Test Questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Victim Impact Statements CANNOT be disclosed to offender under the Privacy Act 1983, (without the consent of the Victim)
When the Victim gives their consent the Victim impact statement?
1) A. Can be given to the defence prior to the sentence hearing
2) Is not to be retained by the
3) Can only be distributed by Prosecutors

A

1) True and they must return it to Court staff.
2) True unless the Victim gives consent.
3) True in relation to Police staff.

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2
Q

Everyone has the right not to be arbitrary arrested or detained

A

True

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3
Q

Police have no power to detain a suspect for questioning without arrest or lawful detention?

A

True

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4
Q

When an offender has been arrested, a Victim identified and the matter is proceeding to court, it is the responsibility of the O/C case to ensure a Police Record of Victim Contact (POL1060) and a Court services victims referral (CSV1) form is completed.

A

True

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5
Q

You must fairly inform a youth suspect that they have the right to have a lawyer and a nominated person with them while they answer any questions or make a statement?

A

True

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6
Q

Steve hurt in rugby game. The opposing player cannot be charged with assault as Steve had given implied consent to undergo the reasonable risks associated with the game of rugby?

A

True

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7
Q

When planning an interview with a special consideration witness (vulnerable) witness the investigator should?

A

Consult a supervisor to make decisions about the interview.

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8
Q

Tom intentionally drives his vehicle at a slow speed at his neighbour after an argument. He subsequently clips the neighbours leg and causes minor bruising. Tom’s vehicle could be classified as a “weapon” under section 202C Crimes Act 1961?

A

True

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9
Q

“The truth may be elusive, so you may need to be persistent.” In this statement “persistent” refers to interviewer behaviour and means:

A

Asking questions in a manner that will stand up to the scrutiny of the Court.

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10
Q

A person can be charged with aggravated assault if that person punches a Police officer attempting to execute a warrant to arrest in relation to failing to appear in the District Court.

A

True

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11
Q

Shelley and Steve decide to steal some cigarettes from their local dairy. Steve goes into the dairy and threatens the owner with a knife forcing him to hand over cash and boxes of cigarettes. Shelley stays in the car as the getaway driver and is unaware that Steve has the knife. Both Shelley and Steve are liable as principals for Aggravated Robbery as they were together at the dairy?

A

False

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12
Q

Steve and John are play fighting when Steve tells John to punch him hard in the stomach to prove how hard his abs are. John punches Steve twice in the stomach with a closed fist causing minor bruising. John should be charged with common assault?

A

False

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13
Q

Correctly informing a suspect of the caution at the beginning of an interview ensures that the interview record will be admissible?

A

False – Is only one of that many requirements.

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14
Q

The offence “demanding with menances” section 239(2) Crimes Act 1961 is complete as soon as a person forms the intention to steal property from a person?

A

False

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15
Q

Evidential material, in relation to a particular offence, means evidence of the offence or any other item, tangible or intangible, of relevance to the investigation of the offence. A tangible item that could be evidential material is:

A

A locked IPhone

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16
Q

John is desperate for some cigarettes. He goes into a dairy, puts his finger in his pocket and points it at the dairy owner pretending that he has a firearm. The dairy owner gives John two boxes of cigarettes and John flees from the scene. John’s actions would be sufficient to charge him with Aggravated Robbery as he has pretended to be armed with a firearm and has stolen cigarettes?

A

False

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17
Q

Under s103 of the Evidence Act 2006 when deciding on whether to accept an application to give the evidence of a witness in an alternative way, the Judge must have regard to whether the alternative way will:

A

Mean the best evidence is given in a criminal proceeding.

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18
Q

John, the respondent of a protection order, rings his estranged wife to tell her that his mother was injured in a car accident and is critically ill. He says he wants his 12-year-old daughter to see her grandmother before she dies. John has breached the standard non-contact conditions of the protection order. He should be arrested and charged with breach of protection order?

A

False

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19
Q

Establishing a “common approach path” into the scene of a serious crime for all visitors to the scene is the responsibility of the initial action party?

A

True

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20
Q

The relevance of forensic evidence is reliant upon what people say or do?

A

False

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21
Q

Bobby should be charged with being party to the offence Robbery?

A

False – He had no knowledge of the intention to commit robbery. Nathan acted on his own.

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22
Q

Harry and Ben argue on the street outside a local bar. Harry grabs a glass bottle from the rubbish bin, shouts “I hope this hurts” and swings the bottle at Ben’s head. Ben ducks, the bottle shatters against the bar wall and the glass fragments cut the hand and face of a passing pedestrian, Jennifer. Harry could be charged with “assault with intent to injure” in relation to Jennifer?

A

True

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23
Q

What is meant by an investigator’s “working rules?”

A

The knowledge and skills learnt from investigator experience.

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24
Q

Which of the following persons would NOT be considered suitable for the role of nominated person for a CYF?

A

A close friend or classmate nominated by the CYF.

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25
Q

Material collected at a crime scene can be contaminated when:

1) People or animals have entered the scene
2) Scene equipment is not cleaned before use
3) Exhibits are repeatedly handled before packaging
4) A scene searcher leaves traces on an exhibit

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True

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26
Q

A search is a part of most crime scene examinations. Adopting a search pattern assists to:

A

Examine the scene in a thorough and controlled manner.

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27
Q

After charging a shoplifter with theft and lodging her in the cells, you receive information leading you to suspect her of further thefts. According to Chief Practice Note Guidelines 2 you should:

A

Interview her again on video, caution again and question her about the new allegations.

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28
Q

Detained persons need not be cautioned

A

False

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29
Q

Wilful damage scenario – On arrival you interview the man. After a few questions he says, “It was his fault because he was smart to me.” You continue with the interview until the man is arrested for breaking the window. When should this suspect have first received the rights/caution?

A

When the suspect stated to you that it was the dairy owners fault that the window had been broken.

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30
Q

In a forensic sense, what does persistence refer to?

A

The length of time biological material can be detected following a crime.

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31
Q

The intent of the POL1060 form is to provide:

A

Record of Police action for the on-going physical and emotional safety of the Victim.

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32
Q

Steve gets into an argument with Gerry. Gerry yells “You really deserve this” and smashes his glass into Steve’s face twice, causing severe lacerations to his cheek and lip and a fractured eye socket. What is the most appropriate Crimes Act 1961 assault offence?

A

Wounding with intent.

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33
Q

The O/C case is responsible for ensuring a Victim Impact Statement / audio tape or video file is held in the case file ready for the prosecution to produce in Court at the time of sentencing?

A

True

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34
Q

A special consideration witness may be described as “vulnerable.” Vulnerable means?

A

Susceptible, defenceless, in a weak position.

