Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

In mammals, cells of the early embryo are induced by signals of neighboring cells to become primordial germ cells. Which of the following provides a signal that initiates the specification of primordial germ cells in the laboratory mouse?
A. BMP
B. Sry
C. Hox
D. bicoid
E. Rspo1

A

A) BMP

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2
Q

Although many genes are involved, the SRY gene (for sex-determining region of the Y chromosome), is important for determining sex in humans. SRY is the key switch and individuals with SRY develop into males, while those without it develop into females. The SRY protein is detected in the bipotential gonad of XY individuals at about 42 days. It contains an HMG (high mobility group) box of 79 amino acids that binds to specific regions of DNA, causing the DNA molecule to bend. This bending is thought to make these regions more accessible to other transcription-regulating proteins which ultimately bring about the differentiation of the gonadal cells.
Which of the following is true with regard to sex determination and development?
A. Wnt4 expression is high during sex determination in the male
B. the Mullerian duct gives rise to male internal genitalia
C. In the mouse, PGCs are induced in the proximal epiblast by signals from the extra-embryonic ectoderm and once specified, migrate to the gonads.
D. P granules are initially clustered in the anterior portion of the Drosophilia egg
E. PGCs are quiescent (in a state or period of inactivity or dormancy) and do not divide on their migratory route through the gut and into the developing gonads.

A

C. In the mouse, PGCs are induced in the proximal epiblast by signals from the extra-embryonic ectoderm and once specified, migrate to the gonads.

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3
Q
  1. How much genetic material is present in a cell during anaphase I compared to a cell during metaphase?
    A. twice as much
    B. the same amount
    C. one-half as much
    D. four times as much
    E. none of the above
A

B. the same amount

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4
Q
  1. Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that the alleles of two (or more) different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene. Independent assortment is a feature of meiosis, but not mitosis.
    Which of the following is true with regard to both mitosis and meiosis?
    A. at the competition of both, there are two daughter cells
    B. both have a stage where tetrads are present
    C. at the completion of both, 4 cells are generated
    D. the number of new chromosome combinations produced by both mitosis and meiosis is 2n
    E. none of the above
A

E. none of the above

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5
Q
  1. During oogenesis, when does the completion of meiosis I and the onset meiosis II occur?
    A. After the primary oocyte stage
    B. Before the secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase of meiosis II
    C. When a sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte
    D. Both A and B
    E. A, B and C
A

D. Both A and B

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6
Q
  1. In humans, puberty is triggered by hormones from the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Which of the following is (are) a false statement(s)?
    A. LH and FSH can be detected in the blood
    B. GnRH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland
    C. An elevated estradiol level is required to trigger the LH surge that triggers ovulation
    D. Both A and C are false
    E. None are false. All are true.
A

B. GnRH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland

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7
Q
  1. During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ____
    A. Progesterone and estradiol are secreted by the corpus luteum
    B. The endometrium is thick
    C. The levels of LH and FSH are relatively low
    D. A woman is not usually menstruating
    E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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8
Q
  1. As you know, the testes are composed largely of seminiferous tubules: coiled tubes, the walls of which contain cells that produce sperm. Seminiferous tubules may constitute up to 90 percent of the testis. The tubule walls consist of a multilayered germinal epithelium containing spermatogenic cells and Sertoli cells (nutritive support cells). During the process of spermatogenesis_____
    A. Secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce early spermatids
    B. Primary spermatocytes are diploid
    C. Spermatogonium reproduce by continuous meiotic divisions to yield haploid sperm
    D. Both A and B
    E. None of the above
A

B. Primary spermatocytes are diploid

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9
Q

Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Epididymis: structure where testicular spermatozoa mature
B. Leydig cell: has a receptor for LH
C. Acrosome: part of sperm head that has enzymes which facilitate egg penetration
D. Inhibin: secreted by Leydig cells; inhibits secretion of follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.
E. Both A and B are not correctly matched

A

D. Inhibin: secreted by Leydig cells; inhibits secretion of follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.

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10
Q

Ovulation during the menstrual cycle is triggered by the LH surge. What is the cause of this LH surge?
A. Increased levels of GnRH
B. Increased levels of estrogen
C. Increased levels of progesterone
D. Increased levels of FSH
E. Both Band C

