Test Questions from Practice Exams Flashcards
Computer-assisted administration and interpretation in neuropsychology have developed mainly in large organizational contexts and focuses on specialized problems. Specifically, ____________ has been used in the selection of airline pilots to quickly assess deficits or changes in attention, immediate- and short-term memory, visual perceptual functions, sequencing functions, logical problem-solving, calculation skills, reaction time, simultaneous information processing abilities, and executive functions.
Select one:
A. Unified Tri-service Cognitive Performance Assessment Battery (UTC-PAB)
B. Neurobehavioral Evaluation System (NES)
C. CogScreen
D. Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Batteries (CANTAB)
The correct answer is C.
CogScreen was designed to meet the Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) need for an instrument that could detect subtle changes in cognitive functioning. This neurocognitive test battery is used for medical recertification evaluation of pilots with known or suspected neurological and/or psychiatric conditions.
Answer A: The UTC-PAB is an evaluation of cognitive performance in the chemical defense biomedical drug screening program. Information processing, decision making, perception, and mental workload capacity are among the processes and abilities assessed with the battery.
Answer B: The NES includes over a dozen neurobehavioral tests of psychomotor speed and control, perpetual speed, learning, attention, and affect. This battery is sensitive to the impact of environmental toxins.
Answer D: The CANTAB includes sensitive, precise, and objective measures of cognitive function, correlated to neural networks. This battery of tests detects and locates brain damage, including early signs of Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, and Huntington’s diseases.
A large number of tests is available for the early detection and diagnosis of dementia. Which of the following is widely used to measure behavioral disturbances experienced in those with dementia?
Select one:
A. Mini-Cog
B. Severe Impairment Battery (SIB)
C. Brief Cognitive Status Exam (BCSE)
D. The Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI)
The correct answer is D.
The Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI) was developed to assess dementia-related behavioral symptoms, which other assessments did not sufficiently address. Domains addressed include delusions, hallucinations, agitation/aggression, dysphoria, anxiety, euphoria, apathy, disinhibition, irritability/lability, aberrant motor activity, nighttime behavioral disturbances, and appetite/eating abnormalities.
Answer A: The Mini-Cog is a brief test of cognition used to determine if an individual may be in the early stage of Alzheimer’s disease or related dementia. It includes a three-word recall and the Clock Drawing Test.
Answer B: The SIB was developed for individuals who are too impaired to complete standard neuropsychological tests and is appropriate for adults age 51 to 91 years old.
Answer C: The BCSE helps evaluate global cognitive functioning in patients with dementia, mild mental retardation, traumatic brain injuries, or suspected Alzheimer’s disease.
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test is sensitive to damage in which area of the brain?
Select one:
A. Temporal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Frontal lobe
D. Cerebellum
The correct answer is C.
The Stroop measures cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition. This test is, therefore, sensitive to frontal lobe damage, and poor performance has been associated with ADHD, mania, depression, and schizophrenia.
Answer A: The temporal lobe is responsible for creating and preserving both conscious and long-term memory. Therefore, it is not sensitive to this test.
Answer B: The parietal lobe processes sensory information it receives from the outside world, mainly relating to touch, taste, and temperature. This area of the brain would not be sensitive to the Stroop.
Answer D: The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, balance, coordination, and posture. This area of the brain would not be tested using the Stroop test.
____________ tests are applied to assess the failure of inhibitory responses, or stimulus-boundedness—for example, asking a patient to tap twice in response to a single tap given by the examiner.
Select one:
A. Clock drawing
B. Go-No-Go
C. Western Aphasia Battery
D. Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Examination
The correct answer is B.
Go-No-Go tests measure response inhibition. For these tests, individuals respond to certain stimuli (“go” stimuli) and make no response for others (“no-go” stimuli). The dependent measure in Go-No-Go tests is the commission error rate (making a “go” response on “no-go” trials); fewer errors signify better response inhibition.
Answer A: The clock drawing test is a tool used to screen for signs of neurological problems, such as cognitive impairment and dementia. Placement of the numbers around the circle requires visual-spatial, numerical sequencing, and planning abilities.