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35
Q

DNA (blood sample) is known to deteriorate under which of the following conditions:

1) When handled without gloves or masks
2) When exposed to extremes of weather conditions
3) When packaging creates conditions that cause it to degrade
4) When it has exited the body for up to two hours

A

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) False

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36
Q

The initial response team must prevent post-incident cross-examination between other witnesses, the Victim(s) and suspect(s) by considering:

1) Taking photographs of the Victim’s injuries as soon as possible
2) Using different interview rooms for all parties involved
3) Taking physical evidence samples from witnesses at the scene
4) Transporting the Victim and Suspect in different vehicles

A

1) False
2) True
3) True
4) True

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37
Q

Persistent questioning is generally acceptable interviewer behaviour while cross-examination can be regarded as inappropriate interviewer behaviour?

A

True

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38
Q

You are planning to interview Simone (14) about her role in a serious assault. As you begin that interview what must you ensure she understands (2)?

A

1) That she does not have to say or tell you anything but if she does decide to talk she can change her mind at any time.
2) That you are obliged to inform her parents or guardian of the interview and of the proceedings that may occur.

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39
Q

When there are multiple witnesses to a serious incident/offence the investigator should:

A

Separate the witnesses, conduct a brief initial interview with each and gather witness details.

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40
Q

The term “grievous bodily harm” in relation to an offence of “aggravated robbery” means?

A

Really serious harm.

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41
Q

Any police officer can execute an arrest warrant providing they can confirm that the warrant is valid and they can confirm the person’s identity

A

True

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42
Q

At interview a suspect is cautioned for a second time when he reveals his involvement in another crime. He contacts his lawyer and then says he has been advised to claim his right to silence and will not answer any more questions. You should:

A

Inform him of the allegations against him and record any response he may make.

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43
Q

“chain of evidence” refers to:

A

The official record of exhibit collection, security and movement.

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44
Q

CYF suspect refuses to give name. Your caution should make sure he understands?

A

You can arrest him if he continues to refuse to give you his name and address.

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45
Q

Police may interview a person in custody. A person is “in custody” when:

A

Words of arrest and physical touch clearly signals the person is not free.

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46
Q

One of the principles laid down in the Victims Rights Act 2002 guides access to services for Victims. In this respect Police must inform Victims that:

A

That they are entitled to access to welfare, health, medical or legal services.

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47
Q

Offender was arrested and later released without charge – After further investigation, can he still be dealt with by way of summons?

A

True

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48
Q

Stan sees Nigel walking along the road with Gloria, Stan’s ex-girlfriend. Stan is furious. He steps in front of them and says menacingly “Get off my street or you’ll get this.” Gloria and Nigel are frightened. Stan then raises a fist and demonstrates a punching movement. Can Stan be charged with assault?

A

Yes – Because Bert and Gloria have reason to believe Stan can harm them.

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49
Q

An interviewer may be persistent in their questioning when the account given by the suspect is inconsistent and contradictory?

A

True

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50
Q

The I car is first to the scene of a serious crash incident where 2 people are trapped and injured. The constables first duty is to:

A

Ensure the crash scene is as safe as possible.

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51
Q

The investigative interviewing suspect guide provides directions on how to introduce a challenge. It suggests a process of using a sequence of phrases starting with key words:

A

You said…. We have…. Explain that…

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52
Q

Under s24 of the NZ Bill of Rights Act 1990 a person shall be released on reasonable terms and conditions unless there is just cause for detention. Who does this apply to?

A

A person charged with an offence and processed accordingly.

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53
Q

Which of the following tasks is not the responsibility of an exhibits officer?

A

Establish the relevance of the exhibit to the enquiry.

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54
Q

If a suspect has signed your notebook that they agree with your record of events that occurred prior to interview, then there is no need to refer to these events on video?

A

False.

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55
Q

It is important to call a Fingerprint officer to a homicide scene because latent fingerprints in blood and other contaminants on a body can be destroyed when a body is moved:

A

True

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56
Q

Select the two answers that apply – The minimum standards governing the collection of any item/exhibit that is likely to be submitted for DNA forensic analysis are:

A

1) Handle one item of evidential material at a time.

2) Gloves and masks should be worn.

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57
Q

When Police are called to a complaint about a prowler and the complainant is an older person or a woman and children living on their own, Police must make a referral to Victim Support?

A

True

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58
Q

In which of the two following circumstance are Victims of family violence considered to be at a heightened risk of injury?

A

1) When the violence is increasing in frequency and severity
2) When attempted strangulation has occurred.

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59
Q

Which of the following people may NOT act as nominated persons, even if the young person specifically nominates them:

A

A person you believe on reasonable ground would attempt to pervert the court of justice if permitted to consult with the CYF.

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60
Q

The Police form that provides a record of Police contact with the Victim and the actions completed

A

POL1060

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61
Q

When must a Victim of a s29 offence be advised of their right to be on the Victim Notification register (VNR)?

A

At the time of the offender’s arrest (if practicable.)

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62
Q

The briefing and handover to the O/C investigation by the O/C of the initial incident must include information about (T/F):

1) What has occurred
2) What has not been done
3) What needs to be done
4) What action has been taken

A

All true

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63
Q

A reconstruction is a theory about what took place in a given area over a relevant period of time and how it is likely to have happened?

A

True

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64
Q

Which of the following behaviours demonstrated by a lawyer at interview would be deemed unacceptable?

A

Challenging the interviewer on the validity of the allegations made.

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65
Q

En route to the scene of a serious crime the initial action team must formulate a plan for scene entry that:

1) Considers factors that may affect scene preservation
2) Avoids any known suspect path from the scene
3) Delegates responsibilities for action between them
4) Priorities locating the suspect above all else

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False

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66
Q

Jo gets into argument with Steve and burns him with her cigarette twice causing two burns. Jo is charged with disfiguring Steve under Section 188(2) of the Crimes Act 1961. Shortly after the incident the two burns are no longer visible. The charge can proceed despite the burns having healed?

A

True

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67
Q

You meet your responsibilities for ensuing a youth understands their right by receiving an affirmative to the question, “do you understand?” after each section of the caution?

A

False

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68
Q

At interview you are under no obligations to advise the suspect of everything known before asking for the suspect’s version of events?

A

True

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69
Q

Paul is waiting at a bus stop talking on his cell phone. He is approached by Andrea and Jill who demand that he hand over the cell phone to them. Paul ignores them. Andrea then pushes Paul backwards and pushes him in the face. Jill grabs the cell phone but Paul manages to get it back from her and the girls run away. Which of the following offences best describes Andrea’s criminal liability?

A

Aggravated Robbery – Andrea and Jill are together and both taking active part in the commission of the offence.

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70
Q

When a Victim of a Victims Rights Act 2002, s29 offence is transported to hospital from a crime scene, an officer should accompany the Victim to ensure their:

A

Clothing is collected and preserved for the exhibit collection.

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71
Q

It is important to consider the sequencing of examinations when submitting crime scene material for forensic analysis because DNA analysis can destroy the forensic evidence required for fingerprint examination?

