test 7 Flashcards

Question

As an IT admin you have to develop scripts that need to be used to add data disks to an existing virtual machine. Below is the incomplete script Which of the following would go into Slot1? New-AzDisk New-AzDiskConfig Add-AzVMDataDisk Set-AzDisk

Answer 1

New-AzDiskConfig

Answer 2

Add-AzVMDataDisk

Answer 3

Update-AzVM

Answer 4

New-AzDisk

Answer 5

Set the forwarded traffic settings as Enabled

Answer 6

A new route table

Answer 7

Enable IP forwarding

Answer 8

Understanding Azure Policies Azure Policies: Used to enforce organizational standards and assess compliance at scale. Resource Types: Azure policies can target specific resource types. "Not Allowed" Resources: Policies can be configured to prevent the creation or modification of resources. Resource Move: Moving resources to different resource groups is considered a modification of the resource. Analyzing the Resources Virtual Machine "CertGlobalvm": Running state. Analyzing the Azure Policy The defined policy prevents: Creation of virtual networks (Microsoft.Network/virtualNetworks). Creation of virtual machines (Microsoft/Compute/virtualMachines). Determining if the VM Can Be Moved The policy restricts the creation of new virtual machines and virtual networks, it does not prevent the modification of existing virtual machines, therefore the resource should be able to be moved. Answer: Yes

Answer 9

Understanding Azure Policies Azure Policies: Used to enforce organizational standards and assess compliance at scale. Resource Types: Azure policies can target specific resource types. "Not Allowed" Resources: Policies can be configured to prevent the creation or modification of resources. Virtual Machine State: The state of a virtual machine (e.g., running, deallocated) is controlled by its configuration and lifecycle events. Analyzing the Resources Virtual Machine "CertGlobalvm": Currently in the running state. Analyzing the Azure Policy The defined policy prevents: Creation of virtual networks (Microsoft.Network/virtualNetworks). Creation of virtual machines (Microsoft/Compute/virtualMachines). Determining if the VM State Changes Policy Impact: The policy is designed to prevent the creation of new resources, not the modification or deallocation of existing ones. Existing Resources: As the virtual machine has already been created, the policy will not impact the existing state of the virtual machine. Therefore, assigning the policy will not deallocate the virtual machine. Answer: No

Answer 10

A. Set-AzureRmVMSourceImage -VM $VirtualMachine -PublisherName "MicrosoftWindowsServer" -Offer "WindowsServer" -Skus "2012-R2-Datacenter" -Version "latest"

Answer 11

B. kubelet Why B is correct: Kubelet is the primary node agent that runs on each node in the Kubernetes cluster [1] It's responsible for ensuring containers are running in a Pod as specified in the PodSpecs It communicates with the control plane (master) and executes orchestration requests It manages the container lifecycle, ensuring containers are running and healthy It registers the node with the kube-apiserver on the Kubernetes control plane Why other options are incorrect: A. kube-proxy This is incorrect because kube-proxy is a network proxy that runs on each node It maintains network rules and handles network communication to and from pods It does not handle container orchestration or scheduling C. controller master This is incorrect because "controller master" is not a standard Kubernetes component While the control plane (master) makes scheduling decisions, it's the kubelet that actually executes these decisions on the nodes D. container runtime This is incorrect because container runtime (like Docker) is just the software responsible for running containers It's a lower-level component that kubelet uses to start and stop containers It doesn't handle orchestration requests or scheduling decisions

Answer 12

Understanding Azure Roles and Permissions Azure RBAC: Azure Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is used to manage access to Azure resources. Roles: Roles define the set of permissions that can be granted to a user, group, or service principal. Cloud Endpoint: A cloud endpoint typically involves configuring resources such as load balancers, application gateways, or other networking components. Microsoft.Authorization Permissions: Permissions under the Microsoft.Authorization namespace are related to access control and role assignments. Analyzing the Roles Let's examine each of the provided roles and their relevance to creating a cloud endpoint: A. User Access Administrator: Analysis: This role grants permissions to manage user access to Azure resources, including assigning roles to other users. It does not grant direct permissions for creating resources, such as cloud endpoints. This role is incorrect. B. Owner: Analysis: This role grants full access to all Azure resources, including the ability to create resources, and manage the access permissions of other users. This role has the necessary permissions to create a cloud endpoint. This role is correct. C. Reader and Data Access: Analysis: This role only provides read-only access to resources. It does not grant permissions to create resources. This role is incorrect. D. Contributor: Analysis: This role grants the ability to create and manage resources, but doesn't include the specific Microsoft.Authorization permissions required to create cloud endpoints. This role is not the correct one. The Correct Role The role that has the required permissions to create a cloud endpoint, and includes Microsoft.Authorization permissions is the Owner role. Answer: B. Owner