Answer C: The Western Aphasia Battery assesses linguistic skills most frequently affected by aphasia as well as nonlinguistic skills, and provides differential diagnosis information for individuals ages 18 to 89 years.
Answer D: Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Examination is a screening test composed of tests of attention, orientation, memory, and language, as well as visual perceptual and visuospatial skills. It is useful in the detection of cognitive impairment, particularly Alzheimer’s disease and frontotemporal dementia.
Which of the following scales on the MMPI-2 is a measure of consistency in responding and consists of paired items that would be expected to be answered in the same direction?
Select one:
A. True Response Inconsistency (TRIN)
B. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)
C. F Back (Fb)
D. Infrequency-Pathology (Fp)
The correct answer is B.
An elevated score on the VRIN scale suggests an invalid profile. This scale is a measure of consistency in responding and consists of paired items that would be expected to be answered in the same direction.
Answer A: The TRIN scale consists of paired items that are the opposite of each other. It provides an additional measure of consistency in responding and is interpreted in the same way as the TRIN scale.
Answer C: The Fb scale is used to identify an attempt to “fake bad” on the last 197 items of the test and is interpreted similarly to the F scale.
Answer D: The Fp scale consists of items that were infrequently endorsed by psychiatric patients, and a high score indicates an attempt to “fake bad” even if the examinee is a psychiatric patient.
The ____________ includes standardized instruments for assessing adaptive functioning and behavioral, emotional, and social problems from one to 90 years and older.
Select one:
A. Test of Memory Malingering (TOMM)
B. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery (HRNB)
C. Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment (ASEBA)
D. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales - 3rd Edition (Vineland-3)
The correct answer is C.
The ASEBA is a comprehensive approach to assessing adaptive and maladaptive functioning. It is a comprehensive, evidence-based assessment system developed through research and practical experience that assesses competencies, strengths, adaptive functioning, and behavioral, emotional, and social problems.
Answer A: The TOMM is a visual recognition test designed to help distinguish malingering from genuine memory impairments in individuals age 16 to 84.
Answer B: The HRNB is a battery of neuropsychological tests designed to evaluate the functioning of the brain and nervous system in individuals aged 15 years and older.
Answer D: The Vineland-3 is a standardized assessment tool that utilizes a semi-structured interview to measure adaptive behavior and support the diagnosis of intellectual and developmental disabilities, autism, and developmental delays.
Common validity scale configurations on the MMPI-2 seen in clinical settings are determined using the L, F, and K scales. Which of the following configurations is characteristic of clients that admit to personal and emotional difficulties, request assistance with their problems, and are unsure of their own capabilities for dealing with their problems?
Select one:
A. The L scale and the K scale are elevated above a T score of at least 60, and the F scale is below a T score of 50.
B. The L scale is less than the F scale, and the F scale is less than the K scale.
C. The L scale is greater than the F scale, which is greater than the K scale.
D. The L scale and the K scale are below a T score of 50, and the F scale is at or above a T score of 65.
The correct answer is D.
The validity scale configuration where the L scale and the K scale are below a T score of 50 and the F scale is at or above a T score of 65 is the most frequently encountered array in clinical settings. Clients with this configuration are admitting to personal and emotional difficulties, are requesting assistance, and are unsure of their resources to deal with these problems. Under most conditions, this configuration is most desirable for any form of psychological intervention or treatment.
Answer A: For the validity scale configuration where the L scale and the K scale are elevated above a T score of at least 60 and the F scale is below a T score of 50, clients are attempting to avoid or deny unacceptable feelings, impulses, and problems. That is, they are trying to present themself in the best possible light. These clients may tend to be simplistic and view the world in terms of extreme goods or bad.
Answer B: The configuration where the L scale is less than the F scale and the F scale is less than the K scale is typical of an individual who has the appropriate resources for dealing with problems and who is not experiencing any stress or conflict at present.
Answer C: In this configuration, the L scale is greater than the F scale, which is greater than the K scale. The clients who produce this type of validity configuration are likely to be naive and unsophisticated but answer questions in an attempt to “look good.”
Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following?