A

True

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72
Q

The Victim impact statements is the record of the Victim’s own words about what happened and their opinion of the offender?

A

False

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73
Q

When a video tape of an adult witness interview is to be used as evidence-in-chief then the O/C must ensure:

A

The witness has viewed the video and given their signed consent for it to be used.

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74
Q

When a witness refuses to talk with you or to be interviewed, then that is their right. You should make a notebook or job sheet record of their reasons for refusing and your opinion on why they refused?

A

True

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75
Q

You apprehend a CYF (15) at an aggravated robbery and he says “I didn’t mean to shoot the guy” before you have time to caution him. Which of the following statements best describes the admissibility of the confession?

A

His confession is admissible but he must be cautioned as soon as possible.

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76
Q

It would be appropriate to charge an offender with assault with intent to rob where violence has been used by the robbery for whatever reason has not been completed.

A

True

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77
Q

A common approach path to and from the crime scene is established to:

A

Control access to the scene to prevent contamination.

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78
Q

The basic rule for electronic equipment located at a crime scene is “If it is off, leave it off. If it is on, leave it on?”

A

True

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79
Q

When you are interviewing a witness about a serious incident and the witness requires an interpreter then you should?

1) Avoid using an interpreter who knows the witness
2) Use your interview notes to write the statement in English
3) Allow the interpreter unsupervised time with the witness
4) Visually record the interview
5) Discuss the aim and objectives of the interview with the interpreter

A

1) True
2) True
3) False
4) True
5) True

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80
Q

Evidence is improperly obtained if it is:

A

Obtained unfairly or unlawfully.

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81
Q

Section 10 of the Summary Offences Act 1981 is the only offence that specifically deals with “Assault on Police.”

A

False

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82
Q

A Victim impact statement may contain the Victims comments about an offender, or prior knowledge they may have about that offender, or their opinion about the possible sentence the offender should receive?

A

False

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83
Q

Which of the following behaviours demonstrated by a lawyer at a suspect interview would be deemed unacceptable?

A

Answering the interviewer’s questions on behalf of their client.

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84
Q

Classify the following common types of evidence:

1) Semen
2) Paint flakes
3) Blood
4) Glass fragments

A

1) Biological
2) Physical
3) Biological
4) Physical

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85
Q

When cautioning a suspect, you are NOT obliged to inform the suspect that:

A

They can decide with a lawyer whether to go on video or not.

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86
Q

Phillip has been watching the movements of local dairy owner, he bikes past the dairy owner on her way to the bank and snatches the dairy owners cash bag from her hand. She is furious but unharmed. The actions of Phillip would be sufficient to constitute the offence of robbery?

A

False

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87
Q

George is running down a crowded street. He grabs the shoulder bag of a passing female. He twists her arm as she tries to hold onto her bag. This causes her pain and she lets go of the bag. George takes off with the bag. The most appropriate charge in relation to George’s actions would be?

A

Robbery – His actions were accompanied with violence as the Victim was in pain causing her to let go of the bag

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88
Q

What must be ascertained early in an initial interview with a Victim who has been assaulted?

A

The safety of the Victim and the seriousness of the offence.

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89
Q

Dealing with a CYF with limited English. On requesting his name and address and beginning to caution him you note he does not seem to understand. What action now is most appropriate?

A

Give him his rights caution with reasonable diligence to gain his understanding.

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90
Q

A statement made by a Defendant is admissible as evidence against a co-defendant in the proceedings?

A

False

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91
Q

Henry gets into a fight with Steve. He punches and kicks Steve. Steve falls to the ground and is slow to get up. Henry sees that he has an opportunity and decides to steal Steve’s wallet which is falling out of his pocket but is unsuccessful in taking it. Henry should be charged with “assault with intent to rob?”

A

False

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92
Q

Shoplifter with extensive dishonesty offending. Which one of the following public interest factors MOST supports prosecution in this case?

A

The likelihood of the offence being repeated.

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93
Q

During a fight at a very crowded local bar. Steve grabs a pool cue and starts swinging it around with no intention on hitting anyone however gets carried away and hits a patron in the head. The patron receives a fractured eye socket and fractured skull. The most appropriate way to describe Steve’s actions in the bar is that he?

A

Acted with reckless disregard for the safety of others.

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94
Q

When do you caution a youth?

A

Before asking any questions intended to obtain an admission.

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95
Q

If not subjected to any orders or restrictions, a Victim Impact statement can be distributed to the Defense Counsel prior to the sentencing hearing?

A

True

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96
Q

As defined by the Evidence Act 2006 a statement is limited to a written or verbal assertion by a person on any matter?

A

False.

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97
Q

In decisions about admissibility of their interview, characteristics of the suspect such as mental, intellectual or physical disability are only taken into account if they are visibly present at the time of interview.

A

False

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98
Q

Jim goes in to the supermarket on his way home from softball practice. He is carrying his softball bat in his hand. While waiting in the queue he decides to rob the supermarket and threatens the checkout operator that if he doesn’t hand over the money he will get hit around the head with the bat. If Jim carries through with his plan, he would be liable for aggravated robbery. Although Jim’s initial carriage of the softball bat is innocent his later actions would deem it to be an offensive weapon?

A

True

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99
Q

An appreciation is the mental process, the written process plan:

A

Records decision making and shows why a certain course of action was decided.

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100
Q

Joe arms himself with an imitation firearm and successfully robs his local bank. Joe is liable for Aggravated robbery as the imitation firearm falls within the definition of anything appearing to be an offensive weapon?

A

True

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101
Q

Does the situation describe when transfer between Victim and Offender can occur?

1) When Victim and Offender are not separated during initial action
2) When professional medical assistance is given to a Victim at the scene
3) When the offender is present in the scene prior to the incident
4) When one vehicle is used to transport the Victim and the offender

A

1) Yes
2) No
3) Yes
4) Yes

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102
Q

Arbitrary detention occurred occurs when the arrest or detention is reasonable in the particular case

A

False

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103
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring a Victim of a s29 offence is given the POL1065 and sufficient information and assistance to complete it?

A

Responsibility rests with the O/C case who arrests and charges the offender with the s29 offence.

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104
Q

When a Victim elects to go on the VNR they will receive notification from different agencies. Match the agency with the type of information they hold about the offenders status:

If the offender escapes, dies or is temporarily released

A

Department of Corrections

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105
Q

What are the Police responsibilities to the Victim when a s29 suspect is released on bail?

A

Police must advise all Victims, as soon as practicable, of the outcome and conditions of any bail application.

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106
Q

A youth suspect (14) is asked who he wants as his nominated person. His parents are divorced and his mother lives locally and father lives out of town. He nominates his father out of district. What action is most appropriate now?

A

Advise the father of the circumstances and make enquiries about his availability.