Answer 13

The correct answers are: A. Service Endpoint C. Private IP Address D. NSG (Network Security Group) Let's analyze why each option is correct or incorrect: CORRECT ANSWERS: A. Service Endpoint Correct because it allows you to secure Azure service resources to your virtual network Provides direct connection from your VNet to Azure MySQL database [1] Restricts database access to only resources within your VNet Improves security by removing database access from the public internet C. Private IP Address Correct because it ensures the database is only accessible within the private network Prevents direct exposure to the internet Allows secure communication between resources in the same VNet Can be used with Private Link to establish secure connections D. NSG (Network Security Group) Correct because it acts as a network-level firewall Allows you to control inbound and outbound traffic Can restrict access based on source/destination IP addresses and ports Provides additional security layer for database access control INCORRECT ANSWER: B. VNet Peering While VNet Peering is a useful networking feature, it's not primarily a security measure It's used to connect two VNets together to allow resources to communicate It's more about network connectivity than security While it can be part of a secure architecture, it's not specifically focused on securing database access

Answer 14

Correct Option: C. Standard Explanation: Standard: The Standard App Service Plan supports scaling up to 10 instances, provides up to 50GB of storage, and allows for custom domain names. It is suitable for production workloads that require scaling, custom domains, and additional storage.

Answer 15

Understanding Azure Storage Redundancy Locally Redundant Storage (LRS): Replicates your data three times within a single data center. Provides basic protection against hardware failures within a single data center. Geo-Redundant Storage (GRS): Replicates your data three times within the primary region and also three times in a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away. Provides protection against regional outages. Read-Access Geo-Redundant Storage (RA-GRS): Same as GRS, but also provides read-only access to the secondary region, which can be used for reading data during a failure of the primary region. Zone-Redundant Storage (ZRS): Replicates your data synchronously across three availability zones in the primary region. Provides high availability within a single region. Premium Storage: Uses Solid State Drives (SSDs) to provide high performance and low latency. Analyzing Redundancy Options for Premium Storage LRS (Locally Redundant Storage): Is supported in conjunction with the premium storage tier. GRS (Geo-Redundant Storage): Is not available in conjunction with the premium storage tier. RA-GRS (Read-Access Geo-Redundant Storage): Is not available in conjunction with the premium storage tier. ZRS (Zone-Redundant Storage): Is not available in conjunction with the premium storage tier. The Correct Redundancy Option Only Locally redundant storage is available when using Premium storage. Answer: B. Locally redundant storage

Answer 16

C. VM image (specialized) Why C is correct: A VM image (specialized) captures the complete state of a running VM including: Operating system All attached data disks Applications and configurations System state It's perfect for creating exact copies of a working VM Maintains all configurations and customizations Best for backup and disaster recovery scenarios Why other options are incorrect: A. OS image (generalized) Incorrect because generalized images remove all machine-specific information Doesn't maintain specific configurations and customizations Requires sysprep which removes unique identifiers Doesn't include data disks Better for deploying multiple new instances, not for capturing complete system state B. Disk image Incorrect because it only captures a single disk Doesn't capture the complete VM configuration Limited to either OS disk or data disk content Doesn't maintain the relationship between multiple disks D. Data image Incorrect because this isn't a standard image type in cloud environments Would only contain data, not system state or configurations Doesn't include OS or system configurations Doesn't maintain the complete VM state

Answer 17

Correct Option: A. False Explanation: False: In an Azure App Service plan, all apps share the same scaling rules. The scaling settings apply to the entire App Service plan, not to individual apps within the plan. Therefore, you cannot configure different scaling rules for each app in the same App Service plan.