Select one:
A. Habitual responses
B. Levels of functioning
C. Theory of needs
D. Impairment indexes
The correct answer is C.
The TAT is based on Henry Murray’s theory of needs. Murray’s system involves identifying the story’s “hero” and evaluating the intensity, frequency, and duration of needs, environmental press, theme, and outcomes expressed in each story.
Answer A: The Stroop Color-Word Association Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can suppress a habitual response in favor of an unusual one.
Answer B: The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning - Revised was developed to measure cognitive recovery following a head injury. It includes scales that assess levels of functioning.
Answer D: The Halstead-Reitan is a neuropsychological battery. Interpretation of an examinee’s performance on the H-R involves considering performance on the individual tests as well as overall performance, which is summarized by calculating the Halstead Impairment Index (HII).
Which of the following, in conjunction with other sources of information, is considered a valid screening device for identifying brain damage, assessing school readiness in first graders, predicting academic achievement, and identifying emotional problems?
Select one:
A. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test-II
B. Benton Visual Retention Test
C. Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery VMI)
D. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)
The correct answer is A.
The Bender-Gestalt II is a brief measure of visual-motor integration for individuals ages three and older and is used as a measure of visual-motor development and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. It is considered a valid screening device for brain damage, but to avoid false negatives, it should be used in conjunction with other sources of information. It is not accurate for identifying personality characteristics or for making psychiatric diagnoses.
Answer B: The Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT) is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills to identify brain damage in individuals ages eight and older.
Answer C: The Beery VMI is used to assess the visual-motor integration skills of individuals ages two and older to identify deficits that are associated with neurological impairments or might lead to learning and behavior problems.
Answer D: The WCST is used to assess the ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback in individuals ages six to 80. This test is sensitive to frontal lobe damage, and impaired performance has been linked to alcoholism, autism, schizophrenia, depression, and malingering.
The theory in social psychology which suggests that people are motivated to defend and maintain the status quo in order to keep believing that society, politics, the economy, etc., are legitimate is known as _______________.
Select one:
A. social identity theory
B. system justification theory
C. self-verification theory
D. self-perception theory
The correct answer is B.
System justification theory suggests that people are motivated to defend and justify the status quo in order to keep seeing society, politics, and other social systems as just and legitimate.
Answer A: Social identity theory proposes that group identity is an important part of a person’s self-concept and that people are motivated to maintain a positive group identity by viewing their own social group as positive and distinct relative to other groups.
Answer C: Self-verification theory predicts that, once a person’s self-concept is formed, the person seeks to maintain it by using cognitive and behavioral strategies that are designed to obtain information that is consistent with that self-concept.
Answer D: Self-perception theory proposes that, when internal cues are insufficient or difficult to interpret, people acquire information about themselves by observing their external behaviors and/or the context in which those behaviors occur.
A supervisor attempts to increase his influence by being sensitive to the needs of his subordinates and by acting as a role model. This supervisor is relying on which of the bases of power identified by French and Raven (1959):
Select one:
A. coercive power
B. legitimate power
C. reward power
D. referent power
The correct answer is D.
French and Raven identified five “bases of power” in their power and social influence studies. They are “reward,” “coercive,” “legitimate,” “expert,” and “referent.” A sixth base of power was later identified as “informational power.” Referent power applies to the scenario in the question, as it is defined as a leader’s ability to influence followers due to the followers’ admiration and respect for the leader–the follower will “refer” to what the leader would do.
Answer A: Coercive power is defined as the use of force to get a follower/employee to comply.
Answer B: Legitimate power is defined as a formal type of power based on a leader’s place on the hierarchy. Followers/employees comply because of their belief in the leader’s legitimate power.
Answer C: Reward power is defined as the use of and withholding of rewards to get an employee to comply.
Herek (1992) attributes violence against gays and lesbians to:
Select one:
A. heterosexism
B. a deviant society
C. homophobia
D. repressed sexuality
The correct answer is A.
Herek (1992) attributes the prejudice and violence against gay people not to homophobia, but to a stigma-perpetuating ideology referred to as heterosexism.