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107
Q

Select the forensic concept that best describes how the collection of forensic evidence may be affected when:

Many people enter and leave the scene

A

Contamination

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108
Q

Although the power to arrest is discretionary, the decision to arrest family violence offenders is clearly directed in policy

A

True

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109
Q

The Police form that records the Victims request to be notified about the bail/release/escape or absence of the offender/defendant

A

POL1065

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110
Q

Amy punches Lucy in the face because she is wearing a rival team’s beanie. As a result of the punch Lucy falls to the ground. As Amy is running away she sees Lucy’s beanie on the ground and decides to take it. Amy is liable for the offence – robbery?

A

False

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111
Q

The Judge must exclude a Defendant’s statement if they are satisfied the statement was improperly obtained. What is the standard of proof required?

A

Balance of probabilities.

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112
Q

When deciding whether evidence was improperly obtained, which of the following considerations will the Judge make?

A

1) Whether the impropriety was necessary to avoid physical danger to the Police or others.
2) The importance of any right breached and the seriousness of the intrusion on it.

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113
Q

The decontamination zone model is used at a scene of major crime because:

A

The scene will contain both biological and physical evidence.

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114
Q

Grant is a 38-year-old male who witnesses a stabbing in a local bar. He was a bystander and has no relationship to the Victim or the suspect. Which of the two reasons could be given to support an application for the video record of his witness interview to be played as his evidence in chief?

A

1) Grant says he has been badly affected by the event and can’t sleep.
2) Grant will be overseas on a planned holiday at the time of the trial.

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115
Q

How can Police ascertain whether a Victim of a s29 offence has been registered to the VNR?

A

Query the Notifications database on the national bulletin board.

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116
Q

If you are a member of an initial action team at the scene of a suspicious sudden death and a medical officer confirms the victim is deceased, then you must secure the scene and:

A

Do not touch or move the body under any circumstances

117
Q

Tai is involved in a fight; he punches Bruce several times causing Bruce to fall to the ground. As Bruce falls his phone falls out of his pocket. Tai sees it and decides to take it. The most appropriate charge for Tai would be robbery?

A

False

118
Q

Should a person who is intoxicated at interview be treated as a special consideration witness?

A

Yes because their ability to give accurate information is affected.

119
Q

What public interest factors support prosecution in this case?

1) The defendants position of trust in the circumstances
2) The offer of reparation requires prosecution support
3) The review of the defendant’s professional status
4) The extent to which the Victims are affected

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True

120
Q

In general, should an investigator regard a child or youth under the age of 18 years as a special consideration witness?

A

Yes because their age and maturity level may mean they are vulnerable in an interview situation.

121
Q

A couple are dragged out of their car by a group of youths. The youths threaten to punch the female if the male does not hand over the keys. The male gives the keys to the group and they drive off in the car.
True or False – As the threats of violence were not directed at the male the youths can only be charged with Assault on the female and demanding with menaces?

A

False

122
Q

When a cell phone is located at a crime scene, turning it off or letting the battery run flat is advisable in the circumstances?

A

False

123
Q

Which of the following statements about the Free Recall (FR) model is generally true?

A

Does not include a challenge phase.

124
Q

When thinking about written appreciation, which two of the following choices best describes the difference between a full appreciation and a short appreciation?

A

A full appreciation is done for difficult or complex problems. A short appreciation is done for urgent or less complicated problems.

A full appreciation is a lengthy plan; a short appreciation is more likely to be a brief list of bulleted points on a notebook page.

125
Q

Representation refers to the behaviour of the interviewer who

A

Promises a favour in return for a requested action.

126
Q

According to the investigative interviewing doctrine which of the following statements about probing questions is correct?

A

An interviewer should avoid asking probing questions beginning with Why.

127
Q

Which of the following scenarios could affect the reliability of a suspect interview record? When the suspect being interviewed is:

A

Tired and clearly unwell but is not offered an interview break.

128
Q

Josephine should be charged with the offence “Attempted Assault” in relation to her actions?

A

False – No attempted assault charge.

129
Q

If during an interview you make an unconditional undertaking not to use an “off the record” statement in evidence it is likely the Court will:

A

Make you honour the promise and rule the evidence as inadmissible.

130
Q

When a Victim elects to go on the VNR they will receive notification from different agencies. Match the agency with the type of information they hold about the offenders status:

If the offender is entitled to their first unescorted leave or discharged

A

Ministry of Health

131
Q

Victim Impact Statements can be disclosed in disclosure packs?

A

False

132
Q

A women dances with a man, Male A, who is wearing a red jersey and she gets red fibres on her top. Later in the evening she dances with another male, male B and some of the red fibres are transferred to his shirt. The scenario is an example of secondary transfer between:

A

The women and Male B.

133
Q

If a person is arrested for an offence you cannot interview them because they must appear before the court as soon as possible?

A

False

134
Q

The O/C initial action party is responsible for effectively briefing and conducting handover to an O/C scene on their arrival at a serious crime scene. What information is essential to the integrity of the crime scene examination?

A

Details of any post incident movements in the crime scene.

135
Q

At what point in the scenario involving Nathan and Bobby is robbery completed?`

A

The robbery was complete at the time the shop assistant handed over the $650 cash to Nathan.

136
Q

A CYF can nominate an adult to provide support when they are being interviewed by Police. Who is most appropriate for this role?

A

An adult family member or whanau member.

137
Q

Elimination samples are:

A

Taken from people who had legitimate contact with the scene or an exhibit.

138
Q

Jo intends to cause GBH to Steve. He attacks him with a knife but only manages to make one shallow cut across Steve’s arm. Jo cannot be charged under s189 of the Crimes Act 1961 as the cut would not be classified as GBH?

A

False – Just because the injury is not bad – The intent was still present for a charge to be laid.

139
Q

When a Victim elects to go on the VNR they will receive notification from different agencies. Match the agency with the type of information they hold about the offenders status:

If the offender is not a NZ citizen and subject to deportation proposal

A

Department of Labour

140
Q

Evidence is only relevant to an investigation if it has a tendency to prove anything that is of consequence to the case.

A

False

141
Q

Scene records including photographs, sketches, drawings and notebook entries must be completed prior to searching for an uplifting any material from the crime scene?

A

True

142
Q

Which example is incorrect? A written statement from a witness interview:

A

Cannot include slang, swearing or colloquialisms as it is a legal document.

143
Q

Victims Rights Act 2002, s29 offences are defined as:

A

Sexual or serious assault resulting in injury, death or being rendered incapable or leading to the Victim having fears for their safety or the safety of their family.

144
Q

When and why is a CSV1 required?

A

When there is a Victim and the matter will proceed to District Court (or above) because the Victim is entitled to specific services at the Court.

145
Q

If called to a sudden death of a person Police must treat the family with respect and provide information about where they can access support?

A

True

146
Q

Section 235 Crimes Act 191 Aggravated Robbery – Considering this legislation what is the liability of Bobby and Nathan for the offence of aggravated Robbery in relation to the events at the second hand store?

