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Pathology Review > Test Questions > Flashcards

Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Mulberry molars are associated with?

A

Congenital syphilis

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2
Q

T/F and T/F. Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in tissue size due to and increase in the number of cells in the tissue. Breast development in young women is an example of hypertrophy.

A

Both statements are false

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3
Q

The first cellular response to stress is?

A

Adaptation

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4
Q

The legs of someone who is confined to a wheel chair would be a good example of:

A

Atrophy

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5
Q

T/F. Hydropic degeneration is water accumulation in the cell.

A

True

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6
Q

Changes observable after a cell dies are referred to as?

A

Necrosis

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7
Q

If there has been cell death with release of digestive enzymes and fluid development in the tissue what will be one of the first things done in clinical treatment of this patient?

A

Use of antibiotics, and draining of the pus accumulation

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8
Q

Cell death resulting in coagulation (denaturation) of protein is associated with:

A

Dry gangrene

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9
Q

T/F and T/F. Hypoxia is defined as a complete lack of oxygen. Anoxia is defined as lower than adequate levels of oxygen.

A

Both statements are false.

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10
Q

T/F. A bruise is a good example of an exogenous pigmentation.

A

False. It would be endogenous

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11
Q

T/F. The thyroid gland is responsible for maintaining the blood calcium level.

A

False. It would be the parathyroid.

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12
Q

T/F. In cases of dystropic calcification, the blood calcium level is elevated.

A

False.

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13
Q

List 2 oral/head and neck signs/symptoms of AIDS.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Enlarged cervical lymph nodes

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14
Q

T/F and T/F. The incubation period for AIDS can be years long. HIV+ patients can be infectious during the incubation period.

A

Both statements are true.

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15
Q

The division of genetic material by half so each new cell has the same genetic material is called

A

Meiosis

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16
Q

Dominance and recessiveness is only a factor when a pair of alleles is __________ for a given trait.

A

Heterozygous

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17
Q

People who have Down Syndrome have 3 number ______ chromosomes.

A

21

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18
Q

What is one dental concern of someone with Down Syndrome?

A

They might have an enlarged tongue, making it difficult for them to talk or swallow.

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19
Q

T/F and T/F. A person with Klinefelter’s Syndrome is always female. A person with Klinefelter’s Syndrome has less genetic material than a normal person.

A

Both statements are false.

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20
Q

T/F. A person suffering from Turner’s syndrome is most often sterile.

A

True.

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21
Q

What is the most effective treatment for a person with Turner’s Syndrome?

A

Hormone therapy

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22
Q

T/F. A sex-linked disorder affects the secondary sex characteristics of the patient.

A

False. It would be primary.

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23
Q

What is an example of a sex-linked disorder?

A

Hemophilia

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24
Q

What are three agents that cause genetic mutation?

A

Chemicals, Viruses, and Radiation

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25
Q

List 2 tissue types that would be more affected by radiation damage.

A

Bone Marrow, and Actively developing tissues

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26
Q

Excessive radiation can cause sclerosing (thickening of the walls) of blood vessels. What kind of potential pathology can this lead to?

A

Poor circulation

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27
Q

Give an example of hyperfunction of the immune system that could cause a problem.

A

Allergic reaction

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28
Q

T/F. The definition of an antibody is a substance that can activate an immune response.

A

False.

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29
Q

A lack of self tolerance leads to?

A

Autoimmune disease

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30
Q

The immunoglobulin found in saliva is?

A

IgA

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31
Q

The immunoglobulin that give newborns protection after birth is?

A

IgG

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32
Q

T/F and T/F. The secondary immune response gets larger and faster with each re-exposure to an antigen. The secondary immune response is made possible because of immunologic memory.

A

Both statements are true.

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33
Q

What immunoglobulin is most associated with allergic reactions?

A

IgE

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34
Q

An anaphylactic reaction causes vaso_____ and bronchial ______.

A

Vasodilation, and Bronchial constriction.