A

B. Increased levels of estrogen

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11
Q

During the luteal/secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum forms and secretes progesterone. What are the effects of this progesterone secretion?
A. Onset of menses with shedding of the endometrial lining and negative feedback of FSH/LH
B. Maintenance of the endometrial lining and positive feedback of FSH/LH
C. Onset of menses with shedding of the endometrial lining and positive feedback of FSH/LH
D. Maintenance of the endometrial lining and negative feedback of FSH/LH
E. None of the above

A

D. Maintenance of the endometrial lining and negative feedback of FSH/LH

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12
Q

The menstrual cycle is regulated by many hormones. What is the cause of the onset of menses?
A. Degeneration of the corpus luteum and subsequent drop in progesterone levels
B. Formation of the corpus luteum from the follicle and subsequent increase in progesterone and estrogen levels
C. LH surge that triggers ovulation
D. Negative feedback of progesterone on FSH and LH
E. Both B and D

A

A. Degeneration of the corpus luteum and subsequent drop in progesterone levels

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13
Q

Contraception aims to prevent pregnancy. Analogs of progesterone can be used as a form of contraception as either a pill or injection. What are the effects of progesterone that prevent pregnancy?
A. Suppression of FSH/LH secretion
B. Triggering the onset of menses
C. Thickening of the cervical mucus
D. A and C
E. None of the above

A

D. A and C

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14
Q

A patient has a rare condition in which they lack the 5-alpha reductase enzyme. The 5-alpha reductase enzyme is important for converting testosterone to DHT. Which of the following are the expected findings of this condition?
A. Ambiguous genitalia
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Low testosterone
D. Kidney failure
E. Diabetes

A

A. Ambiguous genitalia

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15
Q

The zona pellucida is important in the process of fertilization because it binds to sperm receptors, takes part in induction of the acrosome reaction, and becomes a block to polyspermy. The sea urchin also has blocks to polyspermy. Which of the following is involved with the slow block to polyspermy?
A. Intracellular calcium release
B. The release of resact
C. Transient membrane depolarization
D. The association of bindin with the vitelline membrane
E. None of the above

A

A. Intracellular calcium release

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16
Q

During gastrulation____

A. The blastocoel cavity is formed
B. The chick embryo has structures such as the epiblast, the hypoblast and the primitive streak
C. The human embryo is a hollow ball of cells
D. There is the formation of 4 primary cell layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, neuroderm and endoderm) is occurring
E. None of the above

A

B. The chick embryo has structures such as the epiblast, the hypoblast and the primitive streak

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17
Q

What is the purpose of mucopolysaccharides during the slow block to polyspermy?
A. facilitate the formation of an osmotic gradient which enables formation of the fertilization envelope
B. clip off sperm binding receptors to enable the formation of the fertilization envelope
C. mucopolysaccharides comprise the acrosomal process, which penetrates the jelly coat
D. to crosslink macromolecules of the vitelline membrane
E. to modify the extracellular matrix of the egg to help block sperm entry

A

A. facilitate the formation of an osmotic gradient which enables formation of the fertilization envelope

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18
Q

The yolk of the frog egg
A. prevents gastrulation
B. is concentrated at the animal pole
C. impedes the formation of the primitive streak
D. supports the high rate of cleavage at the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole
E. contains P granules that differentiate into gametes

A

D. supports the high rate of cleavage at the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole

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19
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. endoderm - bone
B. mesoderm - muscle
C. ectoderm - skin
D. neuroectoderm - nervous system
E. neural crest cells - peripheral nervous system, parts of teeth, skull

A

A. endoderm - bone

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20
Q

In a frog embryo, gastrulation
A. produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere.
B. occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere.
C. is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum.
D. proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore.
E. occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk.

