Test Questions SA Flashcards

Question

1. A 2 yo lab has a chronic draining tract in the 11 o’clock position near the anus which as been non-responsive to antibiotic therapy. You most likely differential is: 1. Foxtail 2. Anal gland impaction 3. Infected perianal hernia (would resolve with antibiotics) 4. Anal sac adenocarcinoma (not usually a draining tract)

Answer 1

**Foxtail** * an infected perianal hernia would resolve with antibiotics * Anal sac adenocarcinomas do not usually a draining tract

Answer 2

**Make sure the keel is freely moveable** A keel or carina (plural carinae) in bird anatomy is an extension of the sternum (breastbone) which runs axially along the midline of the sternum and extends outward, perpendicular to the plane of the ribs

Answer 3

**Orthopedic examination**

Answer 4

**Fresh plasma** The risk of haemorrhage increases with increasing intensity of anticoagulation and overanticoagulation is common. Reversal can be achieved by stopping the coumarin drug or administration of **vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma or coagulation factor concentrates**.

Answer 5

**Don't treat - (risk of adverse effects doesn’t justify treatment)** **DO NOT TREAT WITH MELOSARMINE!** * Melarsomine is an antiparasitic medication derived from an organic arsenic compound that is used in a veterinary hospital setting **_to treat dogs_** that are suffering from heartworm disease. * Melarsomine contains arsenic, which is the active ingredient that kills both the adult and immature (\>4 months old) heartworms. After treatment with melarsomine, the patient should undergo cage rest for four to six weeks. * Melarsomine is approved for use in dogs only. **It never should be administered to cats or to other pets.** * the most-common side effects of melarsomine include pain, swelling, and tenderness at the injection site; fever, lethargy, a loss of appetite, vomiting, gagging, lung congestion, and depression * More-severe side effects of melarsomine, although rare, include coughing up blood, diarrhea, excessive drooling and panting, and death. It is important to note that these signs can be directly related to treating heartworm disease and not necessarily the drug itself.

Answer 6

**Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline** * salmonella is rare in rabbits * for mucoid enteropathy --\> diarrhea as a result of mixture of constipation, toxins and non-specific bacteria – need to increase fiber, not put on AB's * coccidiosis is usually subclinical

Answer 7

**Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B?? (not sure?)**

Answer 8

**Name and address of prescribing veterinarian**

Answer 9

**BG and urinalysis (ddx diabetes mellitus)** Something that can be unique to the diabetic cat (compared to affected dogs) is the significant change in their hair coat. Their coat may become dull, oily and develop flakes or "dandruff." They may also develop loss of muscle mass, most notably along their back and rear legs.

Answer 10

puppy's temperature should always range between **99.5º and 102.5º** In general, all dogs and cats, with or without heart disease, have a breathing rate of between **15-30 breaths every minute (maybe a bit excited in this case?)** Small dogs and puppies normally have heart rates of **120 to 160 beats per minute** 1. **Normal**

Answer 11

**Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry**

Answer 12

**Liver histopathology** Typically, pyrrolizidine alkaloidosis is a chronic poisoning that results in hepatic failure

Answer 13

**Tooth pulp exposure (Fracture)** Endodontic Disease refers to infection or inflammation of the pulp of the tooth

Answer 14

**Vitamin K1** * oxygen needed for repiratory distress, hyperimmune serum is tick antisreum, and fipronyl (frontline) is tick preventative * Tick paralysis is a rapidly progressive motor paralysis caused by a toxin in the tick's saliva that attacks the nervous system. Certain species of ticks are known to cause tick paralysis * Early signs in affected dogs include change or loss of voice, lack of coordination of the hind legs, change in breathing rate and effort, gagging or coughing, vomiting, and dilated pupils. Signs occur 3–5 or 5–9 days after the tick attaches, depending on the type of tick involved * **The presence of a tick along with the sudden (within 12 to 24 hours) appearance of leg weakness and/or difficulty breathing is diagnostic**.

Answer 15

**12-24 hours before sx** The primary use of the fentanyl patch is to provide a continuous delivery of pain reliever to a patient with on-going pain

Answer 16

**Sporotrichosis** * Sporotrichosis (also known as “rose gardener's disease”) is an infection caused by a fungus called Sporothrix. This fungus lives throughout the world in soil and on plant matter such as sphagnum moss, rose bushes, and hay * People get sporotrichosis by coming in contact with the fungal spores in the environment.

Answer 17

Skunks and bats Any warm-blooded mammal can carry or contract rabies, but the primary carriers in North America are raccoons, **skunks, bats,** foxes and coyotes. Thanks to an increase in pet vaccinations, wildlife now account for more than 90 percent of all reported rabies cases.

Answer 18

**Diabetes mellitus** * The two common causes of infection in dogs with diabetes are urinary tract infections and dental disease. * Urinary tract infections are common in dogs with diabetes for several reasons. * First, diabetic animals have more dilute urine than healthy animals. This allows for bacterial growth since the chemicals present in concentrated urine, which normally kill bacteria, are diluted. * Second, the urine of diabetic animals contains sugar, which attracts bacteria and helps facilitate bacterial growth. * Finally, dogs with diabetes will often have distended bladders because they drink more, and this allows bacteria to be in contact with the bladder for longer than it should

Answer 19

**Radiograph before biopsy or flush**

Answer 20

**Increased anion gap, acidosis**

Answer 21

**Decreased appetite** Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias). It helps the heart work better and it helps control your heart rate Side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, lack of appetite, weight loss, tiredness, or behavior changes

Answer 22

**Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone** * Triamcinolone acetonide is a highly potent synthetic glucocorticoid which is primarily effective because of its anti-inflammatory activity * steroid adminiteration would affect analysis

Answer 23

**Cardiovascular** | (HCM and saddle thrombus)

Answer 24

**Female worm** * **Knott's test is used to detect Microfilaria -** The modified Knott's method is used for the concentration and identification of microfilariae, specifically the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis * which involves using a centrifuge (a machine that spins the sample very quickly in a small circle) to concentrate the microfilariae.

Answer 25

**High Dose Dex Suppression** * With pituitary origin Cushing's disease, we normally see a markedly increased cortisol level following the synthetic ACTH injection. This exaggerated response occurs because the adrenal glands have been over-stimulated with naturally occurring ACTH secreted by the diseased pituitary (pituitary origin Cushing's disease). * These adrenal glands are therefore highly responsive to stimulation by the synthetic ACTH. With adrenal origin Cushing's disease, an exaggerated cortisol level after the synthetic ACTH injection may also be seen. * In rare instances with pituitary origin Cushing's disease, the negative feedback loop is more resistant to the effects of dexamethasone. A higher dosage of this synthetic cortisol may be required to overcome this resistance and demonstrate the negative feedback mechanism. If there is a reduction in cortisol levels at either 4 and/or 8 hours after the higher dose of dexamethasone, then we have diagnosed pituitary origin Cushing's disease. If the levels do not budge from the high values of the pre-injection sample, then the diagnosis is adrenal origin Cushing's disease.

Answer 26

BAER test * Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) testing is an electro-diagnostic test used to evaluate the hearing of dogs, cats, and other domestic animals 1. Early diagnosis of hearing loss secondary to cochlear agenesis/degeneration. 2. Assessment of brainstem (caudal part of the brain) function. 3. Conductive hearing loss, which is the result of a dysfunction of the external ear canal and middle ear space. 4. Sensorineural hearing loss, which is the result of dysfunction of the cochlea, cochlear nerve or central auditory pathway.

Answer 27

**Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings** Rabbits possess an open inguinal ring that allows the testes to be withdrawn into the abdomen. A closed castration or an open castration with closure of the inguinal ring (also called open-closed technique or open technique with closure of the tunica vaginalis) are recommended to decrease the risk of herniation

Answer 28

**Ivermectin - but NOT in turtles!** * Ivermectin is absolutely contraindicated in turtles and tortoises, even as a spray. * Ivermectin has also been employed against mites and ticks by injecting the reptile, by giving oral doses, or by doing both concurrently * praziquantal and pyrantel are both wormers * Praziquantel is the only drug shown to be effective and safe for use in reptiles with tapeworms or flukes * Pyrantel pamoate is a safe dewormer that is given orally. It is used to remove many types of nematodes.

Answer 29

**IgG and IgM titer** * Valley fever is a disease caused by a fungus known as ***Coccidiodes immitis*** * This soil-dwelling fungus has adapted to survive in desert climates and is prevalent in certain parts of Arizona, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Texas, Utah, northwestern Mexico, and parts of Central and South America * This disease is common in humans, and has been isolated in dogs, cattle, horses, deer, elk, mules, llamas, apes, monkeys, kangaroos, wallabies, tigers, bears, badgers, otters, fish, and marine mammals. * Dogs appear to be very susceptible to infections with valley fever, probably because they sniff the ground and dig in the dirt, potentially inhaling large numbers of spores at a time.