Answers B, C, D: These choices do not comprise Herek’s ideas regarding violence and prejudice toward gay people. The cultural ideology of heterosexism is believed to be the key factor.
The term in social psychology that refers to the way people prioritize their goals, in this case, focusing on the priorities of the group, as opposed to the individual, is known as:
Select one:
A. altruism
B. collectivism
C. social conformity
D. selfless
The correct answer is B.
Collectivism is a concept of social psychology that refers to focusing on the priorities of the group, as opposed to the individual (individualism).
Answer A: Altruism is the principle of having concern for the happiness of others.
Answer C: Social conformity occurs when, as the result of real or imagined social pressure, a person shifts his or her actions in a way so that they correspond to those of other people.
Answer D: To be selfless, one is thought to have more concern with the needs and wishes of another, over oneself.
Research investigating the effects of the “jigsaw method” in the classroom has demonstrated that it:
Select one:
A. increases aggression, especially toward the provocateur
B. reduces racial/ethnic stereotyping
C. increases inter-group competition
D. has a negative effect on academic achievement
The correct answer is B.
The jigsaw method involves having teams of students work together to complete an assignment, with each member being assigned a different task or aspect of the assignment. The jigsaw method has been found to have a number of beneficial effects, including raising self-esteem, improving cooperation, and reducing racial/ethnic stereotyping. In terms of academic achievement, it tends to improve the performance of minority-group children and either increases or has no effect on the performance of majority-group children.
Answer A: The “jigsaw method” does not increase aggression.
Answer C: The “jigsaw method” increases cooperation and intergroup functioning.
Answer D: The “jigsaw method” increases the performance of minority-group children and either increases or has no effect on the performance of majority-group children.
Interval recording is most useful _____.
Select one:
A. for investigating rare events (behaviors) that typically involve counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event
B. for behaviors without a clear beginning or end (e.g., on-task behavior) and involves recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval
C. when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts
D. when an experimenter is interested in studying complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions)
The correct answer is B.
Interval recording is useful for behaviors that do not have a clear beginning or end (e.g., on-task behavior). It involves recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval.
Answer A: Event recording is used primarily to investigate rare events (behaviors) and usually involves counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event.
Answer C: Situational sampling is used when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts.
Answer D: Sequential analysis is used to study complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions).
A researcher instructs a participant to “think aloud” while solving complex geometry problems to identify the thought processes that underlie successful and unsuccessful problem-solving. The participant’s verbalizations will be recorded and analyzed. This technique is known as_____.
Select one:
A. protocol analysis
B. behavioral sampling
C. process analysis
D. situation sampling
The correct answer is A.
Protocol analysis is a qualitative research strategy used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks involving subjects to “think aloud” while solving a problem. The subject’s verbalizations are recorded and later coded in terms of relevant categories.
Answer B: Behavioral sampling is a quantitative method for sampling and recording frequency or duration of behavior, including interval recording and event sampling.
Answer C: Process analysis is a qualitative technique used to identify, classify, and understand weaknesses and opportunities for improving a process. Protocol analysis is used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks involving subjects to “think aloud” while solving a problem.
Answer D: Situational sampling is used when the goal of the study is to observe a behavior in a number of settings, whereas protocol analysis involves one setting and is used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks.
Dr. Angela Angst is using a repeated measures design to compare the effects of different techniques for reducing free-floating anxiety. To control potential carryover effects, Dr. Angst should use which of the following?
Select one:
A. Randomized blocking
B. Trend analysis
C. Counterbalancing
D. Point biserial correlation
The correct answer is C.
Carryover effects occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments. Counterbalancing distributes the carryover effects evenly across the treatment groups so their influence is balanced.
Answer A: Randomized blocks design are used for controlling extraneous variables that are NOT the result of using a repeated measures design.
Answer B: Trend analysis involves one or more quantitative independent variables and the researcher wants to evaluate the shape, pattern, or form of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
Answer D: The point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.