A

D. proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore.

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21
Q

In frogs, the archenteron eventually develops into the ___ and the blastopore becomes the ___
A. digestive tract; mouth
B. future ectoderm; anus
C. dorsal lip; primitive streak
D. neural tube; mouth
E. digestive tract; anus

A

E. digestive tract; anus

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22
Q
  1. At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a
    A. blastocyst.
    B. gastrula.
    C. fetus.
    D. trophoblast
    E. zygote.
A

A. blastocyst.

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of xenopus (frog) development?
A. Sperm entry is a critical cue in establishing the dorsal/ventral axis
B. Primitive streak formation occurs at the beginning of gastrulation
C. The grey crescent harbors cytoplasmic determinants needed for the normal development of blastomeres
D. the early embryo has an animal and a vegetal pole
E. A and B

A

B. Primitive streak formation occurs at the beginning of gastrulation

24
Q

Which of the following is not paired correctly?
A. neural tube: differentiates into the brain and spinal cord
B. epiblast: an upper layer of cells formed from the inner cell mass
C. allantois: sac like structure involved in nutrition and secretion
D. trophoblast: gives rise to the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm
E. somites: give rise to vertebrae

A

D. trophoblast: gives rise to the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm

25
Q

The AER
A. is involved in proximal-distal organization in the limb bud
B. has cells that secrete sonic hedgehog
C. indicates “posterior” in a developing embryo
D. gives rise to the digits in the limb
E. facilitates interdigit programmed cell death

A

A. is involved in proximal-distal organization in the limb bud

26
Q

A researcher is using embryonic stem cells made from clones and is comparing them to adult somatic cells.
Which of the following is a likely finding?
A. Stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than adult somatic cells
B. The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation
C. The ICM of the adult somatic cells has differentiated from the epiblast and trophoblast
D. The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns
E. All of the above

A

B. The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation

27
Q

In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells?
A. A retrovirus is used to introduce four (or more) specific regulatory genes.
B. The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
C. Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D. A plasmid vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into gametes.
E. The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell

A

A. A retrovirus is used to introduce four (or more) specific regulatory genes.

28
Q

The CRSPR-Cas9 complex
A. has a region that can bind to targeted genomic DNA
B. can generate site specific breaks in DNA
C. is used in bacteria and archaea as an immune defense system
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

A

E. A, B and C

29
Q

In most pregnancies, the placenta attaches to the top or side of the uterus. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or fully covers the mother’s cervix. A complication of placenta previa is severe bleeding, which can occur during labor and delivery and be life threatening. Interestingly, placenta previa is more common in women who smoke or use cocaine. Regarding the placenta, which of the following are true?
A. It enables nutrient up-take and gas exchange
B. It connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall
C. It includes the chorion
D. Part of it is formed from the trophoblast
E. All are true

A

E. All are true

30
Q

To meet a zygote’s metabolic and developmental requirements,
A. maternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
B. paternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
C. the haploid DNA in the nucleus must be transcribed.
D. the nucleus must have hundreds of copies of every gene, allowing a high rate of gene expression.
E. all of the above

A

A. maternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.

31
Q

If untreated, the sexually transmitted disease, chlamydia, can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, which is caused by infection of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and/or ovaries. Infection in the ovaries can be problematic because normally___
A. the ovaries produce LH and FSH
B. the ovaries have a thickened endometrium
C. the ovaries produce estradiol
D. fertilization occurs in the ovaries
E. all of the above

A

C. the ovaries produce estradiol

32
Q

In our class activity, we learned that mutations in the human Hox genes can cause deformities in the ear and hearing impairment. Which of the following is FALSE regarding Hox genes?
A. Hox genes can be expressed in the developing limb
B. Hox genes are usually expressed along the A/P axis in the mouse embryo
C. Hox genes can encode for a DNA binding domain located on the corresponding Hox protein
D. Drosophila, mice and humans all have Hox genes
E. None of the choices are false.

A

E. None of the choices are false.

33
Q

Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. Allantois: the middle layer of the placenta; is webbed with blood vessels
B. Chorion: innermost placental layer surrounding the fetus
C. Hypoblast: secretes enzymes that breakdown the lining of the uterus (endometrium) to facilitate implantation
D. Endoderm: gives rise to the epidermis of the skin
E. Epiboly: individual cells leave an epithelial sheet and become freely migrating mesenchyme cells.

