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Pathology Review > Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

T/F. A tumor that has poorly differentiated cells and is not encapsulated would most likely be benign?

A

False. It would be malignant

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2
Q

You have a young women patient who is concerned about her wisdom teeth. You do PA radiographs and find that all are impacted except number 32. In the lower right you find a well-defined radiolucency in the area where number 32 would be. It is asymptomatic and there is no history of extraction. This is most likely a…?

A

Primordial cyst

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3
Q

T/F and T/F. Ameloblastomas are true tumors of tissue that would normally form dental structures. Ameloblastomas are often associated with primordial cysts.

A

True. False

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4
Q

T/F. Periapical cemental dysplasia is associated with teeth with pulpal necrosis?

A

False

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5
Q

T/F. It is much more likely that leukoplakia is carcinoma-in-situ than erythroplakia.

A

False

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6
Q

T/F. An ulceration on the lower lip that is diagnosed as cancer would have a better chance of being squamous cell carcinoma than basal cell carcinoma based upon its location.

A

True.

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7
Q

T/F. A birth mark also known as a port wine stain is an example of a pigmented cellular nervus.

A

False.

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8
Q

What is the fundamental difference that makes anaplasia different from any other cellular response to irritation?

A

Anaplasia cells are similar to cancer cells.

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9
Q

T/F. Tobacco is the biggest cause of basal cell carcinoma. Orally, basal cell carcinoma is most often seen on the tongue.

A

False. True

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10
Q

A 30 year old man presents himself to your practice for a prophy and exam. You notice that tooth number 28 is not present. You do a full mouth set of radiographs and find that there is no impacted tooth in that area, but there is a radiolucency with a fine radiopaque border. You question him about his past dental history and he tells you that he had a bad toothache and had a tooth removed in that area several years ago. This radiolucency is most likely?

A

Residual cyst

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11
Q

There are several different classes of carcinogens. Name one

A 
Chemicals
Viruses 
Smoking/Chewing
Radiation
Mechanical Trauma
Hormones like estrogen
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12
Q

Of the terms listed, which one doesn’t fit with the rest? Encapsulated, slow growing, non-functional cells, and well differentiated.

A

Non-functional cells

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13
Q

The substitution of a more specialized, fragile cell type for a cell type that is less specialized and more durable in cases of prolonged irritation is the definition of?

A

Metaplasia

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14
Q

T/F. A papilloma is the most common benign intraoral tumor?

A

False. It is a fibroma.

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15
Q

T/F and T/F. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common intraoral malignancy. If an ulceration on the upper lip is a skin cancer, chances are greater that it is epidermoid carcinoma rather than basal cell carcinoma.

A

Both statements are false.

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16
Q

What histological feature defines a pathologic cavity as a cyst?

A

Epithelium lining

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17
Q

T/F. Erythroplakia has a greater chance of being cancer than leukoplakia.

A

True

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18
Q

What group of people is verrucous carcinoma most associated with?

A

Older men who chew

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19
Q

A middle-aged man presents for treatment as a new patient at the clinic where you practice. He is missing tooth number 29. Upon radiographic survey you find the tooth is not impacted and he has no history of extraction. He has a radiolucency with a well-defined border where that tooth should be. The radiolucency is probably a?

A

Primordial cyst

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20
Q

An ameloblastoma is most associated with a ?

A

Follicular cyst

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21
Q

Name the 2 things which control all body processes.

A

Endocrine and Nervous systems

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22
Q

Hyperpituitarism in adults causes a problem know as?

A

Acromegaly

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23
Q

A lack of antidiuretic hormone will cause a problem called?

A

Diabetes insipidus

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24
Q

Graves disease is associated with which gland?

A

Thyroid

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25
Q 
Someone who is hyperthyroid would have all of the following symptoms except one:
Rapid heart rate
High blood pressure
Decreased appetite
Tremor of hands
Fatigue
A

Decreased appetite

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26
Q

What nutrient is essential for the production of thyroid hormone?

A

Iodine

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27
Q

T/F. Hypotheroidism is associated with loss of the lamina dura.

A

False. Hyperthyroidism

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28
Q

T/F. Hyperthroidism is assocaited with metastatic calcification of tissues.

A

False

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29
Q

A man who complains that his hats and gloves no longer fit and who has very prominent cheek bones would probably suffer from:

A

Acromegaly

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30
Q

T/F. Leg cramping in older women at night is most associated with hypoparathyroidism.