Answer 30

**C. novei** * Clostridial myositis results from rapidly progressive necrosis of muscle from infection with clostridial organisms * Other Clostridium species isolated in equine CM have included C chauvoei, C novyi, C fallax, C sporogenes, C ramosum, and C tertium

Answer 31

**Uveitis**

Answer 32

**Vaccinate yearly**

Answer 33

**Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)** * Provides effective treatment and control of the following parasites in horses: * large and small strongyles, pinworms, ascarids, hairworms, large-mouth stomach worms, bots, lungworms, intestinal threadworms and summer sores caused by Habronema and Draschia spp. cutaneous third-stage larvae * P. equorum (ascarid; roundworm) is a common nematode parasite which occurs in the small intestine of immature horses world-wide. * **Anoplocephala perfoliata** is the most common intestinal tapeworm of horses, and an agent responsible for some cases of equine colic * **Praziquantel** at a dose of 1 mg per kg is 89-100% effective at eliminating an infection of Anoplocephala perfoliata

Answer 34

**Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament**

Answer 35

**Feel broad ligament over uterus**

Answer 36

**Atropine, acepromazine, halothane** * Some horses are susceptible to developing colic caused by the slowing of the gastrointestinal tract due to administration of atropine. * Paralysis of the retractor penis muscle has been noted with the use of Acepromazine - priapism in stallions * Halothane may cause cardiac depression and dysrhythmias

Answer 37

**Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food** * NOW KNOWN AS RECURRENT AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION (RAO)

Answer 38

**Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially**

Answer 39

**The foal is normal; do sx** * T is normally **99.5-102C** * Foal heart rates vary depending on age. Newborn foals have a heart rate of between **80 to 100 beats per minute**. * Foals which are a few weeks to a few months of age will have heart rates of 60 to 80 beats per minute * The normal heart rate for an adult horse is about **32 to 36 beats per minute**. * Respiration: The normal respiratory rate for adult horses is eight to 12 breaths per minute. * Newborn foals have respiratory rates that are 60 to 80 breaths per minute. * Older foals have resting respiratory rates from **20 to 40 breaths per minute**

Answer 40

**electrolyte imbalance** * synchronous diaphragmatic flutter (SDF), also known as “thumps,” is a rare condition characterized by hiccup-like contractions * Synchronous diaphragmatic flutter (SDF), or “thumps,” arises when fluid and electrolyte imbalances disrupt the membrane potential of the phrenic nerve * The phrenic nerve is a bilateral, mixed nerve that originates from the cervical nerves in the neck and descends through the thorax to innervate the diaphragm. It is the only source of motor innervation to the diaphragm and therefore plays a crucial role in breathing.

Answer 41

**4-6 weeks**

Answer 42

**Dec 1** (8-10 weeks before breeding season)

Answer 43

**Call state vet** * **Vesicular Stomatitis is a reportable disease;** in a suspect case, state and federal animal health authorities will be contacted by your veterinarian. When a case of vesicular stomatitis is confirmed, your state veterinarian's office will quarantine the affected farm or ranch.

Answer 44

**Abdominocentesis** ## Footnote White or yellow vaginal discharge in a non-pregnant mare can be a sign of uterine or vaginal infection, or inflammation from a variety of causes. White or cloudy semen-containing discharge may be present shortly after breeding, which is normal. Mares in heat (estrus) often have a clear or mucous discharge

Answer 45

**Facial, digital, metatarsal**

Answer 46

**Take a skin punch biopsy**

Answer 47

**Urinary bladder, spleen, cecum**

Answer 48

**Permanent tooth eruption**

Answer 49

**Anoplocephala (tapeworm)**

Answer 50

**Stop TMS, CBC, banamine** * Side effects of this drug include diarrhea, allergic reactions, and effects on the blood, including decreased number of red blood cells (anemia), decreased number of platelets (thrombocytopenia), and decreased number of white blood cells (leucopenia). * In horses, SMZ/TMP is used in the treatment of acute strangles, respiratory infections, equine protozoal myeloencephalitis, acute urogenital infections, wound infections, abscesses, and uterine infections. It is also used as a treatment or prevention of post parturient infections, including vaginitis and metritis.

Answer 51

**Deficient protein and Ca:Ph** * Weanlings need 15% crude protein and yearlings need 13% crude protein in the diet. Young green grass/clover pasture contains 15–20% crude protein, but this amount falls rapidly as the plants begin flowering and go to seed. Dry summer pasture contains very little protein, so yearlings will need supplementation * In growing horses, the ratio of calcium to phosphorus in the diet must be 1:1 * The ideal ratio is 2:1 and certainly no more than 4:1

Answer 52

**Xylazine and butorphanol** * In horses, diazepam (valium) may cause muscle fasciculations, weakness and ataxia at doses sufficient to cause sedation

Answer 53

**Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture** * In general, alfalfa and brome hays typically contain higher levels of potassium than what an HYPP-affected horse would be able to handle and should be fed sparingly, if at all. * Horses with HYPP (Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis) should be allowed consistent access to hay that has low or moderate potassium levels such as Timothy or Bermuda grass hays

Answer 54

**Euthanize immediately (fatal white foal syndrome)** * Lethal white overo (LWO) syndrome, also known as ileocolonic aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is an autosomal recessive inherited disease primarily reported in Paint horses. * Horses with a particular white spotting pattern known as frame overo can produce affected offspring * Affected foals are all white and are born with an underdeveloped intestinal tract. They cannot move food through their intestinal tract properly and cannot defecate, leading to colic.

Answer 55

**Allergic bronchitis** * Allergic bronchitis in horses, also known as heaves or recurrent airway obstruction, is a chronic, non-infectious airway condition that is caused following exposure to allergens such as pollen, dust or fungal spores. * Common causes of exposure are hay and straw. * This condition causes the airways to become obstructed, leading to difficulty breathing. This increased respiratory effort may lead to the development of a heave line due to enlargement of the abdominal muscles.

Answer 56

**Esophageal obstruction**

Answer 57

**Euthanasia** * Animals with BLV-associated lymphosarcoma commonly show lesions in the central or peripheral lymph nodes, leading to lymphadenopathy (bovine leukosis) - but maybe a bit old? * would not give Ca gluconate as it is not milk fever

Answer 58

**Whole blood selenium** * Definitive antemortem diagnosis of white muscle disease is based on measurement of deficient whole blood levels of selenium and plasma levels of vitamin E.

Answer 59

**Dermatophilus congolensis** **(rain scald)**

Answer 60

**Fetotomy** * Occasionally, **Salmonella spp** cause abortion storms. The cows are usually sick, and the fetuses and placentas are autolyzed and emphysematous. Salmonellae can be isolated from the abomasal contents and fetal tissues and from uterine fluids and the dams’ feces

Answer 61

**Systemic antibiotics** * Footrot is caused a combination of the bacteria ***Fusobacterium necrophorum*** and ***Dichelobacter (formally Bacteroides) nodosus*** (more common in sheep), and Bacteroides melaninogenicus (more common in cattle). * Fusobacterium necrophorum is a normal inhabitant of the ruminant digestive tract and may survive in soil for up to ten months. It produces a leukocidal exotoxin that reduces the protective white blood cells from ingesting bacteria (phagocytosis) and causes suppurative necrosis. * Penicillin and oxytetracycline are effective antibiotics if started early in the disease process and given at the recommended dosage

Answer 62

**Hepatic infarct** * Bacillary hemoglobinuria is an acute, infectious, toxemic disease caused by Clostridium haemolyticum. It affects primarily cattle but has also been found in sheep and rarely in dogs * C haemolyticum is a soilborne organism naturally found in the GI tract of some cattle. * It can survive for long periods in contaminated soil or in bones from carcasses of infected animals. After ingestion, latent spores ultimately become lodged in the liver. The incubation period is extremely variable, and onset depends on the presence of a locus of anaerobiosis in the liver. * Such a nidus for germination is most often caused by liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica) infection, rarely by high nitrate content of the diet, accidental liver puncture, liver biopsy, or any other cause of localized necrosis. When conditions for anaerobiosis are favorable, the spores germinate, and the resulting vegetative cells multiply and produce β toxin (phospholipase C). * This causes intravascular hemolysis, resulting in hemolytic anemia and hemoglobinuria.

Answer 63

**Ceftiofur** * Second choice antimicrobials in those countries where cephalosporin administration is permitted are third and fourth generation cephalosporins, such as ceftiofur and cefquinome. * Parenteral ceftiofur has evidence of efficacy in experimentally-induced S enterica subsp enterica serovar dublin infection

Answer 64

**Exophthalmos and mydriasis** * Mydriasis indicates a successful block * exopthalmos from retractor bulbi m. being hit with LA?

Answer 65

**Systemic antibiotics**

Answer 66

**Left sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy** **_Treatment Options:_** Fluid therapy – hypertonic saline and oral water after surgery; avoid LRS (more alkalinizing) Surgical options * Roll and toggle or tack * Right sided omentopexy and/or antropexy (pyloropexy) * Left side abomasopexy (long tack) * Right sided abomasopexy (long tack) * Right paramedian abomasopexy * Laparoscopic abomasopexy

Answer 67

**Fetotomy** * Schistosomus reflexus (SR) is a rare and fatal congenital disorder. Primarily observed in ruminants, its defining features include spinal inversion, exposure of the abdominal viscera because of a fissure of the ventral abdominal wall, limb ankylosis, positioning of the limbs adjacent to the skull and, lung and diaphragm hypoplasia. * Variable components of SR include scoliosis, cleft sternum, exposure of thoracic viscera, and abnormalities of the digestive and urogenital systems.

Answer 68

**Dermatophilus congelensis** **(rain scald)**

Answer 69

**No signs** * Bluetongue is an insect-borne, viral disease affecting sheep, cattle, deer, goats and camelids (camels, llamas, alpacas, guanaco and vicuña). * Although **sheep are most severely affected**, cattle are the main mammal reservoir of the virus and are critical in the disease epidemiology. * he disease is non-contagious and is only transmitted by insect vectors (midges of the Culicoides species). * The disease is caused by a virus belonging to the family **Reoviridae** * **Goats, cattle, and wild ruminants such as deer can appear healthy** when infected. This can lead to silent spread by midges feeding on the infected animals.

