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Biology 105 > Test and Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Test and Quiz Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Darwin is famous for

A

explaining HOW evolution could happen

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2
Q

Why is genetic variation crucial for evolution?

A

It is the source material for natural selection

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3
Q

Define parsimony

A

the smallest amount of change

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4
Q

What is disruptive selection?

A

The organisms with extreme phenotypes have the highest fitness

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5
Q

What is the modern definition of evolution?

A

Change in allele frequencies in a population over time

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6
Q

What postulates led to Darwin’s idea of natural selection?

A
  1. Offspring are VARIABLE
  2. Offspring RESEMBLE their parents
  3. More offspring are PRODUCED than can survive
  4. Those that survive are a NON-RANDOM sample
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7
Q

What is a homeobox?

A

The region of DNA in a hox gene that codes for a portion of the protein that binds to DNA

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8
Q

What happens when a histone tail is modified?

A

Chromatin structure is affected which affects gene expression

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9
Q

In general, when cytosine bases in CpG islands are methylated:

A

Transcription is repressed

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10
Q

X inactivation is caused by the accumulation of what?

A

Noncoding RNA produced by the Xist gene, which coats the X chromosome

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11
Q

A mutation occurs that causes a defect in the development of skeletal muscle. The mutation would likely have occurred where?

A

Mesoderm

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12
Q

How is position along the anterior-posterior axis of an embryo determined by the protein bicoid?

A

Its concentration in different regions

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13
Q

An activator protein combines with a small molecule and undergoes a change in shape that alters its binding affinity to DNA. This change is shape is called what?

A

Allosteric affect

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14
Q

What would happen if the promoter to the lac operon was mutated?

A

RNA polymerase could not bind

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15
Q

What is the function of B-galactosidase?

A

To cleave lactose into its monomer sugars: glucose and galactose

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16
Q

Gurdon’s nuclear transplantation experiments with tadpoles support which hypothesis?

A

Differentiation its the result of genes being successively turned on or off over time

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17
Q

Do individuals evolve?

A

No, individuals live or die, populations evolve over time

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18
Q

Genetic variation in a population refers to what?

A

Multiple alleles within a gene pool

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19
Q

What is one reason why mutations may be deleterious?

A

Because if a mutation changes the primary structure of a protein, the protein may no longer work

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20
Q

A drought nearly causes a tree frog population to go extinct. Frogs that had slightly thicker skin survived in higher numbers than frogs with thinner skin. If skin thickness is a genetically based trait, how would you describe what happened?

A

Directional selection

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21
Q

Why does ice float in liquid water?

A

Stable hydrogen bonds keep water molecules of ice further apart than water molecules of liquid water

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22
Q

Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the atoms have a partial positive/negative charge in NH3?

A

Each hydrogen atom is slightly positive. Each nitrogen atom is slightly negative.

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23
Q

What distinguishes amino acids from one another?

A

The composition of their side chains (R groups)

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24
Q

Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. It’s R group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Predict the behavior of the amino acid

A

It is hydrophobic

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25
Q

Which characteristics do all life forms share?

A
  • Complexity
  • Ability to respond to the environment
  • Ability to reproduce
  • Capacity to evolve
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26
Q

Summarize the cell theory?

A

All organisms are made of cells, all organisms come from preexisting cells

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27
Q

If a DNA sample is 10% thymine, what percentage is guanine?

A

40%

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28
Q

What about DNA’s structure facilities copying?

A

The strands of the double helix are complimentary

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29
Q

How to bonds differ between adjacent nucleotides in the backbone of the DNA versus between complimentary base pairs?

A

Complementary pairs (adjacent bases of nucleotides) are hydrogen bonded. The backbone is covalent (phosphodiester) bonds

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30
Q

Draw a nucleotide

A

–

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31
Q

You get a paper cut. What kind of cell division occurs to help you heal?

A

Mitosis

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32
Q

How do two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes differ from each other?

A

They potentially have different alleles of the same genes

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33
Q

In the context of cell signaling, to what does the term ligand refer?

A

A signaling molecule that binds to a receptor

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34
Q

After the S phase of the cell cycle, what comprises a single chromosome?

A
    • Two sister chromatids

- - Two double stranded molecules of DNA attached at the centromere

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35
Q

What type of transport is involved in the following: The action of sodium-potassium pumps moves sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell, against their concentration gradients.

A

Active transport

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36
Q

What does 3n=6 mean?

A

There are three of each kind of chromosome

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37
Q

During the signal transduction process, the signal often triggers a signal cascade. For example, an activated receptor actives hundred of protein A. Each activated protein A activates hundreds of protein B and so on until a cellular response occurs. What purpose does a cascade serve?

A

The cascade serves to amplify the signal, so one activated receptor can have a significant response

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38
Q

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on what?