An interviewer unintentionally nods whenever research participants answer the questions in ways that confirm the study’s research hypothesis. The interviewer’s behavior is best described as an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A. Treatment diffusion
B. Demand characteristics
C. Placebo effect
D. Confirmation bias
A psychologist obtains a statistically significant F-ratio for the interaction between two independent variables (IVs). This means that_____.
Select one:
A. systematic error weakened the main effect
B. random error weakened the main effect
C. the relationship between a factor and the response differs by the level of the other factor
D. the psychologist should increase the level of significance
The correct answer is C.
When an interaction is statistically significant, the relationship between a factor and the response differs by the level of the other factor.
Answer A: When an interaction is statistically significant, it does not suggest systematic error had an impact on the main effect. Instead, it suggests that the relationship between a factor and the response differs by the level of the other factor.
Answer B: When an interaction is statistically significant, it does not suggest random error had an impact on the main effect. Instead, it suggests that the relationship between a factor and the response differs by the level of the other factor.
Answer C: If an interaction effect is already detected at the current level of significance, a psychologist should not increase the level of significance. Increasing the level of significance increases power or the ability to detect an effect, but in this case, an effect has already been detected. Increasing the level of significance also increases the risk of making a Type I error.
A researcher would use the Solomon four-group design to control which of the following threats to the validity of a research study?
Select one:
A. Regression to the mean
B. Experimental mortality
C. Maturation
D. Pre-testing effects
The correct answer is D.
The Solomon four-group design is used to measure the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.
Answer A: Regression to the mean is best controlled for by conducting a randomized controlled trial during the design stage.
Answer B: Experimental mortality cannot be directly controlled. Strategies such as trying to prevent dropouts, determining the cause of dropout, and determining whether it contributed to the differences observed can all be helpful in minimizing dropout.
Answer C: Maturation is often controlled by limiting the amount of time between pre and post-tests.
For children with ADHD, an academic achievement test has a mean of 40 and a standard deviation of 8. Assuming that the distribution of scores is normally shaped, you can conclude that 16% of these children obtained scores below a score of_____.
Select one:
A. 24
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
The correct answer is B.
To determine this answer, it is helpful to know the breakdown of percentages and standard deviations on the diagram of the normal curve. A score of 32 is one standard deviation below the mean, and roughly 15.8% of scores will fall below this score. This is the best answer of the options available.
Answer A: A score of 24 is two standard deviations below the mean and 2.2% of scores will fall below this score.
Answer C: This is the mean of achievement test scores. When looking at the mean, 50% of scores will fall above the mean and 50% will fall below.
Answer D: This is reflective of a score 1 standard deviation above the mean. When looking at the normal curve, 84% of scores will fall below this score.
In a negatively skewed distribution of scores_____.
Select one:
A. most of the scores fall towards the low end and few fall towards the high end. The mean is greater than the mode.
B. most of the scores cluster in the extreme high and low ends. The mean and the median are in the center, but there are two modes.
C. most of the scores fall in the high end with few falling in the low end. The mean is less than the mode.
D. most of the scores are evenly distributed, but they are negatively correlated to the independent variable.
The correct answer is C.
In a negatively skewed distribution, more values are concentrated on the right side of the distribution graph while the left tail of the distribution graph is longer, indicating outliers (i.e., most of the scores fall in the high end with few falling in the low end). With a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is always less than the mode because it is most affected by outliers whereas the mode is the most frequently occurring score.
Answer A: In a positively skewed distribution, more values are concentrated on the left side of the distribution, while the right tail of the distribution graph is longer. The mean has the highest value; the mode has the lowest value, and the median is between the mean and the mode.
Answer B: This describes a bi-modal distribution.
Answer D: This is unrelated to negatively skewed distributions.
Symbols for sample and population value
Researchers use non-parametric tests to analyze data on variables measured_____.
Select one:
A. with sampling error
B. without sampling error
C. on a nominal or ordinal scale
D. on any scale if they come from a distribution-free sample
The correct answer is C.
Nonparametric tests are the only tests used to analyze data on variables measured on a nominal or ordinal scale, whereas parametric tests can only be used to analyze variables that are continuous.