Answer 70

**Gossypol (cardiotoxic)** * Gossypol poisoning, usually chronic, cumulative, and sometimes insidious, follows consumption of cottonseed or cottonseed products that contain excess free gossypol * Prolonged exposure can cause acute heart failure resulting from cardiac necrosis * Pulmonary effects, labored breathing, and chronic dyspnea are most likely secondary to cardiotoxicity from congestive heart failure. * Hepatotoxicity can be a primary effect from direct damage to hepatocytes or metabolism of phenolic compounds to reactive intermediates, or liver necrosis may be secondary to congestive heart failure.

Answer 71

**Polioencephalomalacia** * Necrotic tissue from thiamine deficiency actually glows under UV light

Answer 72

**IV local block** (Bier block)

Answer 73

**Strep equi zooepidemicus** (most common infectious cause of infertility) * Klebsiella spp. are implicated as a common cause of bacterial pneumonia in horses, but few reports describe clinical presentation and disease progression * **S. zooepidemicus is found on mucus membranes of healthy horses, but can cause acute and chronic endometritis**

Answer 74

**Refrigerate in airtight container**

Answer 75

**5 years**

Answer 76

**Ixodes** * Lyme disease, also known as Lyme borreliosis, is a bacterial illness that can be transmitted to humans, dogs, and other animals by certain species of ticks. * it only causes symptoms in 5-10% of affected dogs. So some dogs may have it, but never show symptoms. * When infection leads to Lyme disease in dogs, the dominant symptoms are: Recurrent lameness due to inflammation of the joints Fever1 General feeling of malaise Many dogs who develop Lyme disease have periodic lameness because their joints are inflamed. Sometimes the lameness lasts for only 3-4 days but recurs days to weeks later, either in the same leg or other legs. This is known as “shifting-leg lameness.” One or more joints may be swollen, warm, and painful.

Answer 77

**Clean up and compost manure biweekly** * The equine bloodworm Strongylus vulgaris is regarded as the most pathogenic equine GI helminth. The prevalence was reported to be 80%–100%, but decades of routine deworming has reduced its occurrence to very low levels. * Most horses present with an **acute peritonitis** as the primary finding * Typically, Strongylus vulgaris-associated disease is a nonstrangulating intestinal infarction presenting as peritonitis and accompanied by these clinical signs: fever decreased or absent borborygmus hyperemic mucous membranes normal to slightly elevated heart rate no or mild pain negative gastric reflux a sore mass palpable on rectal examination

Answer 78

**Thoracic ultrasound and percussion**

Answer 79

**Omeprazole** * Omeprazole (Gastrogard/Ulcergard) is the only FDA approved medication for the **treatment of gastric ulcers in horses.** * It is a proton pump inhibitor, which means that it works by decreasing the amount of acid that is produced in the stomach. It can be used both for treatment and prevention of gastric ulcers

Answer 80

**Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial**

Answer 81

**Ivermectin (oral and gastric stages)** * Praziquantel is effective against tapeworms * Horse bots are the parasitic larvae of the botflies, ***Gasterophilus spp***. Adult females deposit their eggs onto hair shafts of horses. * Bot larvae are eventually ingested through grooming and can cause inflammatory reactions during migration within the oral cavity and by attachment to the stomach wall. * In general, bot larvae are considered benign, even though some pathology is observed.

Answer 82

**Habronemiasis (stomach worm)** * The larvae emerge from flies that feed on wounds or secretions from around the eyes or genital region. * When the larvae emerge from flies feeding on preexisting wounds or on moisture of the genitalia or eyes, they migrate into and irritate the tissue, which causes a **granulomatous reaction**. * The lesion becomes chronic, and healing is protracted. Diagnosis is based on finding nonhealing, reddish brown, greasy skin granulomas that contain yellow, calcified material the size of rice grains.

Answer 83

**Supplement copper** High phosphorus diets (five times NRC) did produce lesions of OCD in young foals. _Low copper_ has been implicated as a cause

Answer 84

**Endocrine assay**

Answer 85

**Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole** The benzimidazoles are a large chemical family used to treat nematode and trematode infections in domestic animals.

Answer 86

**Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay and oats, put out to pasture** * HYPP is a muscular disease caused by a genetic mutation that disrupts the sodium ion channel and results in an excessive amount of potassium in the blood (hyperkalemia). * This causes the muscles to contract more readily than normal. Horses with HYPP can experience unpredictable attacks of muscle tremors or paralysis, which in severe cases can lead to collapse and sudden death due to cardiac arrest or respiratory failure.

Answer 87

**EPM** * EIA is repotable within 2 days * VSV is reportable within 24 hours * Equine Encephalitis within 2 days

Answer 88

**Laminitis** ## Footnote Retention of fetal membranes may mediate development of metritis or even peritonitis. Laminitis is a potential sequela.

Answer 89

**Yellow star thistle** * Lupine leads to cleft palate in the cow

Answer 90

**Ruptured bladder**

Answer 91

**Cull the goat**

Answer 92

**Horse** * **Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD)** or hoof-and-mouth disease (HMD) is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids

Answer 93

Substances in this schedule **_have no currently accepted medical use in the United States_**, a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and a high potential for abuse. Some examples of substances listed in Schedule I are: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana (cannabis), peyote, methaqualone, and 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine ("Ecstasy").

Answer 94

Substances in this schedule have a **high potential for abuse** which may **_lead to severe psychological or physical dependence_**. Examples of Schedule II narcotics include: hydromorphone (Dilaudid®), methadone (Dolophine®), meperidine (Demerol®), oxycodone (OxyContin®, Percocet®), and fentanyl (Sublimaze®, Duragesic®). Other Schedule II narcotics include: morphine, opium, codeine, and hydrocodone. Examples of Schedule IIN stimulants include: amphetamine (Dexedrine®, Adderall®), methamphetamine (Desoxyn®), and methylphenidate (Ritalin®). Other Schedule II substances include: amobarbital, glutethimide, and pentobarbital.

Answer 95

Substances in this schedule have a **_potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I or II_** and abuse may lead to _moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence_. Examples of Schedule III narcotics include: products containing not more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit (Tylenol with Codeine®), and buprenorphine (Suboxone®). Examples of Schedule IIIN non-narcotics include: benzphetamine (Didrex®), phendimetrazine, **ketamine**, and anabolic steroids such as Depo®-Testosterone.

Answer 96

Substances in this schedule have a **_low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III._** Examples of Schedule IV substances include: alprazolam (Xanax®), carisoprodol (Soma®), clonazepam (Klonopin®), clorazepate (Tranxene®), **diazepam** (Valium®), lorazepam (Ativan®), **midazolam** (Versed®), temazepam (Restoril®), and triazolam (Halcion®).

Answer 97

Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Examples of Schedule V substances include: cough preparations containing not more than 200 milligrams of **codeine** per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams (Robitussin AC®, Phenergan with Codeine®), and ezogabine.

Answer 98

* **_Foothill abortion_** in cattle, also known as **epizootic bovine abortion (EBA)**, is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacteria **Pajaroellobacter abortibovis**. * It is a significant problem for beef producers in foothill and mountainous regions of California, Northern Nevada and Southern Oregon * Epizootic bovine abortion usually causes a protracted abortion storm affecting primarily heifers or cows recently introduced to the geographic region; however, abortion can occur 3–5 months after leaving the endemic area. * Abortion is usually in the **last trimester,** and rates **may be as high as 60%**. The animals abort without illness, and the fetus is seldom autolyzed. * Appearance of Fetus: * hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and generalized lymphomegaly (Merck) * A)hemorrhagic thymus, enlarged spleen B) gunmetal or whatever blue colored organ * Microscopically, there is marked lymphoid hyperplasia in the spleen and lymph nodes and granulomatous inflammation in most organs. * **Fetal IgG is increased**. * Cows seldom abort in subsequent pregnancies, and heifers are often exposed to endemic areas before breeding age in an effort to prevent abortions.

Answer 99

**Phosphorus** (therefore may need to supplement Ca in oat heavy diets)

Answer 100

* **BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)** is a progressive neurological disorder of cattle that results from infection by an unusual transmissible agent called a **prion --\> Prion Disease** * Initial clinical signs are subtle and behavioral in nature. The spectrum increases and progresses over weeks to months, with most animals **reaching a terminal state by 3 mo after clinical onset**. * Commonly observed clinical signs include hyperesthesia, nervousness, difficulty negotiating obstacles, reluctance to be milked, aggression toward either farm personnel or other animals, low head carriage, hypermetria, ataxia, and tremors. * Weight loss and decreased milk production are common. Yet, in a large portion of affected animals, clinical signs may be nonspecific, and involvement of the nervous system is not obvious in every case.

Answer 101

**Streptococcus agalactiae** Intra-mammary infusion of antimicrobials following the last milking of the lactation (dry cow therapy) can greatly reduce the cases of Streptococcus agalactiae mastitis by eliminating existing infections and controlling new infections early in the dry period.

Answer 102

**Oxytetracycline** * Up to 17 different tick vector species (including Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus, Ixodes, Hyalomma, and Argas) have been reported to transmit Anaplasma spp. Not all of these are likely significant vectors in the field, and it has been shown that strains of A marginale also coevolve with particular tick strains * There is a strong correlation between age of cattle and severity of disease. Calves are much more resistant to disease (although not infection) than older cattle. This resistance is not due to colostral antibody from immune dams. In endemic areas where cattle first become infected with A marginale early in life, losses due to anaplasmosis are minimal.