A

1) Neither are liable.
2) Nathan – Robbery
3) Bobby – Aggravated wounding and receiving

147
Q

Your prompt initial action at a serious crime scene has led to the apprehension of a male closeby who is acting suspiciously. During a preliminary interview with him you should:

A

Make a notebook entry of his details and his demeanour.

148
Q

During an interview the suspect alleges another officer has been stopping him unnecessarily and he wants to make a complaint. Should a suspect’s complainant affect the interview progress in any way?

A

Yes, the complaint should be noted on video and the suspect told that they will be referred to a senior officer following this interview.

149
Q

The purpose of an initial reconnaissance by the first on the scene officers at a serious crime scene is to:

A

Survey the scene to establish the action required to secure.

150
Q

You may only detain a person under certain enactments

A

True

151
Q

When a Victim is identified, their Victim impact statement must be taken when the offender is due in court for sentencing?

A

False

152
Q

Your suspect is uncooperative so you leave the room for 5 minutes return a tell him, his co-offender admitted everything. He shrugs, readily admits his involvement and later pleads guilty. Would the above admission be admissible in Court?

A

No because the admission was obtained by misrepresenting the truth to your suspect.

153
Q

The O/C case or suitably tasked person is responsible for the preparation of Victim Impact Statements:

A

True

154
Q

John approaches Harry, forms a fist and says, “Leave now or you will get this fist in your face.” Harry quickly leaves and you investigate the incident. Which of the following statements is true?

A

This is an offence of “assault” as Harry was threatened by John by his words and gesture and the placing of a condition on the threat does not negate the offence.

155
Q

Margaret wants a protection order against her abusive 15-year-old daughter. Your advice to Margaret will be that she will be able to obtain a protection order from the Court?

A

False – Daughter is only 15.

156
Q

An exhibit that is wet should be promptly packaged, sealed and labelled to avoid further deterioration?

A

False

157
Q

Which of the following scenarios could be an example of an interview improperly obtained? When the suspect:

A

Repeatedly asks for a lawyer but the interviewer continues on without one.

158
Q

“Was the car you saw driving off a station wagon?” Could be what type of question?

A

Leading.

159
Q

What is a “bound person?”

A

The person who a PSO was served against.

160
Q

You should not obtain a written statement from a witness of doubtful reliability as their statement will more than likely be admissible.

A

False

161
Q

When interviewing a person suspected of committing and offence, when should the caution be administered?

A

When you have sufficient evidence to charge a person with an offence.

162
Q

Evidence “contamination” may occur when?

1) Biological material is advertently added to an exhibit
2) A crimes scene lacks clear boundaries, pathways and security
3) An examiner wears the same gloves to uplift different exhibits
4) When the material collected cannot be linked to the investigation

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False

163
Q

When deciding whether to commence prosecution by laying charges, which of the following tests must be applied?

A

The evidential test and the public interest test.

164
Q

Care must be taken in Police interaction with a witness because?

A

A witness needs and their individual circumstances must be taken into account by an interviewer.

165
Q

For any investigation you should aim to collect?

A

The maximum amount of material and examine for its use.

166
Q

A 20-year-old male physically resists arrest and after being given the rights caution he is placed in the cells. Sometime later he refuses to leave the cell for an interview. Mark the incorrect statement:

A

An interview can proceed without his consent.

167
Q

The intervening member of the public has suffered a fractured skull and severe facial wounds after being hit around the head with the road cone. Nathan and Bobby are both liable for aggravated wounding for the member of public?

A

False – Only Bobby is liable. In this scenario there was no common intention to commit the robbery nor was there any common intention to assault anybody if someone intervened.

168
Q

If a lawyer complains of a video machine being left on and refers to her client’s right to consult in private and requests the video machine be turned off. What response should she get?

A

The machine will be turned off immediately as requested.

169
Q

The preference to video record an interview with a suspect only applies when they are suspected of committing a category 1 or 2 offence?

A

False

170
Q

A witness who is reluctant to give information that will incriminate a friend should be advised of the possible consequences of their withholding information?

A

False

171
Q

Arrest is a form of arbitrary detention

A

False

172
Q

A compliant witness is one who always provides good information to assist the investigation?

A

False

173
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect. A witness FR interview:

A

Should be challenged following their first FR account.

174
Q

George enters the local dairy. He takes some biscuits from a shelf and hides them under his jacket to exit the store. The dairy owner chases him down the street. George stops running, turns and punches the dairy owner in the head. The dairy owner falls to the ground as George runs away. As George has used violence to avoid being caught for the theft, he would be liable for Robbery?

A

False – Theft and Aggravated Assault

175
Q

Jane punches Kathy. The punch connects with Kathy’s nose and there is a great deal of blood as a result of the bleeding nose. As there is a flow of blood from the nose, Kathy has suffered a “wound?”

A

False

176
Q

The meaning of the term “arbitrary detention” as explained in the case R vs Goodwin (1993) is:

A

When words or conduct of an officer cause a person to believe that he or she is not free to go.

177
Q

Which two of the following statements are correct – Property taken from a person who is arrested or detained:

A

1) May be retrained by the custody officer if, in their opinion, the person arrested will be remanded in custody in another facility and therefore lost their right to retain the property.
2) May be retrained by the custody officer if, in their opinion, its possession may constitute an offence or it may be given in evidence in proceedings arising out of a charge.

178
Q

15 year old, family violence witness – What are the O/C’s responsibilities in the given circumstances?

1) Convince Shane of the importance of his evidence and gather his view on giving his evidence in an alternative way
2) Convince Shane of the importance of his evidence and assure him that he will be safe when standing up in Court
3) Provide a report to the prosecutor outlining information (relevant grounds) for Shane to give his evidence in an alternative way

A

1) True
2) False
3) True

179
Q

When leaving a house with a set of golf clubs Mary is confronted by the property owner. Mary holds up a screwdriver and yells “if you try and stop me I’ll get you with this.” The threat made by Mary may be sufficient for a charge under s191 Crimes Act 1961 in relation to the term “by any violent means renders any person incapable of resistance?”

A

True

180
Q

An investigative interviewer knows when to use and when to avoid certain types of questions as they may affect the quality and quantity of information given. “Was it a green car?” is what type of question?

A

Closed

181
Q

The “warm” zone is partly designed to provide an area for:

A

Collecting, recording and securing the exhibits collection.

182
Q

True or False. The consequences of arbitrarily detaining a person may be that:

1) The case against the person could be dismissed in court
2) The arresting or detaining officer could be liable to civil litigation
3) Any statement made by the person is inadmissible in Court
4) The officer must face an inquiry under the Police Code of Conduct

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) False

183
Q

When investigating an offence, you may ask questions of any person of whom it is thought that useful information may be obtained but they are under no obligation to answer your questions?