A

The presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

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39
Q

Draw a cell membrane and use the following words to label it: polar, hydrophobic, hydrophilic, non polar, channel for facilitated diffusion, transmembrane protein, G protein coupled receptor, receptor kinase, saturated fatty acid tail, unsaturated fatty acid tail, signaling molecule nearby

A
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40
Q

Banded snakes are present in inland populations of water snakes, even though they are intensely selected against.. What accounts for the presence of banded snakes on the islands?

A

Gene flow

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41
Q

Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that does what?

A

introduces new genetic variation into populations

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42
Q

Large males fight each other and win more territorial contests than smaller males. What kind of selection is this?

A

Sexual selection via intrasexual selection

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43
Q

A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed on his field. For the first few years of treatment, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. What explains this observation?

A

Only triazine resistant weeds survived and reproduced, so each year more pigweed was triazine resistant

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44
Q

If you choose one pair of human chromosomes, what do the two chromosomes have in common?

A

Length, centromere position, and similar (same genes) but not necessarily identical DNA sequences (different alleles)

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45
Q

What is the modern definition of evolution?

A

Change in allele frequencies in a population over time

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46
Q

What are the two main points the Darwin made in his book?

A

1) diverse groups of animals evolve from one or a few common ancestors
2) the mechanism by which this evolution takes place is natural selection

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47
Q

Why does the chromatin remodeling have to be the first step in gene activation in eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotic DNA is highly packaged in condensed chromatin and inaccessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase before remodeling

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48
Q

The muscle cells and nerve cells in a mouse look very different and serve very different functions. Why?

A

These cells express different genes

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49
Q

Which type of mana is present at greater levels at the anterior end of a Drosophilia embryo than the posterior end?

A

Bicoid mRNA

50
Q

After fertilization, what process produces all subsequent cells in the adult human?

A

Mitosis

51
Q

What is the name of the regulatory protein that controls the cell cycle?

A

Cyclin

52
Q

What could cause uncontrolled cancer cell growth?

A

non-functional p53

53
Q

Why is meiosis I known as the reductional division?

A

The first division is called the reduction division – or meiosis I – because it reduces the number of chromosomes from 46 chromosomes or 2n to 23 chromosomes or n (the cell goes from diploid to haploid)

54
Q

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

A

Prophase I

55
Q

What is the function of primase?

A

Synthesis of a short RNA sequence during DNA replication

56
Q

Adult humans are (….haploid, diploid etc)?

A

Haploid

57
Q

DNA is synthesized through a process known as what?

A

Semi-conservative replication

58
Q

Draw a 2n=6 cell at G1 and then at metaphase I of meiosis

A
59
Q

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Synthesizes proteins and lipids

60
Q

Why do unsaturated fatty acids help keep a membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

A

The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly

61
Q

What is the main difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

A

Facilitated diffusion uses a channel protein

62
Q

Lipids that form membranes have what kind of structure?

A

Polar heads and non polar tails; the polar heads interact with water in and outside of the cell

63
Q

If meiosis produces haploid gametes, how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life in the diploid state?

A

Fertilization

64
Q

Prokaryotes divide via…?

A

Binary fission

65
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The particular combination of alleles in any given organism

66
Q

Mendel’s experiments with garden peas differed from those of other plant breeders at the time in that Mendel did what?

A

Focused on true breeding lines and a small number of easily contrasted traits. Quantified results

67
Q

A synonymous mutation has no effect on the phenotype because?

A

The mutation is such that the codon specifies the same amino acid

68
Q

What is the current hypothesis explaining why large mammals get cancer much less often than humans?

A

They have more copies of the p53 gene

69
Q

What events contribute to producing genetically variable offspring through sexual reproduction?

A

Crossing over, independent, assortment

70
Q

How would genetic variation be affected if there was no independent assortment?

A

Gametes would either contain maternal or paternal chromosomes only

71
Q

If a diploid cell has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do each of its 4 daughter cells have?

A

12

72
Q

Where do we find DNA in bacterium?

A

The nucleoid region

73
Q

How do chromosomes move around in the cell during meiosis and mitosis?

A

Spindle fibers that attach to kinetochores

74
Q

What does mitosis produce?

A

Two genetically identical cells

75
Q

True or false: DNA polymerase separates the DNA double helix as it synthesizes a new polypeptide chain?

A

False!

76
Q

What type of transport is involved in moving things against their concentration gradient?

A

Active transport

77
Q

What is the function of adenylyl cyclase?

A

To form cyclic AMP

78
Q

What is the sequence of steps n the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A

G1—> S —-> G2 —-> mitosis —-> cytokinesis

79
Q

What is a kinase?