Answer 103

**Doxycycline and fenbendazole** or **Praziquantel** * Salmon Poisoning Disease is a potentially fatal condition seen in dogs that eat certain types of raw fish. Salmon (salmonid fish) and other anadromous fish (fish that swim upstream to breed) can be infected with a parasite called ***Nanophyetus salmincola***. * Overall, the parasite is relatively harmless. The danger occurs when the parasite itself is infected with a rickettsial organism called ***_Neorickettsia helminthoeca_***. It’s this microorganism that causes salmon poisoning. * Salmon poisoning occurs most commonly west of the Cascade mountain range

Answer 104

**Laminitis**

Answer 105

**NO.** * Acetominophen is not an anti-inflammatory or NSAID. * It relieves minor aches and pains, but doesn't reduce swelling or inflammation

Answer 106

(Certificate of Veterinary Inspection) * It is good for up to **30 days after** a veterinarian perfoms a physical examination

Answer 107

**Calcium Oxalate** * calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are transported intracellularly by kidney cells, the **renal toxicity of ethylene glycol** may result from inhibition of mitochondrial respiratory function in proximal tubular cells by calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals * The best way to confirm ethylene glycol poisoning is by measuring the **blood concentration of ethylene glycol**. * A urinalysis may also confirm ethylene glycol poisoning and underlying kidney damage by the presence of dilute urine containing blood, protein, cellular casts (plugs of cells which have taken the shape of dying tubules in the kidneys), and **calcium oxalate crystals** (which are seen with ethylene glycol poisoning). Lastly, a special black-light lamp (Wood’s lamp) can sometimes be used to examine the urine, muzzle, and paws of the patient to look for the presence of the warning dye which is added to automotive antifreeze.

Answer 108

* Place the patient in right lateral recumbency with the left side uppermost. * The tube can be placed on either the right or left side of the midcervical region; however, the esophagus lies slightly left of midline making left-sided placement more desirable

Answer 109

**Right Dorsal Colon and Transverse Colon** * Enteroliths are mineral accumulations of **magnesium-ammonium-phosphate (struvite)** around a foreign object (a piece of metal, pebble, bailing twine, hair, rubber) that form round, triangular, or flat stones inside the bowel usually over the course of multiple years. * They form in the large colon of horses where they can remain for some time until they move and cause an obstruction in the large or small colon, resulting in colic

Answer 110

That they are approximately **55 days in pregnancy** * The examiner can detect the **chorioallantois** within the lumen of the pregnant uterus by compressing the uterine horn between the thumb and forefingers, lifting the uterus, and then allowing the horn to slowly “slip” from the grasp. * If the cow is pregnant, the chorioallantois can be felt to slip through the fingers just in front of the uterine wall. This membrane slip can be felt in the pregnant uterine horn **as early as 30 days of pregnancy** and can be **reliably detected by day 35**. * The fetal membrane slip can be **detected in the nongravid horn by approximately day 70 of pregnancy**. During early pregnancy, the fetal membranes are thin, and a delicate touch and some experience are required to recognize this sign of pregnancy.

Answer 111

**Cuterebra larvae** * The adult botfly deposits its eggs in or near the openings of rodent and rabbit burrows. * After hatching, the botfly larvae, which typically infect rodents and rabbits, enter the host's body through an opening such as the nose, mouth, or a skin wound. * After several days, the botfly larvae migrate to the tissues beneath the skin, where they encyst and continue their development. * Dogs and cats are accidental hosts of Cuterebra larvae. They are most commonly infected when they are hunting rodents or rabbits and encounter the botfly larvae near the entryway to a rodent's burrow. * Most cases of warbles in dogs occur around the head and neck.

Answer 112

* **Porcine parvovirus (PPV)** is a virus disease of pigs caused by a Parvovirus from the Parvoviridae family. * It is associated with reproductive problems, including abortion, small litters, still births, neonatal deaths and weak piglets. * **There is no clinically apparent disease in non-pregnant pigs**. Disease occurs when sero-negative dams are infected in the **first half of gestation** and the virus crosses the placenta. * Infection of post-natal pigs occurs without detectable clinical signs. In pigs the clinical picture is variable depending on the stage of when infection occurs. There may be: * Increased returns to service, Abortion, Small litters, Mummified foetuses, Neonatal death and weak piglets. In boars, PPV can temporarily disturb spermatogenesis. * **REPORTABLE TO THE CDFA** - California Department of Food and Agriculture

Answer 113

**Leptospirosis**

Answer 114

* The adverse effects in birds have been as quickly as 15-30 minutes after ingestion. * The first signs that owners usually see are **weakness** and **depression, with fluffed plumage and a reluctance to perch.** * Once **_respiratory signs_** start **death usually follows quickly**

Answer 115

* Toxoplasmosis is usually diagnosed based on a cat’s history, signs of illness, and laboratory test results. * Measurement of two types of antibodies to T. gondii in the blood, **IgG and IgM**, can help diagnose toxoplasmosis. * **High levels of IgG antibodies** to T. gondii in a healthy cat suggest that the cat has been previously infected and is most likely immune to the organism and not excreting oocysts. These cats are no longer sources of infection for other hosts. * **High IgM antibody levels**, in contrast, suggest an active infection. The absence of any T. gondii antibodies in a healthy cat suggests that the cat is susceptible to infection and would shed oocysts for up to two weeks following infection.

Answer 116

* **Proparacaine HCl is a local anesthetic** used primarily by ophthalmologists during examinations or diagnostic tests for dogs and cats. Proparacaine basically numbs the eye. * When applied topically, proparacaine has a rapid onset of action and its effects last for at least 15 minutes. It does not penetrate the eye well, but is absorbed across mucous membranes such as the conjunctiva. * Although it is related chemically to other anesthetic agents, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, novocaine and cocaine, it is considered **too toxic to be produced in injectable form.** * Prolonged use of this local anesthetic is not recommended because it becomes less effective with multiple applications, is toxic to corneal epithelium, delays healing of corneal defects, and may result in corneal cloudiness. These side effects prohibit the use of proparacaine as a therapeutic agent. * Excessive amounts of anesthetics applied to mucosal surfaces may cause cardiac or respiratory abnormalities.

Answer 117

* Fur slip can occur if your chinchilla is being held tightly and trying to escape, if he is stressed out or if he gets his fur caught on something. * Typically fur slip is done to "escape" the situation your chinchilla is in * **often related to the stress of handling** * **If this happens, use minimal restraint in the future**

Answer 118

* surgical incision into the eardrum, to relieve pressure or drain fluid. * Can use to assess for otitis media

Answer 119

* Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD) is a polymicrobial infection in soft tissue adjacent to the hoof and is the leading cause of lameness in dairy cattle. * **Treponema phagedenis-like (TPL) spirochetes** are a constant feature of PDD lesions and are localized deep in infected tissue

Answer 120

* **cornified epithelium** * Rising levels of estrogen cause the vaginal epithelium to become "cornified" - the surface cells become large and flattened, with small or absent nuclei. In essence, vaginal cytology is a type of endocrine assay. * **During estrus the vaginal epithelium is very thick. You will see almost 100% cornification.**

Answer 121

**doxycycline**

Answer 122

**Anthrax**

Answer 123

**CULL** * Mycoplasma is a contagious pathogen, and thus is transmitted cow-to-cow through infected milk on milking equipment or milker’s hands. * There is no treatment for Mycoplasma mastitis and once infected, cows should be considered infected for life. The only means of control is identification, segregation and culling

Answer 124

**Atropine** * Atropine sulfate causes a significant increase in IOP when given both topically and by intramuscular injection. It should be used with caution, or indeed avoided entirely, in dogs with glaucoma or in those with a predisposition to the condition.

Answer 125

Thoroughbreds * Horses with laryngeal hemiplegia have **paralysis of the arytenoid cartilage**, which prevents them from abducting or opening their throat during inspiration. * This leads to decreased airflow into the lungs due to obstruction from the paralyzed cartilage resulting in respiratory noise and exercise intolerance * Roaring (laryngeal hemiplegia) is a condition in horses that greatly reduces their airflow during exercise. Affected horses make a “roar” sound under work

Answer 126

While coccidioidomycosis can be **definitively diagnosed via biopsy**, the most common way it is diagnosed is by testing for **antibodies to the organism (complement fixation (AGID) = IgG, tube precipiten test = IgM)** * low false positives --\> good specificity * This is a fungal disease caused by the soil fungus **Coccidioides immitis** * The early signs of coccidioidomycosis include fever, lethargy, lack of appetite, coughing, and joint pain. * The dog may develop **lameness and/or weakness,** as well as back and neck pain. In severe cases, if the organism spreads throughout the body, becoming systemic, the dog may develop **seizures or blindness due to the central nervous systems becoming involved.**

Answer 127

**anterior uveitis, fever** * Toxoplasmosis is a common infection from the microscopic parasite ***Toxoplasma gondii***. It appears in many species of animals, but **cats are the most common that transmit the parasite to humans**

Answer 128

* Fenbendazole * Ivermectin (not in turtles/tortoises!)