Answer A: Sampling error will not impact the use of a nonparametric test. Researchers use nonparametric tests when the assumptions of normality are violated or when the data are not continuous (nominal or ordinal).
Answer B: Sampling error will not impact the use of a nonparametric test. Researchers use nonparametric tests when the assumptions of normality are violated or when the data are not continuous (nominal or ordinal).
Answer D: Although nonparametric tests are used with distribution free samples, they are the only tests researchers can use with data measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.
When assessing the impact of gender on preference for three different study methods (written materials, workshop, combination of written materials and workshop), you would use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data you collect from 100 psychologists who have just started preparing for the licensing exam?
Select one:
A. Factorial ANOVA
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Multiple-sample chi-square test
D. Single sample chi-square test
The correct answer is C.
The chi-square test is used to analyze the frequency of observations in each category (level) of a nominal variable or other variable that is being treated as a nominal variable. Both gender and study methods are measured on a nominal scale and because there are 2 variables, you would use the multiple-sample chi-square test.
Answer A: The factorial ANOVA is an extension of the one-way ANOVA and is used when a study includes two or more independent variables and the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale. While there are two variables being described in the study, they are measured on a nominal scale, so a factorial ANOVA would not be an appropriate test.
Answer B: The one-way ANOVA is used when a study includes one IV and two or more independent groups and one DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale. All variables in the study described are measured on a nominal scale, so a one-way ANOVA would not be an appropriate test.
Answer D: The single-sample chi-square test is used when a descriptive study includes only one variable and the data to be analyzed are the frequency of observations in each category of that variable. There are two variables in the study described, so a single-sample chi-square test would not be appropriate.
Increasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05 will_____.
Select one:
A. decrease the probability of committing a Type-I error and thus correctly rejecting the null hypothesis
B. increase the probability of committing a Type-I error and thus incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis
C. increase the probability of committing a Type-II error and thus failing to reject a false null hypothesis
D. decrease the probability of committing a Type-II error and thus increases the probability of correctly rejecting the false null when it is true hypothesis
The correct answer is B.
Increasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05 will increase the probability of committing a Type-I error and thus incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis.
Answer A: This is the opposite of what would occur. To decrease the probability of committing a Type-I error, a researcher should decrease the level of significance from .05 to .01.
Answer C: The probability of committing a Type-II error is determined by beta, not alpha. When you increase the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05, the probability of committing a Type-I error (and incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis) increases.
Answer D: The probability of committing a Type-II error is determined by beta, not alpha. Increasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05 will increase the probability of committing a Type-I error and thus incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis.
The standard error of the mean (SEM) decreases as_____.
Select one:
A. the standard deviation increases
B. the standard deviation becomes larger than the standard error of the mean (SEM)
C. sample size decreases
D. sample size increases
The standard error of the mean (SEM) decreases as_____.
Select one:
A. the standard deviation increases
B. the standard deviation becomes larger than the standard error of the mean (SEM)
C. sample size decreases
D. sample size increases
Meta-analysis is used to describe _____.
Select one:
A. a detailed review and secondary qualitative analysis of primary qualitative findings to form a comprehensive research statistic
B. combining the results multiple research studies and calculating a shared significance level
C. integrating the various test statistics from several research studies to produce a common research statistic
D. a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of “effect size” estimates
The correct answer is D.
Meta-analysis is used to evaluate an intervention by combining the results of a number of research studies. It converts data from different studies, which may have different sample sizes, different outcome measures, etc., to a common metric. The result is a standard score that indicates the difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units, which allows researchers to compare results.
Answer A: This is a qualitative approach to meta-analysis and does not describe the rigorous quantitative calculations involved in creating a standard score or effect size involved in conducting a meta-analysis, so that different studies can be compared using a common metric.
Answer B: Because different studies involve different sample sizes, different outcome measures, and other factors unique to that study, it’s important to convert the data to a common standard metric to compare them. Otherwise, it is like comparing apples to oranges.
Answer C: Aggregating the test statistics from various studies doesn’t account for the variability across the studies and may introduce more errors. To compare studies, it is important to convert the data to a common metric (i.e., calculating an effect size).