A

True

184
Q

Michael’s threat to hit Sylvie does not classify as violence as it was only a single threat and there must be a pattern of abusive acts?

A

False

185
Q

Elimination samples refer to samples taken from people who are not under investigation for the offence but may have come into legitimate contact with the crime scene evidence?

A

True

186
Q

Prior to gathering information from the Victim for the preparation of their statement the O/C case must explain how the statement will be used and gain the Victims approval for disclosure or distribution of their statement?

A

True

187
Q

When giving advice to a youth NOT under arrest, you should tell them that if they (2):

A

1) Consent to accompany you they can withdraw that consent at any time.
2) Refuse to give you their correct name and address you can arrest them.

188
Q

Which statement best describes hypotheses and why you might use them?

A

Hypotheses suggest explanations for a group of facts. They can be used to generate lines of enquiry.

189
Q

The CJPN on Police questioning:

A

Directs the conduct of Police interviewing practice as guided by the judiciary.

190
Q

You are interviewing a male suspect about a number of offences and after you begin to probe the inconsistencies in his account he says he is not prepared to say anything else but continues to answer your questions. Is the complete statement/video record admissible?

A

No, only the part before the suspect claimed their right to silence is admissible.

191
Q

Initial action guidelines instruct that when setting the parameters at a serious crime scene you should?

1) Use emergency tape to establish the cordon parameters
2) Cordon only the area where the incident occurred
3) Arrange and brief scene guards with clearly defined duties
4) Extend the parameters as widely as possible to capture any exhibits the suspect may have discarded

A

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True

192
Q

Harry sees Melanie and her 15-year-old, son walking into the mall. Harry approaches and begins arguing with Melanie. Melanie’s son intervenes and Harry punches him in the chest. Harry should be charged with Assault on a child?

A

False

193
Q

Tom assaults Alice and breaks two of her ribs which causes internal bleeding. The most appropriate charge would be Male Assaults Female (s194 Crimes Act 1961) as the assault is family violence-related?

A

False – More severe charge required.

194
Q

Which of the following could provide intangible evidential material?

A

Facebook account, Memory stick, CCTV camera

195
Q

You must arrest a person if it is clear they have committed an offence and there is sufficient evidence to charge them

A

False

196
Q

Sharon is waiting at a taxi stand when she is approached by a patched gang member with extensive facial tattoos. He asks Sharon if she smokes. Sharon is afraid, panics and gives the gang member her packet of cigarettes. The most appropriate charge would be robbery as Sharon handed over her property based on the gang members looks and demeanour?

A

False – No charge

197
Q

Stella stands immediately beside and watches her good friend Aroha punch and kick a passing pedestrian so that Aroha can steal her handbag. Stella’s presence at the robbery without active participation in it is not sufficient for an offence of aggravated robbery?

A

True

198
Q

When packaging an exhibit in a windowed paper bag or kleensak you must:

A

Fold over the top of the bag 2-3 times and seal with tape.

199
Q

In the engage and explain phase of an interview with a witness who is fearful or distressed about the consequences of making a statement you should?

A

Consider their concerns, assess their reasons, discuss with your supervisor if a visually recorded interview is required.

200
Q

John has used violence to obtain property to which he believes he is entitled to. If a defence claim of right to a charge of “theft” is used by John, this defence would also negate a charge of robbery.

A

True – Claim of right negates Theft however assault would be a charge.

201
Q

The role of an interview support person for a special consideration witness is to?

A

Ensure their well-being and support their understanding of what is happening.

202
Q

Bobby should be charged with the theft of $650 cash from the second hand store?

A

False – He was not involved in the theft/robbery part. Can be charged with receiving.

203
Q

A dairy owner is punched and tied up. The offender then leaves the owner in the shop and goes to the storeroom at the rear of the yard and steals cigarettes. The offender would not be liable for robbery as the theft of the cigarettes was not in the immediate presence of the Victim?

A

False

204
Q

Which of the following acts contains the most appropriate power to enter Susan’s home without warrant to protect her child from injury?

A

Oranga Tamariki Act 1989 – Section 42

205
Q

To avoid contamination, small quantities of powders or tablets found at a crime scene must be packaged in self-sealing plastic bags inside a standard drug envelope?

A

True

206
Q

Entomology is the science of studying?

A

Insects

207
Q

In any incident where the Victim is obviously distressed Police must provide a Victim with support, and/or refer them to an agency that will provide support?

A

True

208
Q

Michael continually taunts Jo in front of their two primary school aged children about being stupid and fat. Jo does nothing to prevent the children from being able to hear the abuse. Jo is just as liable as Michael for the psychological abuse of the children as she allows them to hear the taunts?

A

False

209
Q

John and Tai are both armed with knives. They threaten their taxi driver that if he doesn’t hand over his money he will be stabbed. The taxi driver laughs at them and both John and Tai run away without the cash. As John and Tai are together, armed with knives and threaten to stab the taxi driver they would both be liable for Aggravated Robbery?

A

False

210
Q

Which of the following statements best describes an investigative mindset?

A

A principled approach to the way investigators examine material and make appropriate and reasonable decisions

211
Q

The term “injure” means to cause:

A

Actual bodily harm to a person.

212
Q

A Victim of any offence may make a complaint if they are not treated according to the principles of the Victims Rights Act 2002?

A

True

213
Q

Under s29 and s30 of the Victims Rights Act 2002, what are the O/C’s obligations to Joan now?

A

Give Joan the POL1065, update the POL1060 and seek her views on bail to relay to Court.

214
Q

All suspect interviews should preferably be recorded by video recording unless that is impractical or unless the person declines to be recorded by video?

A

True

215
Q

Which of the following scenarios could be an example of evidence that has been improperly obtained? During an interview with a new immigrant the interviewer:

A

Does not ensure the suspect really understands his rights.

216
Q

In relation to “intent to steal” ingredient of “demanding with menaces” the prosecution must show that the offender acted dishonestly and without claim of right. A belief in a legal entitlement to demand the thing demanded is therefore a defence?

A

Tru

217
Q

You should not arrest a person if you are unable to justify that their arrest is necessary for justice to be served or for reasons of safety

A

True

218
Q

You have been told that David has a rifle in the house and that he repeatedly threatens his wife that he will shoot her if she makes complaint about him to the Police. The power to enter David’s house without warrant to search for the rifle comes from which act?

A

Arms Act 1983

219
Q

An exhibit collected for the forensic evidence it holds, should be uplifted, packaged and examined only by people wearing gloves and protective clothing?

A

True

220
Q

During a crime scene examination you find a small amount of dry substance in a jar. To determine if it is to be collected for analysis you can:

A

Examine it with gloved hands.

221
Q

The Police form that records the Police referral of the Victim to the Court Victim Advisor

A

CSV1

222
Q

Probing or closed questions are ones that encourage only a relatively small range of responses, usually short word or phrase. According to the material in the investigative interviewing doctrine, which of the following statements about probing questions would be incorrect.