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35
Q

The drug used to counter an anaphylactic reaction is:

A

Epinephrine or an epi pen

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36
Q

What is the dental significance of Sjorgen’s syndrome?

A

They have reduced salivary function, which can cause a dry mouth, and leads to caries.

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37
Q

T/F and T/F. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis is considered an autoimmune disease. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis causes thyroid gland enlargement.

A

Both statements are true.

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38
Q

T/F. If a patient has an organ transplant and is on immunosuppressive drugs, they are at increased risk of infection.

A

True.

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39
Q

T/F. Immunosuppressive therapy to prevent graft rejection can increase the risk of cancer.

A

True.

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40
Q

A type 1 immediate hypersensitivity reaction is what we call an allergic reaction.

A

True.

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41
Q

T/F. The acute inflammatory response is always the same no matter what is the cause of injury.

A

True.

42
Q

The acute inflammatory response is considered a proliferative response.

A

False.

43
Q

Increased blood flow to an area of inflammation is called:

A

Hyperemia

44
Q

List the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation.

A

Heat
Edema
Redness
Pain

45
Q

T/F. Steroids decrease the effectiveness of the acute inflammatory response.

A

True.

46
Q

The chronic inflammatory response is considered?

A

Secondary

47
Q

T/F. Chronic inflammatory response is considered a beneficial response.

A

False.

48
Q

T/F. Parenchymal regeneration is the most common type of repair in humans.

A

False.

49
Q

What is the basic purpose of the acute inflammatory response?

A

It is there to help and defend our bodies.

50
Q

Glucagon is a drug that is used to treat diabetic emergency. What specifically is the action of glucagon on the human body?

A

Glucagon causes the liver to release sugar into the bloodstream. Then it raises the blood sugar.

51
Q

The leading cause of death in a diabetic patient is?

A

Myocardial infarction (MI)

52
Q

The major cause of Type 2 diabetes is?

A

Obesity

53
Q

T/F. The brain can only burn sugar as an energy source.

A

True.

54
Q

T/F and T/F. Gestational diabetes is a form of Type 1 diabetes. Gestational diabetes usually is gone with the delivery of the child.

A

False. True.

55
Q

T/F. The liver is essential in the maintenance of blood sugar levels.

A

True.

56
Q

What is the purpose of bile?

A

To break down fats

57
Q

T/F and T/F. The signs/symptoms of a pulmonary embolism often mimic those of an MI. Usually the origin of the thrombus causing the embolism is in the lungs.

A

True. False.

58
Q

The respiratory drive in healthy humans is base upon a falling oxygen level in the tissues of the body.

A

False.

59
Q

T/F. The main symptom of COPD is resistance to inhaling air.

A

False. That would be exhaling.

60
Q

T/F. Chronic bronchitis causes slow destruction of the lung tissues.

A

False.

61
Q

T/F. A person who suffers from acute asthmatic attacks would be considered to have a form of COPD.

A

False.

62
Q

A person who has an acute asthmatic attack, uses an aerosol inhaler for relief. What does this aerosol medication do?

A

It is a brochodilator, which makes it easier for them to breathe.

63
Q

A diminished cardiac stroke volume is a good definition of what problem?

A

Congestive heart failure

64
Q

T/F. Nitroglycerine is a peripheral vasoconstrictor.

A

False. It would have a vasodilator.

65
Q

T/F. Diabetes mellitus increase the risk of atherosclerosis.

A

True.

66
Q

An insulin dependent diabetic arrives at your office for treatment. As you seat the patient, you notice that she seems more quiet than usual and doesn’t respond very quickly to questions you ask her. You also notice that she has a fine tremor in her hands and her skin is cool and moist. This could be the onset of:

A

Insulin shock

67
Q

You have a patient who is a middle aged woman who has very bad varicose veins. What is one potential problem you could encounter during dental treatment?

A

Orthostatic hypertension, or she could faint due to lack of blood circulation

68
Q

T/F. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most associated with angina pectoris.