Answer 129

**4-6 weeks**

Answer 130

**annually**

Answer 131

* Whole blood selenium or liver selenium * Plasma Vitamin E

Answer 132

**need to aim to reduce Potassium content!** * decrease alfalfa * increase timothy hay/grass * put out to pasture * feed several times a day, exercise regularly

Answer 133

***Dichelobacter nodosus*** and ***Fusobacterium necrophorum*** * It is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus, a pathogen apparently highly specialised for feet, while Fusobacterium necrophorum, a secondary pathogen in footrot is reportedly ubiquitous on pasture * Have to treat fusobacterium necrophorum footrot with **systemic antibiotics** and local wound therapy

Answer 134

**Horse** * blood worm of the horse (nematode) * Strongylus vulgaris has at times been a very common parasite in horses; it was estimated that it was present in **90% to 100% of horses in the U.S.** * The inflammation caused by the strongyle travelling throughout the arteries and intestines can cause blood clots to form. * The clots can block oxygen passage to the intestines, causing parts of them to die. * Ultimately, besides causing abdominal pain (colic) in equines, the complications from S. vulgaris infestation can lead to death * **Control measures**: clean up and compost manure biweekly

Answer 135

* Urine constituents * Nutrition * Gender * Bacterial

Answer 136

* **left** sided **paralumbar fossa** **abomasopexy** * **right** sided **paralumbar fossa omentopexy** **HOWEVER** * **Right paramedian abomasopexy** and **right paralumbar fossa omentopexy** appear to be the most widely used means of correcting left displacement of the abomasum in dairy cattle * LDA can be corrected surgically using **right flank pyloric omentopexy**, **right paramedian abomasopexy**, **left paralumbar abomasopexy,** combined left flank and right paramedian laparoscopy (two-step procedure), or left flank laparoscopy (one-step procedure)

Answer 137

* TB = was "Accredited free" for TB, but United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) **downgraded California's TB status to _“Modified Accredited Advanced”_ in September 2008.** * Brucella = **Brucella free** * ****California has been **brucellosis free since 1997**. The disease may be avoided by employing effective sanitation and management practices

Answer 138

* BRSV has a predilection for the **lower respiratory tract**, where it can cause varying degrees of pneumonia by itself. * Secondary bacterial infections, frequently involving **Mannheimia (Pasteurella) haemolytica**, causes disease of greater severity or death. Transmission is via respiratory aerosols or from direct contact with infected cattle. * Clinical disease from uncomplicated BRSV tends to **favor young, previously unexposed cattle,** although mature animals can be clinically or subclinically infected. * Clinical infection produces **high fever, increased respiratory rate, spontaneous coughing, and nasal discharge.** * **_Diffuse interstitial pneumonia and emphysema_**

Answer 139

* Brucella * Listeriosis * Tuberculosis

Answer 140

* Ruminal parakeratosis is a disease of cattle and sheep characterized by **hardening and enlargement of the papillae of the rumen** * It is most common in animals fed a high-concentrate ration during the finishing period. * It also is seen in cattle fed rations of heat-treated alfalfa pellets, as well as in calves with prolonged ruminal acidosis due to ruminal drinking * The lesions are thought to be caused by the lowered pH and the increased concentration of volatile fatty acids (VFAs) in the ruminal fluid, and do not usually develop in cattle fed unprocessed whole grain (on which animals gain weight as readily). * The disease is **caused by a relative deficiency of zinc** * **Treat with zinc oxide**

Answer 141

**Doxycycline for 45 days**

Answer 142

* **biliary hyperplasia** * **hepatic fibrosis** * **megalocytosis** - Megalocytosis is caused by impaired cell division, resulting in enlarged hepatocytes with markedly enlarged nuclei Diagnose by **liver histopathology**

Answer 143

**Liver toxicity** - from the amanita mushroom (fungus) * **Amatoxins**, the primary toxins found in mushrooms of the genus Amanita, are very toxic to dogs. * Acute fulminant liver failure and death can occur within a few days of ingestion. By their curious nature, dogs, especially young dogs, are prone to ingest mushrooms.

Answer 144

* Diffusely hyperechoic * Highly granular

Answer 145

* is an infection in the lungs caused by the fungus Coccidioides. Coccidioidomycosis is commonly called **valley fever.** * You can get valley fever by inhaling spores from Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii fungi * **fungal agent that cuases polyarthritis in dogs** * Little threat to owner of infected animal * **pulmonary form is not zoonotic** * Coccidioidomycosis is not usually considered to be contagious; however, at least two cases of zoonotic transmission have been documented

Answer 146

**IM Medetomidine** * benefit: reversible!

Answer 147

* **Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate (DexSP)** - 0.1 mg/kg IM or IV * **Diphenhydramine (antihistamine)** - 2.2mg/kg IM

Answer 148

**Rapid nystagmus (they maintain reflexes)**

Answer 149

**Atrial fibrillation** * It typically develops when atrial enlargement occurs secondary to underlying cardiovascular disease. * The prognosis varies and is especially guarded in the presence of significant underlying cardiac disease, such as dilated cardiomyopathy * The physiologic consequences of AF include a reduction in cardiac output and development or worsening of clinical signs of heart failure * May note **tachycardia, pulse deficits, and a cough**

Answer 150

**Pasturella multocida**

Answer 151

* Feline cryptococcosis can often be diagnosed through an antigen detection test, known as a **Latex Agglutination Test (LAT)**, on a cat's blood, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid. * In certain cases with localized disease, such as nasal or cutaneous disease, the blood test may be negative even when cryptococcosis is suspected. * The most rapid method of diagnosis is cytologic evaluation of nasal exudate, skin exudate, CSF, or samples obtained by paracentesis of the aqueous or vitreous chambers of the eye or by impression smears of nasal or cutaneous masses. * Gram stain is most useful; the organism retains the crystal violet, whereas the capsule stains lightly red with safranin. * Tx: **Fluconazole**, Amphotericin B can be considered if severe but has severe side effects

Answer 152

* **BLV - Bovine leukosis virus** (lymphoma) * When retrobulbar lymph nodes are enlarged, proptosis or exophthalmos can result.

Answer 153

* dextrose * insulin * bicarbonate

Answer 154

**1-3 week old calves** * often 100% morbidity and 0% mortality

Answer 155

* Clenbuterol (bronchodilator) is an anabolic agent sometimes used for performance-enhancement by athletes to increase lean muscle mass and reduce body fat. * In some countries, clenbuterol has also been used to promote muscle mass and meat yield, including cattle, lamb, poultry, and swine. * **_Such use is illegal in the U.S. and in Europe,_** but reports have shown that it does occur in other countries, including China, Mexico, and Guatemala.

Answer 156

**Enzootic ataxia (swayback)** * caused by **copper deficiency** during the **prenatal/neonatal period.** * This condition is caused by bilateral, symmetric loss of myelin in the dorsolateral spinal cord tracts and the cerebral white matter. * The **congenital form** (present at birth) is called swayback. These kids may be unable to rise or may walk with severe incoordination. They may be depressed and have muscle tremors; most die soon after birth. These signs are due to the loss or abnormal formation of the “insulation” portion of the nervous system (myelin) and damage to some motor nerve cells. * **True enzootic ataxia** is the second form of this condition; it has a delayed onset of signs. Affected kids actually appear normal at birth but start showing problems between one week and six months of age. These animals are ataxic and also usually show hindquarter weakness or paralysis.

Answer 157

C. novyi (lies dormant in liver until anaerobic env't created by punch or liver fluke) --\> Black Disease

Answer 158

1. Transplacental 2. Transmammary 3. Fecal - oral

Answer 159

* Prolene is a **synthetic, monofilament, nonabsorbable polypropylene suture** * least reactive in skin * good for contaminated wound suturing on horses

Answer 160

**Retrobulbar 4-point block**

Answer 161

**BIRDS** * Western Equine Encephalitis is a viral illness that is transmitted to people and horses through the bite of an infected mosquito * Western equine encephalitis (WEE) is a viral disease carried by mosquitoes. WEE occurs in the western parts of the United States, including Iowa and Canada. WEE causes **“sleeping sickness” in horses**

Answer 162

**EHV-1/EHV-4**

Answer 163

* **Type 1,** characterized by roots with normal appearance of the periodontal ligament space, and radiodensity similar to adjacent tooth roots * **Type 2**, with extensive root replacement by alveolar bone and roots that are radiolucent when compared to adjacent tooth roots. * This classification provides clinically useful information regarding treatment, with teeth with **Type 1 resorption requiring complete extraction** and teeth with **Type 2 resorption being suitable candidates for crown amputation** with intentional root retention

Answer 164

* borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease) * Anaplasmosis

Answer 165

* **Hypoderma lineatum** migrates through the s**ubmucosa of the esophagus** * **H. bovi**s migrates in the **epidural fat of the spinal canal**. * In the spring the larvae migrate to the subcutaneous tissues of the dorsal back, where they cut an air hole and become stationary, forming a nodule * **must condemn the hide when affected**

Answer 166

**flunixin meglumine injection** **NSAID commonly used in horses and cattle** * overdose of banamine in bovids leads to **gastric ulceration** * **RESIDUE WARNINGS:** Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within four days of the last treatment. Milk that has been taken during treatment and for 36 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food.