A

A. Allantois: the middle layer of the placenta; is webbed with blood vessels

34
Q

Which of the following is correct?
A. Cells in AER secrete proteins in the FGF family
B. Integrins are large glycoproteins that comprise the extra cellular matrix
C. In the fruit fly, the A/P axis may begin to be established by gravity as the egg moves down the oviduct
D. In the frog, dark melanin granules are found at the vegetal pole which helps to distinguish the anterior-posterior axis early in development.
E. None of the above are correct.

A

A. Cells in AER secrete proteins in the FGF family

35
Q

A stem cell
A. is a relatively unspecified cell that can reproduce itself indefinitely
B. can differentiate into specialized cells of one or more types
C. can be found in the ICM
D. can be found in the bone marrow
E. all of the choices are correct

A

E. all of the choices are correct

36
Q

Blood stem cells in the bone marrow are considered to be
A. Totipotent
B. Pluripotent
C. Omnipotent
D. Fully differentiated
E. None of the choices are correct

A

E. None of the choices are correct

37
Q

Embryonic stem cells (ECS)
A. can be cultured from fully differentiated cells from the umbilical cord
B. can be cultured from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst
C. have p granules which specify the anterior part of the animal
D. are totipotent
E. are made by inserting 4 genes into them

A

B. can be cultured from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst

38
Q

Cell crawling/migration involves
A. disassembly and reassembly of filaments
B. cell adhesion molecules
C. the extra–cellular matrix (ECM)
D. receptor proteins found on the surface of cells (such as integrins)
E. all of the choices are correct

A

E. all of the choices are correct

39
Q

A study called BRILLIANCE is currently in clinical trials to correct blindness caused by a congenital disease known as Leber congenital amaurosis. It is the world’s first human study using in vivo CRISPR genome editing. The therapy is delivered to the patient via a subretinal injection into the light-sensing photoreceptor cells of the retina. This study uses a vector to deliver its components to the targeted cells. Which of the following is a tool that molecular biologists often use to package and deliver the genetic material they want to get into target cells?
A. a modified lentivirus or adenovirus
B. a bacterial cell that fuses with the target cell
C. individual injections of the material they want to deliver into each cell that is targeted
D. all of the choices are correct
E. none of the choices are correct

A

A. a modified lentivirus or adenovirus

40
Q

Regarding sex determination in mice___
A. females would have a high expression of Sox9 and Fgf9
B. the Sry gene is located on the X chromosome
C. males would have a high expression of Rspo1 and Wnt 4
D. females would not normally have a Sry gene
E. in females, sertoli cells would give rise to Leydig cells

A

D. females would not normally have a Sry gene

41
Q

Which is ordered correctly?
A. primary spermatocyte🡪secondary spermatocyte🡪spermatogonium🡪spermatid
B. anterior pituitary🡪hypothalamus🡪LH🡪sertoli cells🡪testosterone
C. proliferative phase🡪menstrual flow phase🡪luteal phase🡪ovulation
D. prophase I 🡪interphase I🡪metaphase I🡪 telophase I
E. oognium 🡪primary oocyte🡪secondary oocyte🡪ovum

A

E. oognium 🡪primary oocyte🡪secondary oocyte🡪ovum

42
Q

Which best characterizes the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?
A. Higher estradiol and progesterone; low FSH and LH
B. Very low estradiol and progesterone
C. LH surge
D. Growth and maturation of the follicle
E. Increasing estradiol; low LH and no progesterone

A

A. Higher estradiol and progesterone; low FSH and LH

43
Q

An egg is liberated from the ovary in the
A. Primary oocyte stage
B. Secondary oocyte stage
C. Oogonial stage
D. Mature ovum stage
E. None of the above

A

B. Secondary oocyte stage

44
Q

What is the correct order of events in sea urchin fertilization?
1. depolarization is triggered leading to fast block to polyspermy
2. acrosomal process formed
3. fusion of sperm and egg membranes
4. clipping of sperm binding receptors
5. hydrolytic enzymes released from the acrosome

A. 5,2,1,3,4
B. 1,5,2,4,3
C. 4,5,2,1,3
D. 1,2,5,3,4
E. 5,2,3,1,4

A

E. 5,2,3,1,4

45
Q

Which of the following is not associated with sea urchin reproduction and development?
A. zona pellucida
B. acrosomal reaction
C. slow block to polyspermy
D. archenteron
E. resact

A

A. zona pellucida

46
Q

In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions,
A. the acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B. the fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C. the fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D. the fertilization envelope would not form.
E. the zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.