A

True

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31
Q

T/F and T/F. Strawberry tongue is most associated with diptheria. Diptheria is a viral disease.

A

Both statements are false

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32
Q

T/F and T/F. Actinomycosis is associated with lesions that produce a discharge containing “sulfur granules.” Sulfur granules are small mineral deposits produced by the infection that actually contain the minerals sulfur in them.

A

True. False

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33
Q

T/F. Actinomycosis is caused by a fungal organism.

A

False.

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34
Q

T/F and T/F. Koplik’s spots are associated with rubella. Rubella is a bacterial disease.

A

False. False

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35
Q

T/F and T/F. Photophobia is associated with rubeola. Rubeola produces a red lesion in the oral cavity.

A

True. True.

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36
Q

What is the most serious complication associated with rubella?

A

A woman contracting it in the first trimester of pregnancy, because it can cause birth defects

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37
Q

What 2 food groups are most associated with the process of dental decay?

A

Sugars and starches

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38
Q

Name a characteristic of saliva that affects the decay process.

A

A buffer to neutralize acid

The quantity of saliva

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39
Q

T/F. Complex sugars have less caries forming potential than simple sugars.

A

True.

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40
Q

T/F and T/F. The same organism that causes chicken pox in children causes shingles in adults. These are bacterial diseases.

A

True. False

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41
Q

What is the basic pathology associated with either type of diabetes mellitus?

A

Damage of the blood vessels

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42
Q

T/F. Both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus involve sugar metabolism. Both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus involve polyuria as a patient symptom.

A

False. True.

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43
Q

What is the leading cause of death in diabetics?

A

Myocardial Infarction. (MI)

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44
Q

What is the one reason not to give someone having a diabetic reaction oral sugar?

A

They could choke

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45
Q

T/F and T/F. Diabetic coma is associated with hypoglycemia. Diabetic coma would likely be the most commonly seen diabetic emergency in a dental office.

A

Both statements are false

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46
Q

Blood pumped from the right ventricle travels to the?

A

Lungs

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47
Q

What is the cause of death in a patient with an aneurysm?

A

Internal bleeding

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48
Q

T/F. Nitroglycerin works by causing vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels.

A

False

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49
Q

There are three arteries that are more affected by atheroscelorsis. Name 2

A

Aorta

Arteries of the brain

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50
Q

T/F and T/F. Generally speaking, when speaking of vascular disease, we’re speaking about obstruction of some type of vessel. Arterial disease will most often be seen as swelling and edema of body tissues.

A

True. False.

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51
Q

Where is the most common location of formation of the clot that forms a pulmonary embolism?

A

Veins in the leg

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52
Q

T/F. The respiratory drive in healthy people is based upon low oxygen content in their blood.

A

False.

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53
Q

T/F. People suffering from COPD have trouble inhaling air.

A

False. It is exhaling air

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54
Q

T/F and T/F. Brochial asthma is a form of COPD. Asthma attacks in children can be caused by stress.

A

False. True.

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55
Q

T/F and T/F. Emphysema is a disease of the bronchial passages. The most common cause of emphysema is a long term, low grade, bacterial infection.

A

Both statements are false.

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56
Q

T/F and T/F. People suffering from chronic bronchitis would exhibit bronchial dilation. People suffering from chronic bronchitits would experience excessive mucous secretions in the bronchial passages.

A

False. True.

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57
Q

Blood from the right ventricle is pumped to the?

A

Lungs

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58
Q

T/F. The method of action of nitroglycerine is to cause peripheral vasoconstriction and thereby reduce the workload on the heart.

A

False. It would be vasodilation

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59
Q

T/F. The plaques of atherosclerosis involve only the innermost layer of the blood vessel.

A

False. The middle layer as well

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60
Q

The person exhibiting a reduced cardiac stroke volume would most likely have what problem?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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61
Q

Pulmonary embolisms are usually caused by blood clots. Where is the site of origin of the clot that forms an obstruction in the lungs?

A

Leg veins

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62
Q

T/F. In healthy people, it is the low level of oxygen in the the blood that causes us to take a breath.

A

False.

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63
Q

T/F and T/F. People suffering from COPD have some sort of restriction that prevents them from easily inhaling air. Bronchial asthma is a form of COPD.

A

Both statements are false

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64
Q

T/F and T/F. Emphysema is a disease of the bronchial passages. Emphysema is reversible if the patient quits smoking.

