotic disease
   2. All birds need to be treated because it is highly contagious
   3. This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

Answer 407

This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

Question 408

1. Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit:
   
   1. Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV
   2. Tourniquet and IV morphine
   3. Epidural with 2% lidocaine
   4. Abaxial block

Answer 408

Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV

Question 409

1. Foal for elective castration with T=102.5, P=40, R=48
   
   1. The foal is normal, do sx
   2. The foal is tachycardic, postpone surgery
   3. Some other combination
   4. Febrile, tachypneic. Don’t perform surgery

Answer 409

Febrile, tachypneic. Don’t perform surgery (HR is WNL)

Question 410

1. An 8 week old kitten presents with otitis externa secondary to Otodectes infection. Which of the following topical treatments would you use?
   
   1. Rotenone (insecticide)
   2. Mineral oil
   3. Selamectin
   4. Pyrethrin spray (contraindicated in cats)

Answer 410

Selamectin

Question 411

1. Which emergency disease should be reported in sheep in 24 hours?

Answer 411

Rift Valley Fever

Question 412

1. Corneal ulcers in cats are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?
   
   1. FeLV
   2. FIV (anterior uveitis, glaucoma)
   3. FIP (anterior uveitis, keratic precipitates, iris color change)
   4. Feline calicivirus (ulcers in mouth
   5. Herpesvirus (dendritic ulcers)

Answer 412

Herpesvirus (dendritic ulcers)

Question 413

How do you diagnose Avian Chlamydia?

Answer 413

Complement fixation

(Chlamydia psittaci latex agglutination antigen)

Question 414

What is chicken feed high in?

Answer 414

Nitrites