A

False. That would be CHF

69
Q

T/F. Emotional stress can precipitate and acute asthmatic attack.

A

True.

70
Q

T/F. Atherosclerosis often begins in childhood.

A

True.

71
Q

What are the 3 arteries most affected by atherosclerosis?

A

The Aorta
Coronary Arteries
Arteries surveying the brain

72
Q

Name an artery that seems to be more affected by aneurysms?

A

The Aorta
Abdominal Aorta
Vessels of the brain

73
Q

Name the two things that regulate all body functions.

A

Hormones and Nerves

74
Q

T/F and T/F. The thyroid gland is considered the master gland. The thyroid gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

A

Both statements are false.

75
Q

Hyperpituitarism in an adult will cause:

A

Acromegaly

76
Q 
Chose one of the symptoms listed which would not be a symptom of hyperthroidism.
High blood pressure
Increase heart rate
Intolerance to cold
Tremor in hands
Increased appetite
A

Intolerance to cold

77
Q

Exopthalmos is associated with

A

Graves Disease

78
Q

T/F. Neuromuscular excitement is associated with high blood calcium levels.

A

False.

79
Q

T/F. High blood calcium levels are associated with hypoparathyroidism.

A

False.

80
Q

What naturally occurring nutrient is necessary for thyroid hormone production?

A

Iodine

81
Q

The posterior pituitary gland produces ADH. A lack of this hormone causes?

A

Diabetes Inspidus

82
Q

T/F and T/F. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis is considered an autoimmune disease. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis can cause enlargement of the thyroid gland.

A

Both statements are true.

83
Q

T/F. Women are more affected by goiter than men.

A

True.

84
Q

T/F. Loss of the lamina dura is associated with hypoparathyroidism.

A

False.

85
Q

T/F. A median maxillary anterior alveolar cleft is visible clinically in the area of the maxillary centrals.

A

False.

86
Q

What is the dental significance of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?

A

Pigmentation around the lips

87
Q

A scalloped tongue is associated with?

A

Macroglossia. Their tongue is bigger than their mandibular arch.

88
Q

T/F. A patient with a lingual thyroid nodule would most likely be hyperthyroid.

A

False.

89
Q

True complete microdontia is associated with people who are:

A

Little people.

90
Q

The tooth most commonly affected by true partial microdontia is:

A

Maxillary lateral incisiors

91
Q

What is the only real dental concern with concrescence?

A

The cementum is joining the two teeth so it could affect the pulp or bone.

92
Q

You have a teenage patient who’s maxillary right lateral incisor is not typical. It has a deep groove in the crown running from the incisal edge to the gingival margin as though the crown is two separate pieces. She has 32 teeth and no history of extraction. This is most likely a case of:

A

Gemination.

93
Q

The tooth most affected by dens in dente is:

A

Maxillary lateral

94
Q

The most common supernumerary tooth is a:

A

Mesodens

95
Q

Name one tooth that is commonly affected by true partial anodontia.

A

3rd molars

96
Q

T/F and T/F. Turner’s tooth is a form of amelogenesis imperfecta. A Turner’s tooth is due to too much fluoride in the drinking water.

A

True. False

97
Q

What is the radiographic presentation of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

…

98
Q

What is the only real concern with a person with ankyloglossia?

A

Tongue tied so it could effect their speech depending on how tongue tied they are.

99
Q

A 6 year old child comes in for a prophy and exam. You observe tooth T is badly decayed and abcessed. You advise the parents of this and the father says that it is just a baby tooth and they will just have it removed. What kind of complication might this lead to?

A

It can affect the way the permanent tooth erupts, and how it is developed.

100
Q

T/F and T/F. A Stafne’s cyst is seen as a well defined radiolucency in the posterior maxilla above the roots of the first molar. A Stafne’s cyst is a true cyst of developmental origin.

A

Both statements are false. The first one would be true if it said 3rd molars.

Pathology Review (2 decks)

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