A

Probing questions are the preferred way to start a suspect interview.

223
Q

A good charging decision is made when the charges chosen adequately reflect the nature and extent of the criminal conduct and:

A

The court is provided with an appropriate basis for sentence.

224
Q

An immediate statement taken in circumstances where you believe the Victim may die:

A

May be admissible if it is not signed.

225
Q

Select the forensic concept that best describes how the collection of forensic evidence may be affected when:

The movement of exhibits is not recorded

A

Evidential integrity

226
Q

Gary sees Bert walking along the road with Gloria his ex-girlfriend. Gary is upset as he thinks Bert stole Gloria from him. Gary picks up an empty plastic rubbish bin and throws it. It misses Bert but hits Gloria. This type of assault is classified as an “Indirect Assault?”

A

False. – This assault is Transferred Malice.

227
Q

A suspect declines the services of a lawyer but although he agrees to an interview he says, “if you keep that video running I won’t say anything.” What should you do?

A

Explain the advantages of visually recorded interview and say he has the option of preparing a written statement.

228
Q

Because deleted images can very easily be recovered from digital cameras, the guidelines direct:

A

Digital cameras are assigned to a named position or employee.

229
Q

A 16-year-old male, arrested for an indictable offence, elects his mother as his nominated person. She asks about the charge her son may face. Is she entitled to an explanation?

A

Yes. The enforcement officer should inform her of the nature of the charges as soon as possible.

230
Q

As Zoe is walking along the road side she sees a female sitting at the bus stop listening to a pink coloured MP3 player. Zoe decides that she wants it, she punches the victim in the face and runs away with the MP3 player. As she gets down the road, she changes her mind, returns the property and apologises to the Victim. Zoe has committed the offence of robbery?

A

True

231
Q

According to CJPN Guideline 4, when you are questioning a suspect about statements made by a witness you should:

A

Explain the substance or nature of the witness’s statement to them.

232
Q

True or False – A factor to consider when deciding to arrest is:

1) If it is likely that the person will commit further offences
2) If there is a need to safeguard an offender’s safety and interests
3) If the offender’s liberty means the safety of others is at risk
4) If it is likely that the suspect will warn accomplices or abscond

A

1) True
2) True
3) True
4) True

233
Q

In the appreciation technique, what is a factor?

A

A statement of truth about a known influence or circumstance.

234
Q

Gary (16) is to be interviewed about his part in a serious assault and he is insisting his uncle be his nominated person. On preparing for the interview you note his uncle is also identified as a witness at the scene, in these circumstances you should:

A

Conduct the witness interview to determine whether the uncle is suitable for the role of nominated person.

235
Q

You can arrest a suspect for the purpose of interviewing them to gather information?

A

False.

236
Q

If a special consideration witness refuses to be interviewed but is happy to talk informally about an event, you may still discuss the offence details with them and continue to question them to clarify information?

A

True

237
Q

Jill and Steve are flatmates. Steve threatens Jill over rent payments. Jill and Steve are in a domestic relationship?

A

True

238
Q

Consent from the person at risk is needed before a PSO can be issued?

A

False

239
Q

Mark the following statements about trace evidence true or false:

1) Trace evidence may only be seen by specialist forensic personnel
2) Trace evidence cannot be seen by the human eye
3) Trace evidence may be of a biological or physical nature
4) Trace evidence is usually found in fragments or small particles

A

1) False
2) False
3) True
4) True

240
Q

Marty punches Simon in the head and demands that he hands over his money. Marty’s associate verbally threatens to kick Simon and is standing beside Marty as the Victim hands over a twenty-dollar note. The actions of Marty would be sufficient to satisfy the requirements of a joint enterprise between two or more persons in relation to aggravated robbery?

A

True

241
Q

During a scene examination you find a cell phone, you observe that it is turned on. What action should you take to uplift the phone?

A

Leave it switched on, uplift and contact ECL for advice.

242
Q

The definition of a Victim may include members of the family or parents of a person charged with, convicted of, or has plead guilty to an offence.

A

False

243
Q

If a witness becomes a suspect during the interview, then the interviewer should?

A

Caution, shift to procedures for interviewing suspects and ensure the interview is visually recorded.

244
Q

The term “wilfully neglects” in relation to a section 195 Crimes Act 1961 (cruelty to a child) means:

A

Deliberate or reckless failure to provide care.

245
Q

A special consideration witness is one who?

A

Is affected by the nature of the offence or has personal characteristics affecting their ability to communicate easily.

246
Q

If the youth has chosen a family member other than their parent or guardian as their nominated person, then there is no need to contact their parent or guardian to inform them of their child’s presence at the station?

A

False

247
Q

Can an impression be left by:

1) A tool used as a lever
2) Drops of saliva or semen
3) The sole of a shoe or boot
4) A finger or palm print

A

1) Yes
2) No
3) Yes
4) Yes

248
Q

The Police form that records the Police opposition to a Defendant’s bail and the Victims views on their safety

A

POL128

249
Q

“Contamination” may occur when:

1) Forensic material is added to an exhibit post incident
2) Forensic material is exposed to rain or sunshine
3) Equipment used has not been correctly cleaned
4) Exhibits are not correctly packaged or secured

A

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) True

250
Q

In relation to cross examination which of the following answers is correct?

A

Questions aimed at establishing further facts from answers given are acceptable.

251
Q

A patched gang member sits down next to an elderly lady and asks for a cigarette. The lady does not answer so the gang member moves closer and says, “Give me a cigarette now, you bitch” Scared by the gang member’s words and conduct she hands one over. The gang member should be charged with Demands with Menace in relation to his actions?

A

True

252
Q

When applying the evidential test, you must consider if there is sufficient evidence to:

A

Provide a reasonable prospect of conviction.

253
Q

The Judge must exclude a Defendant’s statement if they are satisfied it was influenced by oppression. What is the standard of proof required?

A

Beyond reasonable doubt.

254
Q

The “golden hour” concept refers to the time when:

A

Evidential material is more readily available at a crime scene.

255
Q

Interviewing receiver – Want original thief scenario. You change interview styles and begin to very strongly put questions to him demanding explanations and answers to your questions. He eventually gives up the identity of the thief and other evidence against himself. Would the above evidence by your offender be admissible in Court?

A

NO because the offender was in custody and questions must not amount to cross-examination.

256
Q

Two offenders intend to rob an office manager of his laptop. They approach the Victim and tell him that if he does not hand over his computer they will smash his head in. The Victim, believing that he is about to be assaulted, runs off and keeps possession of his laptop. The most appropriate charge in relation to both offenders would be “assault with intent to rob?”

A

True

257
Q

The initial action scene party must not move any items in a serious crime scene unless it:

A

Will be affected by the weather and cannot be protected.