A researcher will use trend analysis to analyze the collected data in a research study when _____.
Select one:
A. the study involves one or more quantitative independent variables and the researcher wants to evaluate the shape, pattern, or form of the relationship between independent and dependent variables
B. the population being studied is “distribution free” or a specialized distribution and not required to meet normal assumptions or parameters that accompany a normal distribution
C. both variables are measured on an ordinal scale and the relationship between them is of interest
D. both variables are true (natural) dichotomies and the relationship between them is of interest
The correct answer is A.
Trend analysis is useful for determining the nature of the relationship between a quantitative IV and DV and indicates if there is a significant linear, quadratic, cubic, or quartic trend.
Answer B: This is characteristic of non-parametric methods.
Answer C: Kendall’s tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale.
Answer D: The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies.
A researcher would use a multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) to analyze the data collected in a study when _____.
Select one:
A. the study involves one or more quantitative independent variables and the researcher wants to evaluate the shape, pattern, or form of the relationship between independent and dependent variables
B. using a mixed design where at least one IV is a between-groups variable and one IV is a within-subjects variable
C. using a within-subjects design where different levels of the IV or combinations of the levels of two or more IVs are sequentially administered to each subject
D. the study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale
The correct answer is D.
The MANOVA is appropriate when the study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale.
Answer A: Trend analysis is used for this purpose.
Answer B: A mixed (or split-plot) ANOVA is used for this purpose.
Answer C: This describes a Repeated Measures ANOVA.
A high school counselor uses a battery of tests to help high school juniors and seniors choose a college major. Which of the following multivariate techniques would be most helpful in this situation?
Select one:
A. Multiple regression
B. Canonical correlation
C. Discriminant function analysis
D. Logistic regression
The correct answer is C.
In this scenario, the counselor is trying to predict a nominal outcome based on a battery of tests producing a score on an interval scale. Discriminant function analysis or discriminant analysis is the appropriate technique when two or more continuous predictors will be used to predict or estimate a person’s status on a single discrete (nominal) criterion.
Answer A: Multiple regression is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more continuous or discrete predictors will be used to predict status on a single continuous criterion.
Answer B: Canonical correlation is an extension of multiple regression that is used when two or more continuous predictors are to be used to predict status on two or more continuous criteria.
Answer D: Logistic regression is similar to discriminant function analysis and is used to predict status on a single discrete criterion using two or more continuous or discrete predictors. In contrast to discriminant function analysis, which requires the relationships between variables to be linear, logistic regression assumes that the relationships are nonlinear.
The correlation coefficient for Test A and Test B is -.40. This means that ___% of variability in Test A scores is shared in common with Test B scores.
Select one:
A. -0.8
B. -0.16
C. 16
D. 8
The correct answer is C.
The magnitude of the relationship can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance. In this case, -.40 squared is .16, multiplied by 100 equals 16%.
Answer A: To calculate the percentage of shared variance, square the correlation coefficient (-.40), and multiply that (.16) by 100.
Answer B: The magnitude of the relationship between can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance.
Answer D: The magnitude of the relationship between can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance.
To determine the degree of association between gender and attitude toward abortion when the attitude measure represents an interval scale, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
Select one:
A. Pearson’s r coefficient
B. Spearman’s correlation coefficient
C. Biserial coefficient
D. Phi coefficient
The correct answer is C.
The key to answering this question lies in identifying that the two scales of interest are a dichotomy (gender) and on an interval scale (attitude towards abortion). The biserial coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is continuous and the other is an artificial dichotomy.
Answer A: Pearson’s r measures the linear correlation between two continuous variables.
Answer B: Spearman’s rank-order correlations are used when both variables are ranks.
Answer D: The phi coefficient measures the relationship between two dichotomous (binary) variables.
When using path analysis, you are _____.
Select one:
A. identifying the combination of predictors that most accurately categorizes individuals into criterion groups
B. testing the validity of a model that describes the causal relationship between a dependent variable and two or more independent variables
C. evaluating a measure’s construct validity and providing information on the test’s convergent and divergent validity
D. estimating the relationship between a dependent (criterion) variable and two or more independent (predictor) variables measured on a continuous scale
The correct answer is B.