A

Both statements are false

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65
Q

Albuterol is one of the inhalers used to treat chronic bronchitis. What action does this drug have on the body?

A

It is a brochodialator

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66
Q

Define anemia.

A

Below normal levels of hemoglobin in the blood.

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67
Q

The most common anemia is?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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68
Q

The anemia most associated with a beefy red tongue is?

A

B12 deficiency anemia

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69
Q

In the cases of erythroblastosis fetalis, the mother is Rh- and the affected child is Rh+.

A

True

70
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma is associated with osteolytic lesions of the jaws in children. What virus is associated with development of Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

71
Q

The thyroid gland is considered the master gland of the body?

A

False. It is the pituitary

72
Q

A lack of what hormone is the cause of diabetes insipidus?

A

ADH-Antidiuretic Hormone

73
Q

There are 2 things that control all of our body functions. What are they?

A

Endocrine and Nervous systems

74
Q

T/F and T/F. Graves disease is caused by hyperfunction of the thyroid gland. A person with Graves disease would have low blood pressure.

A

True. False.

75
Q

T/F and T/F. Hyperparathyroidism causes a low blood calcium level. Hyperparathyroidism causes a loss of the lamina dura around the teeth.

A

False. True.

76
Q

The practical problem associated with ankyloglossia is?

A

Speech impairment

77
Q

What is one of the two teeth most often associated with mircodontia?

A

Maxillary lateral incisors

78
Q

T/F. Dens in dente is most associated with the maxillary canine?

A

False

79
Q

Ectodermal dysplasia is associated with?

A

Complete anodontia

80
Q

T/F. Hutchinson’s incisors are a form of environmental enamel hypoplasia.

A

True.

81
Q

T/F. Dominance and recessiveness comes into play when a pair of alleles are homozygous for a given trait.

A

False

82
Q

T/F and T/F. People suffering from Down’s Syndrome have 46 chromosomes. They have 3 sex chromosomes.

A

Both statements are false.

83
Q

T/F. Sex-linked disorders affect the secondary sexual characteristics of the affected person.

A

False.

84
Q

What is a cause of mutation?

A

Ionizing radiation

85
Q

What are some examples of tissue types that are more susceptible to radiation damage.

A

Bone marrow

Growing tissues

86
Q

T/F. Tissue that is heavily radiated will likely heal more poorly.

A

True.

87
Q

T/F. Liver mortis is defined as the loss of body temperatures after death.

A

False

88
Q

The replacement of a more fragile cell type with a cell type that is more durable is the definition of?

A

Metaplasia

89
Q

T/F. The release of digestive enzymes after cell death is most associated with dry gangrene.

A

False

90
Q

Name one source of endogenous pigmentation in cases of pathologic problems exhibited by humans.

A

Billirubin

91
Q

T/F. A young woman presents to your office for a prophy and exam. She tells you that her gingival tissues bleed profusely with brushing. This would be considered a sign of disease.

A

False.

92
Q

Any type of disease has it’s origin in?

A

Cells

93
Q

T/F and T/F. The first cellular response to stress is reversible injury. Reversible injury means that the cell will ultimately die.

A

Both statements are false.

94
Q

T/F and T/F. Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in tissue size because of an increase in the number of cells. The arms of a weightlifter are a good example of hypertrophy.

A

False. True

95
Q

T/F. The changes in cells we refer to as necrosis start while the cell is still alive but dying and are finished before the cells are completely dead.

A

False.

96
Q

T/F. A free radical is an atom with a neutral charge.

A

False.

97
Q

T/F and T/F. Dystropic calcification is associated with calcification of dead tissue. The blood calcium levels in cases of dystropic calcification are in the normal range.

A

Both statements are true.

98
Q

The type of hepatitis assocaited with contaminated water is?

A

Type A

99
Q

T/F and T/F. Massive hepatic necrosis is most associated with hepatitis A. Hepatitis transmission through sexual contact is also most associated with hepatitis A.

A

Both statements are false.

100
Q

T/F. People with hepatitis are infectious during the incubation period even if there are no signs/symptoms of the disease yet.

A

True.

101
Q

T/F and T/F. The lesion of primary syphilis is called a guma. The lesion of primary syphilis will heal even with no medical treatment.

A

False. True.