Answer 167

LCAT = **_L_**atex **_C_**ryptococcal **_A_**ntigen agglutination **_T_**est * used to identify **cryptococcus** in cats * Latex cryptococcal antigen test to isolate capsular antigen from **serum, urine or CSF**. Antigen titers parallel severity of infection, therefore use to monitor response to treatment. * Primarily a disease of cats via the inhalation route. · Cats infected range from 1-13yrs, no breed or sex predilection. · Zoonotic risk for immunocompromised humans. · Usually infects **nasal cavity and sinuses of cats with signs of sneezing, stertorous breathing and nasal discharge** (uni- or bilateral; serous, mucopurulent or hemorrhagic). · Can cause a facial swelling over the nose. * May see CNS involvement in 1/4 of the Cryptococcus cases from infiltration through the cribriform plate or more likely from hematogenous spread. * Skin lesions are present in one third of infected cats. * Treatment: Surgery may work but chemotherapy more effective. * **Chemotherapy**- amphotericin B, 5-flucytosine and ketoconazole have been effective. Fluconazole crosses the BBB easily but other imidazoles have cured CNS infection. * Prognosis: good if no CNS involvement. Grave if CNS infection.

Answer 168

**opportunisitic infection -** look for predisposing env'tal factors * Aspergillosis is a fungal infection that commonly causes **respiratory disease in pet birds**. It can cause both upper (nose, sinuses, eye, and trachea) and lower (lungs and air sacs – a specialized part of the respiratory tract that birds have) respiratory problems or more broadly distributed systemic infections. * **birds on an all seed diet may be more prone to this disease** - seeds lack vitamin A, a nutrient essential to keeping both birds’ respiratory tracts and immune systems healthy. * Aspergillus is normally an environmental contaminant and is not contagious from bird to bird. It more commonly affects birds whose immune systems have been compromised by other diseases or by malnutrition.

Answer 169

* **_Acromegaly_** - In patients with acromegaly, chronic excess of growth hormone (GH) and insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) leads to the development of **acromegalic cardiomyopathy**. * **_Hyperthyroidism_** - left ventricular hypertrophy can occur secondary to hyperthyroidism and systemic hypertension, these diseases should always be considered when evaluating a cat with left ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 170

* Polycythaemia (Rubra) Vera, also known as primary polycythaemia vera, is a disorder where **too many red cells are produced in the bone marrow,** without any identifiable cause * Absolute increase in hematocrit * myeloproliferative disease

Answer 171

* **Epulides** are firm masses involving the gingival tissue, and constitute the most common benign oral tumors in dogs. These tumors arise from the **periodontal ligament,** which holds the tooth in place with relation to the jawbone. * Epulides occur less commonly in cats * They are seen in dogs of any age but occur more commonly in older dogs. * Shetland Sheepdogs and Old English Sheepdogs are predisposed to these tumors, however epulides can occur in any breed of dog. * Fibromatous and ossifying epulides are **solitary, non-invasive tumors, though they can grow quite large**. * These tumors are **benign**, and complete surgical excision is curative. * Acanthomatous epulides can behave more aggressively, with invasion into local tissues and destruction of underlying bone. * **_They generally do not metastasize (spread)_**, however because of their aggressive invasive and destructive biological behavior, surgical excision with a wide margin of normal tissue around the tumor is recommended to prevent recurrence

Answer 172

**ORF** * Contagious ecthyma is an infectious dermatitis of sheep and goats that affects primarily the lips of young animals. * zoonotic * The disease is found worldwide and is caused by a **parapoxovirus.** * **want to vaccinate as treatment and preventative**

Answer 173

* Dyspnea may occur during inspiration, expiration or both (mixed). * Clinically, **pure inspiratory dyspnea** implies a lesion in the respiratory tract **outside the thorax** * whereas **expiratory and mixed dyspnea** occur in patients **with thoracic or metabolic disease.** * **Expiratory effort** can be localized to **intrathoracic (bronchi, etc.)**

Answer 174

* Foothill abortion in cattle, also known as epizootic bovine abortion (EBA), is a tick-borne disease caused by the **bacteria *Pajaroellobacter abortibovis*** * Transmitted by ticks (**ornithodoros coriaceus**)

Answer 175

EHV-1 and 4 * given at **5, 7, and 9 months** of age

Answer 176

* Topical antibiotics w/ corticosteroids * Systemic NSAID --\> Banamine (flunixin meglumine)

Answer 177

California and National License

Answer 178

**30 days**

Answer 179

* **14-21 day incubation period** * Rhodococcus equi is a bacterium that lives in the soil and can cause pneumonia in young (1 to 6 months old) foals * **Rifampin** has been used in foals to control Rhodococcus equi pneumonia. Because rifamycins penetrate tissues and cells to a substantial degree, they are particularly effective against intracellular organisms.

Answer 180

**BENIGN NEGLECT, Sx, Chemo, cryotherapy, radiation** **NOT vaccination** * Equine sarcoids are the most common tumors seen and account for approximately nine out of every ten skin tumors seen in horses * believed to be caused by the **bovine papilloma virus** * tend to find on eyes, skin or genitals

Answer 181

* Kids infected with Mycoplasma mycoides mycoides (large colony variant) or other Mycoplasma spp may show severe lameness with multiple **hot swollen joints, weight loss, pyrexia, and poor coats.** * Some have diarrhea, and some have increased lung sounds and respiratory rates. * Affected kids are generally **2–4 wk old.** * Morbidity and mortality rates of **90% and 30%,** respectively, have been reported. Adult does with Mycoplasma infection may have mastitis and polyarthritis. * Treatment is with **tetracycline, tylosin, or tiamulin**, but prognosis for complete recovery is guarded.

Answer 182

* 4- methylpyrazole * 20% solution of ethanol

Answer 183

* Botulism in cattle is caused by toxins produced by ***Clostridium botulinum***. * Spores germinate in **moist, low-oxygen environments** such as rotting carcasses or decaying organic material and under favourable conditions proliferate and produce **botulinum toxin**, leading to intoxication if consumed * **Flaccid paralysis**

Answer 184

**prevent dusty environments or overcrowding** * Rhodococcus equi is ubiquitous in the environment of horse farms: it is found in **soil samples of equine farms** and horse feces in all continents other than Antarctica. * The vast majority – if not all – mares have R. equi in their feces. * The bacteria thrives in soil that is **contaminated with feces from horses or other herbivores**. * It is considered impossible to eliminate R. equi from the environment of mares and foals.

Answer 185

* **Onchocerciasis** is a dermatitis in equines and ruminants caused by microfilariae produced by adult Onchocerca. * The parasites are transmitted by various biting flies, and prevention is by topical repellent. * Diagnosis can be performed by histology or skin scraping to **identify the microfilariae**. * O cervicalis has been associated with fistulous withers, poll evil, dermatitis, and uveitis in horses * Microfilariae concentrate in the skin of the **ventral midline**. * Large numbers can be found in horses without dermatitis as well as in horses with dermatitis of the face, neck, chest, withers, forelegs, and abdomen. These lesions may be pruritic and often include areas of scale, crusts, ulceration, alopecia, and depigmentation. * Treat with **macrocytic lactones**

Answer 186

* Altrenogest (Intervet, Millsboro, DE) is a **synthetic progestin** approved for use in horses for the purpose of **suppressing estrus** * can also help contol behavior associated with **GCTs (Granulosa Thecal Cell Tumors)**

Answer 187

**more than 4 years old**

Answer 188

**Yellow Star thistle** * It is now common in open areas on roadsides, rangeland, wildlands, hay fields, pastures, and waste areas

Answer 189

**A Negative EIA status** * This disease remains active, at low levels, within the US horse population. Prior to introduction of routine testing, 3 in every 100 horses were positive for EIA. Since routine testing was introduced in 1973, the numbers have declined to 0.2% of horses testing positive * test using **Coggin's test**

Answer 190

* Guafenisin * ketamine * xylazine

Answer 191

* when an active CL is present * estrus should occur in 3-7 days after

Answer 192

**Gossypol toxicity** * Adult dairy cattle may show weakness, depression, anorexia, edema of the brisket, and dyspnea, and also have gastroenteritis, hemoglobinuria, and **reproductive problems** * Calves also suffer from gossypol toxicity with **heart failure** * **Gossypol is a natural constituent of many types of cotton**. It acts as an insecticide and protects the plant. The polyphenol binds to iron in cell constituents. * It may cause kidney damage, inhibit dehydrogenase enzymes, and uncouple phosphorylation in the cell. Acute gossypol toxicity in calves can be severe.

Answer 193

* **Oak tannins** are hydrolyzed in the rumen to toxic gallic acid, **pyrogallol.** * Cattle can normally eat some oak and handle the tannins, but when the diet consists of mainly oak the high levels of tannins disrupt the GI mucosa, and the gallic acid and pyrogallols destroy renal tubules. * Some hydrolyzed tannins are absorbed and bound to plasma proteins and endothelial proteins, leading to vascular damage and fluid and blood loss from vessels, resulting in edema. * **Ruminants are more susceptible** than horses because of the hydrolysis of gallotannins in the rumen.

Answer 194

FNA of LN * Salmon poisoning can be diagnosed with a f**ecal sample or a needle sample of a swollen lymph node.**

Answer 195

* **Pasteurella multocida** * or **Mannheimia hemolytica**

Answer 196

* Ketamine * alpha-2 agonists

Answer 197

**Chlamydophila abortus** * **late-term abortions, stillbirths, and weak lambs.** * EAE occurs worldwide, except for in Australia and New Zealand, and is most important in intensively managed sheep. * Abortions occur during the **last 2–3 weeks of gestation** regardless of when infection occurs, and the fetuses are fresh with **minimal autolysis.** * Definitive diagnosis is by identification of C abortus by ELISA, fluorescent antibody staining, PCR, or isolation.