All of the techniques listed in the answers can be described as multivariate techniques, but only one is used to test causal hypotheses or models. Path analysis is used to test the validity of a model that describes the causal relationship between a dependent variable and two or more independent variables.
Answer A: Logit (logistic) analysis is used to identify the combination of predictors that most accurately categorizes individuals into criterion groups.
Answer C: The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate a measure’s construct validity and provides information on the test’s convergent and divergent validity.
Answer D: Multiple regression involves estimating the relationship between a dependent (criterion) variable and two or more independent (predictor) variables measured on a continuous scale.
Eta is used _____.
Select one:
A. as an index of effect size and is a measure of the mean difference between two groups
B. when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies
C. to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear
D. when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale
The correct answer is C.
Eta is used to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear.
Answer A: Cohen’s d is used as an index of effect size and is a measure of the mean difference between two groups.
Answer B: The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies.
Answer D: Kendall’s tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale.
Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are factors that are considered when evaluating:
Select one:
A. a test’s factorial validity.
B. a test’s incremental validity.
C. the relevance of test items.
D. the adequacy of the “actual criterion.”
The correct answer is C.
In the context of test construction, relevance refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the goal of testing. Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are three factors that may be considered when determining the relevance of test items.
Answer A: Factorial validity refers to the extent to which a test has high correlations with factors it is expected to correlate with and low correlations with factors it is not expected to correlate with.
Answer B: Incremental validity refers to the degree to which a test improves decision-making accuracy.
Answer D: The actual criterion refers to the actual (versus ultimate) measure of performance.
The optimal item difficulty index (p) for items included in a true/false test is:
Select one:
A. .25.
B. .50.
C. .75.
D. 1.0.
The correct answer is C.
One factor that affects the optimal difficulty level of an item is the likelihood that an examinee can choose the correct answer by guessing, with the preferred level being halfway between 100% and the level of success expected by chance alone. For true or false items, the probability of obtaining a correct answer by chance alone is .50. Therefore, the optimal difficulty level for true or false items is .75, which is halfway between 1.0 and .50.
Answers A, B, & D are incorrect.
For an achievement test item that has an item discrimination index (D) of +1.0, you would expect:
Select one:
A. high achievers to be more likely than low achievers to answer the item correctly.
B. low achievers to be more likely than high achievers to answer the item correctly.
C. moderate achievers to be more likely than high and low achievers to answer the item correctly.
D. low and high achievers to be equally likely to answer the item correctly.
The correct answer is A.
When all examinees in the upper-scoring group and none in the lower-scoring group answer the item correction, the item discrimination index (D) is equal to +1.0. The item discrimination index (D) is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the lower-scoring group who answer the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the upper-scoring group who answer the item correctly. D ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0.
Answers B, C, and D: These responses present incorrect findings - high achievers are more likely than low achievers to answer the item correctly.
The slope (steepness) of an item characteristic curve indicates the item’s:
Select one:
A. difficulty level
B. discrimination
C. reliability
D. validity
The correct answer is B.
The various item response theory models provide item characteristic curves that provide information on one, two, or three parameters - i.e., difficulty level, discrimination, and probability of guessing correctly. An item’s ability to discriminate between high and low achievers is indicated by the slope of the item characteristic curve - the steeper the slope, the greater the discrimination.
Answers A, C, and D: These responses present incorrect information- the slope of an item characteristic curve indicate’s the item’s discrimination.
The item difficulty index (p) ranges in value from:
Select one:
A. -1.0 to +1.0
B. -.50 to +.50
C. 0 to +1.0
D. 0 to .50
The correct answer is C.
The item difficulty index (p) indicates the proportion of examinees in the tryout sample who answered the item correctly. The item difficulty index ranges in value from 0 to +1.0, with 0 indicating that none of the examinees answered the item correctly and +1.0 indicated that all examinees answered the item correctly.
Answers A, B, and D: These responses present incorrect information - the item difficulty index ranges in value from 0 to +1.0.