A

An enzyme that activates or inactivates other proteins by adding a phosphate group to them

80
Q

Which type of diffusion functions to move LARGE molecules along their concentration gradient?

A

Facilitated diffusion

81
Q

Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because..?

A

A target cell’s response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways

82
Q

A true breeding strain is…?

A

Homozygous

83
Q

In the context of cell signaling, to what does the term ligand refer?

A

A signaling molecule

84
Q

Adrenaline from the adrenal glands is an example of what type of signaling?

A

Endocrine signaling

85
Q

How are Okazaki fragments synthesized?

A

Using the lagging strand and synthesizing 5 prime to 3 prime

86
Q

Why would the removal of the 5 prime triphosphate from the nucleotides used by DNA polymerase block the process of DNA synthesis?

A

The energy used to link one nucleotide to another would no longer be available

87
Q

What occurs when a covalent bond forms?

A

Electrons in the valence shells are shared

88
Q

The backbone of the DNA molecule is made up of what?

A

Alternating sugars and phosphate groups

89
Q

An atom has an atomic number of eight and has six electrons in the valence shell. How many single covalent bonds would you expect to form?

A

Two

90
Q

Prions are interesting because they have the same amino acid sequence as a normal protein, but a different what?

A

Shape

91
Q

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when…?

A

One of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other

92
Q

Some proteins do not fold properly on their own after translation. These proteins require the assistance of which molecules?

A

Chaperones

93
Q

What types of bonds are between complementary base pairs in DNA?

A

Hydrogen bonds

94
Q

The fully folded structure of the a functional protein composed of a single polypeptide chain is referred to as the ____ structure.

A

Secondary

95
Q

How is secondary structure stabilized?

A

By hydrogen bonds

96
Q

____ are monomers of nucleic acids

A

Nucleotides

97
Q

____ are monomers of proteins

A

Amino acids

98
Q

What are enhancers?

A

A sequence of DNA to which transcription activator proteins bind

99
Q

What would be the result of there was no 5 prime cap?

A

The ribosome would not recognize the 5 prime end, the initiation complex would fail to form, and translation would not occur

100
Q

What does alternative splicing mean?

A

Different spliced forms of mRNA contain different combinations of exons

101
Q

Which protein interacts directly with the stop codon?

A

Release factor

102
Q

In eukaryotes, the AUG codon that starts translation is located where?

A

Adjacent to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

103
Q

What is an intron?

A

A DNA sequence that is part of a gene, is noncoding, and is removed during the processing of its mRNA molecule

104
Q

If you made a change in the promoter sequence in the DNA that inactivates the promoter, what would happen at the RNA level?

A

The RNA polymerase would not be able to recognize and bind do DNA, so no RNA would be made

105
Q

Translation is the process by which..?

A

Ribosomes synthesize protein from information in an RNA molecule

106
Q

The discovery that DNA from killed virulent bacteria can transform live harmless bacteria into virulent from means what?

A

That DNA contains organisms that determines an organism’s traits

107
Q

Who was Rosalind Franklin?

A

The scientist who’s X-ray diffraction picture of DNA helped solve its structure

108
Q

What is a ribozyme?

A

an RNA with catalytic activity

109
Q

What is the relationship between newly synthesized RNA molecules and the DNA template strand?

A

Complementary

110
Q

What is a working definition of a gene?

A

A sequence of DNA that goes for a functional RNA molecule

111
Q

What are the four main characteristics of life?

A
    • Complexity
    • Capacity to evolve
    • Capability to respond to the environment
    • Capability of reproduction
112
Q

How does caffeine affect the kidneys?

A

Blocks receptors for ADH

113
Q

A longer micro-sattelite region in prairie voles was correlated with what sort of behavior?

A

Increased social bonding behaviors

114
Q

What are micro-satelitte sequences?

A

Series of nucleotide repeats, two to four bases long, that are repeated over and over

115
Q

What is the relationship between the hypothalamus and the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary?

A

The hypothalamus communicates directly with the posterior pituitary via neurons and with the anterior pituitary through blood vessels

116
Q

Steroid and peptide hormones have what in common?

A

They both travel through the bloodstream

117
Q

Where do neurons communicate?

A

The synapse

118
Q

Draw an axon where the membrane is at resting potential: indicate with +s and -s, the relative charges of different sides of the membrane and label channel proteins clearly. Then choose one part of the action potential and indicate what happens during that phase

A
119
Q

Where is insulin produced?

A

Pancreas

120
Q

What are the target tissues of insulin?

A

Liver and muscles

121
Q

What is the result on the target tissues when insulin is secreted?

A

Glycogen is synthesized and blood sugar levels are reduced

122
Q

What is myelin?

A

The sheath that cover neurons and speeds up nerve conduction

Biology 105 (2 decks)

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