Answer 198

**Buprenorphine** * No long term use of NSAIDs

Answer 199

**Paturella multocida**

Answer 200

Feed them pasteurized milk **help protect from CAE** - Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE) is a progressive, debilitating, and contagious disease in goats caused by a **lentivirus**, meaning it is a slow growing virus, which is one of the reasons it is hard for producers to control

Answer 201

**A) Yohimbine** **B) Atipamazole**

Answer 202

**Tyzzer's disease** * it is an acute epizootic bacterial disease found in rodents, rabbits, dogs, cats, birds, pandas, deer, foals, cattle, and other mammals including gerbils. * It is caused by the spore-forming bacterium **Clostridium piliforme**, formerly known as Bacillus piliformis. * Also, **Cecal dysbiosis** refers to the disruption of the delicate balance of organisms within the rabbit's digestive tract * Treatment for Tyzzer's: **Tetracycline**

Answer 203

**Up to 4 days** \*according to VIN\*

Answer 204

* causative agent of **Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis** * Equine granulocytic anaplasmosis is a febrile disease of horses caused by the tick-transmitted bacterium Anaplasma phagocytophilum. The disease can produce a high fever, which is responsive to tetracycline-class drugs. * Equine granulocytic anaplasmosis (EGA) is an infectious, noncontagious, seasonal disease, originally seen in the USA in northern California but now recognized in many states where the tick vectors occur; it is also seen in Europe, Africa, and South America. * A phagocytophilum frequently infects horses in some areas where the tick vector (***Ixodes sp*** ) is present. The geographic distribution mirrors that of cases in people. * horse may be found **lethargic, pyrexic, have limb oedema** * Horses \<1 year old may have a fever only; horses 1–3 years old may develop fever, depression, mild limb edema, and ataxia. Adults, and particularly geriatric horses, may exhibit fever, partial anorexia, depression, reluctance to move, limb edema, petechiation, and icterus

Answer 205

1. **Taylorella equingenitalis** - _Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)_ is a venereal disease caused by the bacteria, Taylorella equigenitalis affecting only the equine species. bacteria is localized in clitoral fossa and vaginal canal? 2. **Klebsiella, Streptococcus zooepidemicus, Pseudomonas, E.Coli**

Answer 206

* The sperm count (concentration of sperm per ejaculate) is **lower in late autumn and winter**, being only about half of that in spring and summer. The stud manager should not overwork the stallion at this time. * **Higher in summer!**

Answer 207

**Endocrine assay**

Answer 208

**Irrigated pasture,** benzimidazole **(may have resistance)** Irrigated pasture, **milbemycin/avermectin** - better answer?

Answer 209

**Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)** is a neurologic disease in horses caused by infection with the protozoan **Sarcocystis neurona (SN).** ## Footnote **NOT REPORTABLE IN CA**

Answer 210

**IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline**

Answer 211

**Dip the teat post-milking** A = environmental mastitis

Answer 212

**b) Culture the milk of all cows** **a)** (don’t culture mastitis pathogens on chocolate – use blood agar) b) (this milk is not in bulk tank – in hospital tank) d) (just tells you that you have a high SCC and leukocytes which you already know)

Answer 213

1. **Sodium iodide**

Answer 214

c) **BRSV -** (diffuse interstitial pneumonia/emphysema) **a)** (bronchopneumonia with CV distribution) b) (CV lung consolidation, bronchiolitis and alveolitis)

Answer 215

**IBR** **c)** (no abortions late term) d) (not in CA)

Answer 216

**Xylaxine**

Answer 217

**Respiratory signs (4-ipomeanol = pneumotoxin)**

Answer 218

**Cervical abscess** 1. – head pressing, ataxia, cortical blindness

Answer 219

**Membrane slip** a) placentomes at (75-90 d) b) 120 days gestation of cow - about 285 days

Answer 220

**Rotavirus (1-3 weeks old)** b. Coccidia (3+ weeks) d. Two types of pneumonia are associated with Mycoplasma infections: contagious bovine pleuropneumonia and enzootic pneumonia of calves.

Answer 221

**Prostatic neoplasia**

Answer 222

**Fecal float** **b.** (bacteremia) a. (microfilaria)

Answer 223

**Don’t supplement calcium (will grow too fast, cause skeletal mal and OCD)**

Answer 224

**42 days** BIRDS NEED TO BE TREATED WITH **TETRACYCLINE** IN WATER FOR _45 days_

Answer 225

**10 days**

Answer 226

**Coccidiomycoses**

Answer 227

1. **Toxoplasmosis, Cryptosporidium, Campylobbacter, Brucella**

Answer 228

**Butorphanol tartrate**

Answer 229

**Remove mucocele and salivary gland on ipsilateral side**

Answer 230

**Herpesvirus**

Answer 231

**Metaldehyde** \*other 3 are in rat poisons

Answer 232

**Adrenal**

Answer 233

**Don’t treat** **b.** (microfilaria) = USUALLY no microfilaria a. (adulticide) = CONTRAINDICATED!!

Answer 234

**12-24 hours before surgery**

Answer 235

**Serology (IgG and IgM)**

Answer 236

**Wet mount of crop/esophagus (**lives in sinuses, mouth, throat)

Answer 237

**Decreased appetite**

Answer 238

**Juvenile cellulitis** * Juvenile cellulitis most commonly affects young puppies, between one and six months of age. In rare cases, juvenile cellulitis can also affect young adult dogs and has been reported in dogs up to four years old. * The underlying cause of juvenile cellulitis has not yet been identified. This condition is currently regarded as idiopathic, meaning that its cause is currently unknown. The condition does appear to have an immune-mediated component, meaning that the puppy's immune system is attacking the puppy’s own skin, but the underlying cause of this immune attack has not yet been identified. * The first sign of juvenile cellulitis is usually an **acute (sudden) swelling of the face and muzzle.** This generalized swelling is typically followed by the development of raised bumps and pustules (pus-filled bumps or pimples) over the face, muzzle, and ears. * Juvenile cellulitis is an **immune-mediated disease**. Therefore, treatment of juvenile cellulitis relies upon suppressing the immune system, to stop the auto-immune reaction. The most commonly used drug for this condition is **prednisone**, which is typically administered over a period of several weeks and gradually tapered

Answer 239

**Arterial blood pressure**

Answer 240

**FIV** \*too old for FeLV

Answer 241

**Biopsy and histopathology**

Answer 242

**Polycystic kidney disease**

Answer 243

Serum TLI is increased in only approximately 30-40% of cats and dogs with pancreatitis; normal test results do not rule out the possibility of pancreatic inflammation. If pancreatitis is suspected, a PLI test should be performed. In cats increased serum TLI is often also observed with small intestinal disease. In these cases serum concentrations of cobalamin and folate should be determined for evaluation of the small intestine. 1. **TLI -** SERUM TRYPSIN-LIKE IMMUNOREACTIVITY

Answer 244

**Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin** * Strangles is a highly contagious disease of the equine upper respiratory tract caused by the bacterium **Streptococcus equi subspecies equi (S. equi).** The bacteria cross mucous membranes in the nose and mouth to infect lymph nodes where they cause abscesses that can eventually rupture. The infected lymph nodes become swollen, which can compress the upper respiratory tract (hence, the name strangles).

Answer 245

**Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13^th rib** d. relative to an RDA

Answer 246

**Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs** **\* DO NOT TRANSPORT \***

Answer 247

**Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning**

Answer 248

**Hydrocephalus** * **fontanelle** = a space between the bones of the skull in an infant or fetus, where ossification is not complete and the sutures not fully formed. The main one is between the frontal and parietal bones

Answer 249

**14-21 days** (according to VIN) whereas strangles is about 3-14 days

Answer 250

1. **Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads**

Answer 251

a. **ELISA test after 6 months** ## Footnote **b. NO** **Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.**

Answer 252

**28 days**

Answer 253

Name, Telephone #, **hours and emergency clinic location/phone #**, **emergency #**

Answer 254

**3-10days** (3-14 days according to Merck)

Answer 255

**CAEV ( causes polyarthritis with calcification)** **a.** (*M. mycoides spp. Mycoides* causes polyarthritis with necrosis)

Answer 256

**Amikacin IM, in front leg**

Answer 257

1. **Jaw grown wrong** **(points in front of the front cheek teeth and in the back of the back caudal teeth)**

Answer 258

1. ***Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis***

Answer 259

1. **Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils)** 2. **Infected neutrophils**

Answer 260

**Miosis, blepharospasm, low intraocular pressure, hyperemia**

Answer 261

1. Normal: **(protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%; Ca:P = 1:3)**

Answer 262

1. **Thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, increased D-dimers, increased PT/PTT, increased FDP, decreased antithrombin!**

Answer 263

**Craniomedial**

Answer 264

1. Quaratine, **intramammary cefa during lactation**, post-dip teats and cull if chronic

Answer 265

1. Contagious: Strep agalactiae, S. aureus, M. bovis 2. Environmental: E. coli, Strep dysagalactiae, strep uberus 3. DX: elevated SCC (nucleated cells found in milk \>600,000), CMT (\>1+), culture 4. TX: frequent milking, intramammary (Cefa) and systemic antibiotics, fluids, NSAIDs (banamine); cull if chronic

Answer 266

**Perform CMT on all cows** or culture bulk tank ?

Answer 267

1. **Thoracic ultrasound**

Answer 268

**Oakbud**

Answer 269

**Increase Energy in diet**

Answer 270

**exercise, offer water, psyllium** avoid: stall rest, laxatives

Answer 271

1. **Along a line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13.**

Answer 272

**Miosis, enophthalmos, ptosis and 3^rd eyelid protrusion**

Answer 273

**Epinephrine** dex leads to PU/PD

Answer 274

**Serology** (paired IgG serum titers)

Answer 275

**Salmonella** (feces contaminated milk)

Answer 276

**Potentiates anesthetic drugs**

Answer 277

1. **EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4, equine influenza**

Answer 278

1. Tumor is in right lung lobe.

Answer 279

**b. dermatophytosis,**

Answer 280

**fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI**

Answer 281

titers, IgM goes up first 1:2000, then IgG later (do paired)

Answer 282

**antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash**

Answer 283

Caudoventral **pylorus to the fundus**

Answer 284

**Herpes B**

Answer 285

Leaving udders and teats wet before milking?