A

D. the fertilization envelope would not form

47
Q

In the frog embryo__
A. the amnion gives rise to the amnionic villa and chorionic sac
B. the grey crescent marks the future dorsal side
C. the A/P axis is thought to be established by gravity at the egg moves down the oviduct
D. organogenesis precedes gastrulation
E. yolk is concentrated at the animal pole

A

B. the grey crescent marks the future dorsal side

48
Q

The formation of the primitive streak marks the beginning of which developmental stage in the chick?
A. Neurulation stage
B. Blastulation stage
C. Follicular stage
D. Gastrulation stage
E. Secretory stage

A

D. Gastrulation stage

49
Q

The region of the developing vertebrate nervous system that is the precursor to the CNS is known as the________; and cells in this region express what Ca2+ dependent molecule?
A. neural crest, CREB
B. somites, cGMP
C. neural tube, cadherin
D. neural crest, cadherin
E. homeodomain, hox

A

D. neural crest, cadherin

50
Q

During chick and human development, cells that form the embryo come from the
A. epiblast
B. trophoblast
C. hypoblast
D. outer cell mass
E. all of the above contribute to the embryo

A

A. epiblast

51
Q

Which of the following is not paired correctly?
A. chorion: extraembryonic membrane between the fetus and mother
B. epiblast: an upper layer of cells formed from the inner cell mass
C. somites: give rise to vertebrae
D. hypoblast: outer epithelium of the blastocyst that forms the fetal portion of the placenta

A

D. hypoblast: outer epithelium of the blastocyst that forms the fetal portion of the placenta

52
Q

P granules
A. are essential for setting up the anterior region of the fruit fly
B. interact with sonic hedgehog for limb development
C. are localized regions that gives rise to gametes
D. are necessary for dorsal/ventral specification in C. elegans
E. are concentrated in the grey crescent region of the developing embryo

A

C. are localized regions that gives rise to gametes

53
Q

Which of the following are major types of cell movements that can occur during gastrulation?
A. Invagination
B. Ingression
C. Epiboly
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

A

E. A, B and C

54
Q

Wild type Drosophila larvae have both a head and tail region. If a mutant larva has two-tails_____
A. It’s mother likely has two mutant copies of a gene that is essential for setting up the anterior end of the fly
B. It’s mother has two mutant copies of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) gene
C. It has a mutant copy of the hox gene
D. It’s dorsal/ventral body axes have not been appropriately specified
E. None of the above

A

A. It’s mother likely has two mutant copies of a gene that is essential for setting up the anterior end of the fly

55
Q

Which of the following is a FALSE statement?
A. The AER is involved with the proximal-distal organization of the limb bud
B. Integrins are receptor proteins found on the surface of cells and are important for cell migration
C. Apoptosis is defined as programed cell death
D. The homeodomain is a 60 amino acid long domain which facilitates the binding of one protein to another protein
E. The ZPA is involved with the organization of the A/P axis in the limb bud and indicates “posterior”

A

D. The homeodomain is a 60 amino acid long domain which facilitates the binding of one protein to another protein

56
Q
  1. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC) are made from
    A. Undifferentiated stem cells from the umbilical cord
    B. The inner cell mass of a gastrula
    C. Differentiated cells
    D. Bacterial cells
    E. None of the above
A

C. Differentiated cells

57
Q

CRISPR Cas9 ___
A. Can create double stranded breaks in DNA that can be repaired by processes known as NHEJ and HR
B. Must have a PAM sequence in its sgRNA (or single guide RNA) for effective function
C. Was originally identified in human fibroblast cells
D. Uses the Cas 9 proteinase to cut specific immune system proteins
E. None of the above

A

A. Can create double stranded breaks in DNA that can be repaired by processes known as NHEJ and HR