102
Q

T/F and T/F. The lesions of herpes simplex type 2 are indistinguishable from those of herpes simplex 1. Herpes simplex 2 infections can cause death in some patient groups.

A

Both statements are true.

103
Q

T/F and T/F. Tuberculosis is a disease that both people and animals can share. Tuberculosis is caused by a virus.

A

True. False (caused by a bacteria).

104
Q

T/F. TB is a hard disease for humans to contract.

A

True.

105
Q

T/F and T/F. Metastatic calcification is associated with TB. TB in humans is only a disease infecting the lungs.

A

Both statements are false.

106
Q

If you are exposed to someone who has active TB but you don’t contract the disease, what was it that kept you from getting it?

A

Your immune system

107
Q

T/F. Meiosis is defined as the replication of genetic material so each cell of your body has the same genetic code.

A

False. Mitosis.

108
Q

T/F. Dominance and recessiveness is only a factor if your genetic code is homozygous for a particular trait.

A

False. Heterozygous is

109
Q

T/F and T/F. People suffering from Down Syndrome have 45 chromosomes. People suffering from Down Syndrome often have some degree of mental disability.

A

False. True

110
Q

T/F. Sex linked disorders affect the secondary sexual characteristics of the patient.

A

False.

111
Q

T/F and T/F. Both hepatitis B and hepatitis C are transmitted in the same way. Hepatitis B is the type most associated with infections contracted in a hospital setting.

A

True. False.

112
Q

T/F. It is possible to determine the type of hepatitis by the signs/symptoms that the patient exhibits.

A

False.

113
Q

Name one group of people who would be more at risk for development of hepatitis B due to their lifestyle.

A

Drug users

114
Q

T/F. The AIDS virus is considered much more virulent than the hepatitis B virus.

A

False.

115
Q

T/F. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a cancer of the basal layer of the skin cells.

A

False

116
Q

T/F. The signs/symptoms that an AIDS patient may exhibit may vary with the way in which the patient contracted AIDS.

A

True.

117
Q

Why is primary herpatic gingivostomatitis such a severe form of herpes in young children?

A

Because it is their first exposure to the disease, so it is the most severe since their body hasn’t had previous exposure.

118
Q

Name one group of people who you would expect would be more susceptible to contracting TB.

A

Those with a weakened immune system

119
Q

T/F and T/F. TB is only an infection of the lungs in humans. Certain races of people seem more prone to TB than other racial groups.

A

False. True.

120
Q

T/F and T/F. Syphilis is a viral infection. The lesion of primary syphilis is called a guma.

A

Both statements are false

121
Q 
The one function listed below which is not a function of the liver is:
Production of blood clotting factors
Maintenance of blood sugar levels
Detoxification of chemicals
Production of red blood cells
A

Production of red blood cells

122
Q

What is the leading cause of liver failure in this country?

A

Hepatitis

123
Q

In the process of cirrhosis, healthy living tissue is destroyed and replaced with?

A

Fibrotic tissue

124
Q

T/F. Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 is the most common form of diabetes?

A

False.

125
Q

T/F. A patient having a diabetic emergency in a dental practice would most likely be suffering from hyperglycemia.

A

False.

126
Q

List the 3 major symptoms of untreated Type 1 diabetes.

A

Polyuria, Polydypsia, Polyphagia

127
Q

T/F. The brain can only use sugar as an energy source.

A

True.

128
Q

Ketones are the by-product of the metabolism of what food group?

A

Fat

129
Q

What do diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus have in common.

A

Both have increased uriniation.

130
Q

What is the basic pathologic result of either type of diabetes?

A

Arteriolosclerosis, Atherosclerosis

131
Q

A very common response to prolonged tissue irritation is?

A

Growth

132
Q

What is the ultimate way to diagnose any type of pathology?

A

A biopsy of the tissue

133
Q

T/F and T/F. An increase in tissue size due to an increase in the number of cells is known as hyperplasia. Hyperplasia is always associated with some form of pathology.

A

True. False.

134
Q

T/F. Cloudy swelling or cellular swelling is associated with flat accumulation in the cells.

A

False.

135
Q

The term for changes that happen in a cell after cell death that signify cell death is:

A

Necrosis.

136
Q

Clinically speaking the presence of liquefactive necrosis signifies:

A

An infection

137
Q

T/F and T/F. Dystropic calcification is associated with dead tissue. In cases of dystropic calcification, the blood calcium level is elevated.