Answer 286

**Left heart hypertrophy**

Answer 287

**Alfalfa**

Answer 288

**transverse colon**

Answer 289

**30 years**

Answer 290

**anoplocephala** (horse tapeworm)

Answer 291

**Tetracycline**

Answer 292

**stomach roundworm of dogs/cats**

Answer 293

**rare occurrence**

Answer 294

**Morphine, ket/val, iso** 1. = nothing with barbiturate

Answer 295

**Polyoma virus** * The polyomavirus is usually contracted through direct contact with other infected birds. It is also contracted from infected feces, dander, air, nest boxes, incubators, feather dust or from an infected parent passing it to chick. * There is **no known treatment for the polyomavirus disease.**

Answer 296

**Bovine Granulocytic ehrlichiosis** caused by ***Anaplasma phagocytophilum*** transmitted by **Ixodes pacificus** in CA

Answer 297

polyoma virus

Answer 298

Normal temp, increased P and R Horse (Adult): T: 37.5-38.5C (99-101F) P: 36-40 bpm R: 8-15 brpm

Answer 299

1. **Dermatophytes** (T. mentagrophytes)

Answer 300

**Decrease sunlight**

Answer 301

Yellowstar thistle \*Poorly managed pasture \*Late summer \*"chewing disease" or nigropallidal encephalomalacia \*Clinical signs: -Often referred to as 'chewing disease' because affected horses try endlessly to bite-off, hold and chew food without success. The mouth may be held open and the tongue protrudes or is curled from side to side. Horses act as if they are 'choked'. Mouth abrasions and ulcers may also develop as a result of trauma to the gums and tongue. Weight loss can be severe -Hypertonicity of facial muscles affecting normal movement of the lips, cheeks and tongue

Answer 302

**Tularemia**

Answer 303

**Induce emesis (because amitraz is an OP)** ## Footnote Organophosphate poisoning is poisoning due to organophosphates (OPs). Organophosphates are used as insecticides, medications, and nerve agents. Symptoms include increased saliva and tear production, diarrhea, vomiting, small pupils, sweating, muscle tremors, and confusion.

Answer 304

**Butorphanol (mu antagonist, kappa agonist)**

Answer 305

1. **Strychnine (rat bait)**

Answer 306

**3 years**

Answer 307

**3 years** (Same as medical records)

Answer 308

**Fecal occult blood (Bleeding due to GI ulcers)** The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is a lab test used to check stool samples for hidden (occult) blood

Answer 309

Infectious disease

Answer 310

**Neutrophils and eosinophils**

Answer 311

**Thromboytopenia**

Answer 312

1. **Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed**

Answer 313

1. **Cryptococcus** (mass over nose)

Answer 314

**Feed mixed with chicken feed** (high in nitrites)

Answer 315

**Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain** **\* Signs of COLIC\***

Answer 316

**Milk tetany** Grass tetany may also be referred to as lactation tetany, winter tetany and milk tetany in calves. Cows are most susceptible to tetany immediately prior to calving and when they are nursing a calf. Often hypomagnesemia occurs along with hypocalcemia (low blood Ca).

Answer 317

1. **Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy**

Answer 318

**30 day (embryonic vesicles)**

Answer 319

TB: Accredited Free California is "Accredited Free" for Bovine Tuberculosis. The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) maintains a monitoring system that classifies states based on the presence of bovine TB within a state's cattle population Brucella Free

Answer 320

State Board | (if not, can contact the USDA)

Answer 321

**Tetracycline**

Answer 322

**Loop diuretic** (furosemide) – should be mannitol (osmotic diuretic) b. Topical beta-blockers reduce the intraocular pressure (IOP) by blockade of sympathetic nerve endings in the ciliary epithelium causing a fall in aqueous humour production In the emergency treatment of acute glaucoma, intraocular pressure must be reduced urgently. This is done pharmacologically using **osmotic diuretics** such as mannitol or glycerol in combination with other topical and systemic drugs.

Answer 323

**Transitional period**

Answer 324

**Prolactin inhibitors** (dopamine agonists) - they will reabsorb the conceptus Humans: Dopamine in the amniotic fluid was approximately 1.1 ng/ ml throughout most of gestation, but rose to 2.4 ng/ml near term

Answer 325

**Monocytes**

Answer 326

**Serum AB AGID (IgG and IgM)** – low false positives

Answer 327

Coccidiosis is seen in animals up to two years old, and is particularly common in calves between **three weeks and six months of age**. Cattle become infected when placed in environments contaminated by older cattle or other infected calves 1. 4 month old heifers in pen – tx with monensin 2. 4 month old heifers on pasture – tx with monensin 3. Feed lot + tetracycline

Answer 328

**CA license and federal accreditation**

Answer 329

**Erythema and edema**

Answer 330

**Vitamin B (thiamine)**

Answer 331

**Tricuris suis (whipworm - prevent by raising pigs off soil)** **ascaris suum --\> roundworm (milk spot liver) -** Milk spot liver mainly results from the migration of larval Ascaris suum worms. The adults occur in the small intestine and may be up to 40 cm long

Answer 332

**Donkeys**

Answer 333

**Creatinine in abdomen fluid \> serum (2x greater)**

Answer 334

**Naloxone**

Answer 335

***Anaplasma phagocytophilum*** (Equine granulocytic ehrlichosis)

Answer 336

1. **Fecal float** (looking for Nanophytes eggs) and **lymph node aspirate** (looking for neorickettsia)

Answer 337

**Nasopharyngeal polyp** **b. (ear)** **c. older animal more likely**

Answer 338

**Oral ulcers and lameness**

Answer 339

**Normal**

Answer 340

**No signs** **sheep: edema of the face, lameness/sore feet**

Answer 341

**Butorphanol -** (mu antagonist, kappa agonist) - high affinity for opioid receptor sites, hard to remove b) (mu agonist) c) NSAID d) (partial mu agonist and kappa antagonist)

Answer 342

**Refractometer of total proteins** (5.2 g/dl = IgG of 1000 mg/dL) c) (gold standard) b) (more rapid – visible at 400-500 mg/dL IgG)

Answer 343

proportion of disease negative animals that test negative (true neg/true neg + false positive)

Answer 344

**Fetal deformities** (Cyclopia)

Answer 345

**Malignant Catarrhal Fever**

Answer 346

**Class II drugs dispensed**

Answer 347

**Ancyclostoma** **c.** (visceral and ocular larval migrans) d. (visceral larval migrans)??

Answer 348

1. **History of antibiotics?** (TMS causes KCS)

Answer 349

**Polyoma virus** pacheco's = (Herpesvirus causing sudden death with green/yellow urates)

Answer 350

**Newcastle, avian influenza…** **Infectious bronchitis…**

Answer 351

**Yellow star thistle poisoning** b. (parasympatholytic) c. (dysphagia, epistaxis)

Answer 352

**Sporothrix**

Answer 353

**Hypocalcemia** (all seed diet)

Answer 354

**Sarcoptes**

Answer 355

**Bronchi (intrathoracic)**

Answer 356

**Xylazine**

Answer 357

**Endoscopy**

Answer 358

1. **Make sure teats are dry between milking**

Answer 359

Propofol (decreases IOP)

Answer 360

**Proparacaine - LA** **c.** dilation of pupil

Answer 361

**Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture**

Answer 362

***Toxacara canis*** (**transplacental**, transmammary, fecal/oral) b. fecal - oral --\> toxascaris leonina is a parasitic nematode common in cats, dogs and other canids (e.g. foxes, coyotes, wolves) c. fecal-oral --\> whipworm d. (burrowing, fecal-oral, transmammary) --\> Strongyloides stercoralis is an intestinal nematode ofhumans that infects tens of millions of people worldwide

Answer 363

**Butorphanol** d. = (aspirin)

Answer 364

**Creatinine abdominal fluid \> serum**

Answer 365

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme’s disease) --\> **Ixodes** (also Anaplasmosis) c. (RMSF) d. (Ehrlichiosis and Babesia)

Answer 366

**Anaplasma phagocytophilum** (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis) a. (Potomac Horse fever)

Answer 367

1. Within the first month of lactating (after freshening)

Answer 368

**Sodium iodide** Infection with A. lignieresii is responsible for the **wooden tongue disease** characterised by the presence of granulomas with pus containing small, hard yellow to white granules.

Answer 369

1. Rumenotomy

Answer 370

**The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis**

Answer 371

Clindamycin

Answer 372

**Vitamin A**

Answer 373

**This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors**

Answer 374

**Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV**

Answer 375

**Febrile, tachypneic. Don’t perform surgery** (HR is WNL)

Answer 376

**Selamectin**

Answer 377

**Rift Valley Fever**

Answer 378

**Herpesvirus** (dendritic ulcers)

Answer 379

**Complement fixation** (Chlamydia psittaci latex agglutination antigen)