258
Q

Nathan and Bobby are hanging out in Town. Bobby wants to look at some guitars in the local second hand store. They both go in to the shop and have a look around. Nathan goes up to the female shop assistant and yells at her saying that he will punch her in the head unless she hands over the contents of the till. Frightened by Nathan’s actions the shop assistant hands over $650 cash. Bobby wonders what Nathan is up to and says “What are you doing?” Nathan then yells to Bobby and they both run out of the shop and take off down the road being pursued by the shop manager. A member of the public grabs Nathan as he runs down the road and attempts to hold on to him. Bobby seeing what is happening to Nathan, grabs a nearby road cone and hits the man in the head several times with the cone until he lets Nathan go. The member of the public falls to the ground, loses consciousness and sustains numerous cuts and gaping wounds to the face. Nathan and Bobby continue running from the scene and when they think they are safe, start arguing with each other. Bobby is angry that the Police will now be after them. Nathan gives him $200 cash taken from the shop and tells Bobby to keep his mouth shut. Bobby is more than happy to take the money and buys Nathan a drink to celebrate.
Considering the liability of Nathan and Bobby for taking the $650 which of the following is the most appropriate charge?

A

Robbery by Nathan, threatened violence and obtained $650 cash from the shop assistant.

259
Q

Jo has an argument with his neighbour and is so enraged that he burns his cigarette into his neighbours face repeatedly causing in excess of 10 burns. However, 12 months later and before the jury trial in relation to the incident, the burn marks have faded so much they are no longer visible. Which of the following is the most appropriate charge?

A

With intent to injure anyone, disfigures.

260
Q

The purpose of the preliminary interview with a witness at the scene of a serious crime is to:

1) Obtain their identifying particulars and contact details
2) Ascertain their legal reason to be at the scene
3) Gather information for your handover briefing
4) Ascertain who needs to be separated and kept apart

A

1) True
2) False
3) True
4) False

261
Q

Steve and Keith are walking down the road together. Steve is wearing an All Whites football jersey. Henry wants the jersey so walks up to Keith and punches him in the face and says “Tell Steve to give up his jersey otherwise I will punch you again.” Steve fearing Keith might be hurt takes off his jersey and hands it to Henry. What offence has Henry committed?

A

Robbery as Henry has used violence and stolen property.

262
Q

The first priority for staff arriving at the scene of a serious crime is:

A

The safety of attending Police officers.

263
Q

As an exception to the hearsay rule, a statement made by a defendant is admissible against that defendant?

A

True

264
Q

The Police form that records the effects of the crime on the Victim and others who have disadvantaged by the offence

A

POL392

265
Q

When a witness has provided a description that matches the suspect the best way to present this as a challenge during the suspect interview is to say?

A

A witness has provided details of an offender that fits your description.

266
Q

Select the forensic concept that best describes how the collection of forensic evidence may be affected when:

The offender is taken back into the scene for the interview

A

Transfer

267
Q

An application for the alternative way of presenting evidence may only be made if the witness is a child, a victim of sexual assault or a member of their family?

A

False

268
Q

Think about the definition of a crime scene and select the situation most likely to lead to cross contamination?

A

When scene equipment is re-used without cleaning

269
Q

Can Police enter a private residence to locate and arrest a person who has breached their PSO conditions?

A

No – A warrant of arrest needs to be obtained.

270
Q

Police must advise the nominated person of the rights of the CYF who is suspected of an offence, prior to any interview taking place?

A

True

271
Q

Susan plunges a knife into Karen’s chest and lacerates her lung. In relation to s188 of the Crimes Act 1961, the most appropriated description in relation to the puncture of Karen’s lung would be?

A

A wound.

272
Q

Doug and Colin have no money so decide to hide in the bushes and wait for a pedestrian to go by so they can steal their money. As a pedestrian approaches Doug changes his mind and takes off. Colin hits the pedestrian and searches his pockets. He minds no money however steals his MP3 player. Colin is liable for the following?

A

Robbery as he used violence on the pedestrian and stole the MP3 player.

273
Q

Stealing GPS scenario, caught by owner who attempts to stop them. Steve punches owner in the face causing him to falls. Steve and John run away. What is the most appropriate charge?

A

Aggravated Assault (S192 of the Crimes Act 1961)

274
Q

What are the sequence steps of the appreciation technique?

A

Aim, factors, courses open, plan.

275
Q

A serious assault has occurred at a private party. When you arrive at the scene you wish to speak to the patrons about the assault. In the given circumstances Police behaviour must reflect Guideline 1 of Chief Justice Practice Note which is:

A

You must not suggest through words or actions that a person must answer your questions.

276
Q

Under the Crown Law Prosecution guidelines 2010 – When the admissible evidence is sufficient to provide a reasonable prospect of conviction then Police must:

A

Apply the public interest test to determine if a prosecution is required.

277
Q

If the nominated person chosen by the youth cannot be located with reasonable diligence you should ask the youth to choose another person?

A

True

278
Q

When a Victim elects to go on the VNR they will receive notification from different agencies. Match the agency with the type of information they hold about the offenders status:

If the offender has an upcoming parole hearing

A

NZ Parole Board

279
Q

Select the forensic concept that best describes how the collection of forensic evidence may be affected when:

The crime scene is dowsed in continuous rainfall

A

Deterioration

280
Q

Dave decides to rob the local bank. He leaves a rifle in his vehicle and parked down the street from the bank. He goes into the premises and tells the teller that if she doesn’t hand over the money he will go to his car, get his gun and blow her head off. Dave’s actions would be sufficient to satisfy the “armed with a weapon” ingredient of “aggravated robbery?”

A

False

281
Q

John has been detained for the purpose of issuing a PSO however this has not occurred within 2 hours:

A

John must be immediately released from the place of detention.

282
Q

The judge must exclude a statement when he or she is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the circumstances in which the statement was given adversely affected it reliability?

A

True

283
Q

A scene examination strategy record is a documented report providing an overview record of the management strategies, procedures followed and outcomes achieved at the scene examination phase?

A

True

284
Q

Bill is tagging a fence with a pen. When confronted by the owner, Bill reacts by stabbing him in the chest. Bill flees the scene as he is fearful of arrest. The most appropriate charge in relation to Bill’s actions is “aggravated wounding or injury?”

A

False – As graffiti and wilful damage are not a “crime” therefore no aggravated feature.

285
Q

Being on the VNR means the Victim will be notified:

A

By the agency where the offender is held of any information concerning changes to the offender’s bail, release, parole, escape or death.

286
Q

Under s29 of the Evidence Act 2006, oppression is defined as:

A

Threats, degrading treatment to the Defendant or any other person.

287
Q

The O/C initial action party could decide to immediately uplift an item from a scene of a serious crime when the item:

A

Cannot be protected from the elements and will deteriorate.

288
Q

If a suspect’s right to consult with a lawyer without delay and in private cannot be facilitated immediately by Police, what action is required first?

A

Advise the suspect of that fact and the reason for the delay.