A

True. False.

138
Q

The type of hepatitis most associated with outbreaks affecting large numbers of people in a short space of time is:

A

Type A

139
Q

Australian Antigen is most associated with:

A

Type B

140
Q

T/F and T/F. The transmission of AIDS is very similar to that of hepatitis B. AIDS has a relatively short incubation period.

A

True. False.

141
Q

The type of hepatitis that would be transmitted by eating raw oysters would be:

A

Type A

142
Q

T/F. The hepatitis B virus can live for long periods outside the human body and remain infectious to others.

A

True.

143
Q

T/F. The signs/symptoms of AIDS that a patient exhibits depends on the way in which the disease was transmitted.

A

True.

144
Q

T/F and T/F. The AIDS virus is considered a retrovirus. The AIDS virus is a DNA virus.

A

True. False.

145
Q

T/F and T/F. Herpes Simplex 1 is genital herpes. The lesions of Herpes Simplex 1 are not as large or extensive as the lesions of Herpes Simplex 2.

A

Both statements are false.

146
Q

Why is the lesion of primary herpatic gingivostomatitis so much more severe than that of oral herpes in adults?

A

Because it is the first time a person is exposed to it, so it is going to have the greatest strength since their body has never been exposed to it. They doesn’t have an immune response built up yet.

147
Q

T/F. Herpetic whitlow is associated with herpes zoster.

A

False.

148
Q

Why is tuberculosis a hard disease to catch for most people?

A

It is not as common as it use to bed, but most healthy people are not going to get it because they have a good immune system.

149
Q

A positive chest x-ray for TB includes a radiopaque area in the lungs. Why is is a white radiopaque area?

A

Because they are TB lesions due to the infection?

150
Q

T/F and T/F. The gumma is the lesion of primary syphilis. The lesion of primary syphilis will heal even without medical attention.

A

False. True.

151
Q 
All of the following are functions of the liver except:
Production of bile
Production of blood cells
Maintenance of blood sugar levels
Detoxification of chemicals
Synthesis of blood clotting factors
A

Production of blood cells

152
Q

Name one of the major causes of liver disease.

A

Chronic use of acetaminophen, alcohol abuse

153
Q

T/F and T/F. The pancreas is considered both an endocrine and exocrine gland. Insulin production is the exocrine function of the pancreas.

A

True. Flase.

154
Q

T/F and T/F. Diabetes insipidus happens as a result of a lack of thyroid hormone. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreasing urine output.

A

Both statements are false.

155
Q

What is the specific action of insulin?

A

…

156
Q

Ketone production is the result of the metabolism of?

A

Fats

157
Q

T/F. We who are in dental practice would most likely experience an emergency involving someone who is hyperglycemic?

A

False. It would be hypoglycemic

158
Q

What is one contraindication for giving a patient with a suspected diabetic emergency some form of oral sugar?

A

If they have lost consciousness we would not put anything in their mouth

159
Q

What is the basic pathology associated with diabetes?

A

Atherosclerosis

160
Q

T/F and T/F. Gestational diabetes is a form of Type 1 diabetes. Gestational diabetes usually is gone after the birth of the child.

A

False. True.

161
Q

T/F and T/F. Type 1 diabetics have little to no insulin production. Type 2 diabetics usually have insulin production but the insulin is not effective.

A

Both statements are true.

162
Q

What are the three major (classic) symptoms of untreated hyperglycemia?

A

Polyuria, Polyphagia, Polydypsia

163
Q

Sometimes untreated diabetics will have a sweet, fruity smell to their breath. What causes this?

A

Ketones

164
Q

T/F. A diabetic patient that appears to have the signs/symptoms of intoxication would be hyperglycemic.

A

False.

165
Q

What is the basic pathology resulting from either type of diabetes?

A

Atherosclerosis

166
Q

Arteriolosclerosis is most associated with?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

167
Q

T/F. The lesions of atherosclerosis can regress (become smaller) with a change in diet and exercise.

A

True.

168
Q

What is the actual cause of death of a patient who dies of an aneurysm?

A

Swelling of the artery wall, which is a result of blood pressure that makes the artery burst.

169
Q

T/F. In general any type of arterial disease will cause edema and swelling of the tissues.

A

False

170
Q

Many patients have complications of deep vein thrombosis. Where is the origin of the clot in most cases?

A

Varicose veins in the legs

Pathology Review (2 decks)

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