Answer 18

Correct Option: B) One Recovery Services vault with separate policies for VMs and file shares Explanation: One Recovery Services vault with separate policies for VMs and file shares: Azure Backup allows you to use a single Recovery Services vault to back up multiple types of resources, including virtual machines and file shares. However, you need to create separate backup policies for VMs and file shares to meet their specific backup requirements.

Answer 19

The correct answer is A) Only RDP from subnet 10.0.2.0/24 and ICMP from any source Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: NSG1 inbound rules: Priority 500: Port 3389 (RDP), TCP, Source 10.0.2.0/24, Destination Any Priority 1000: Any port, ICMP, Source Any, Destination Virtual Network Copy Insert at cursor text NSG Rule Analysis: Rule Breakdown: 1. RDP Rule (Priority 500): - Protocol: TCP - Port: 3389 - Source: 10.0.2.0/24 - Allows RDP only from specific subnet 2. ICMP Rule (Priority 1000): - Protocol: ICMP - Port: Any - Source: Any - Allows ICMP from anywhere Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) NSG Default Rules: Priority Name Port Source Destination 65000 AllowVnetInBound All VNet VNet 65001 AllowAzureLoadBalancer All Azure LB Any 65500 DenyAllInbound All Any Any Copy Insert at cursor text b) Rule Processing: Processed by priority First match wins Lower number = higher priority Why Other Options are Wrong: B) Only RDP from any source and ICMP from virtual network: RDP is restricted to 10.0.2.0/24 ICMP is allowed from any source

Answer 20

The correct answer is B) storage1 and storage4 Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Azure AD DS enabled for storage1 and storage4 Identity access disabled for storage2 RBAC requires Azure AD authentication File shares access control Storage Account Analysis: Storage Account Configuration: storage1: - Azure AD DS enabled - Can use RBAC - File share: sharea storage2: - Identity access disabled - Cannot use RBAC - File shares: shareb, sharec storage4: - Azure AD DS enabled - Can use RBAC - File share: shared Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) File Share Access Methods: - Azure AD authentication - Storage account keys - Shared access signatures (SAS) - Azure AD DS integration Copy Insert at cursor text b) RBAC Requirements: Azure AD DS enabled Identity-based access Proper role assignment Permission scope Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Only storage1: Excludes storage4 Both support RBAC C) storage1, storage2, and storage4: storage2 has identity access disabled Cannot use RBAC D) None: Incorrect storage1 and storage4 support RBAC Implementation Considerations: a) Access Configuration: Azure AD DS integration Role assignments Permission scope Authentication method b) Security Controls: Least privilege Access review Monitoring Audit logging Best Practices: a) Storage Access: Use Azure AD authentication Enable identity access Regular access review Proper documentation b) Security Management: Role-based access Regular audits Monitoring Compliance checks Critical Exam Topics: a) Storage Authentication: Azure AD integration Identity access RBAC support Authentication methods b) Access Control: Role assignments Permission scope Authentication options Security controls Remember for the Exam: a) Storage Requirements: Azure AD DS enabled Identity access configured RBAC support Authentication method b) Access Methods: Azure AD authentication Storage account keys SAS tokens File share permissions Additional Important Notes: a) Management Options: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI REST API b) Troubleshooting Areas: Authentication issues Permission problems Access denied errors Configuration validation Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: Storage authentication Access control RBAC implementation Security features b) Operational Understanding: Configuration steps Management tasks Troubleshooting Best practices

Answer 21

Understanding Azure Policy and Roles Azure Policy Definitions: Define the rules that must be followed by resources in Azure. Azure Policy Assignments: Apply policies to resources, resource groups, or subscriptions. Policy Contributor: A role that allows a user to create and manage policy definitions. Policy Administrator: A role that allows a user to manage policies and policy assignments, and can also create policies. Resource Policy Contributor: Allows for creating and managing policies, and it can also assign policies. Analyzing the Requirements User1: Needs to create Azure policy definitions. User2: Needs to assign Azure policies to RG1. Determining the Correct Roles Let's evaluate the options: A) User1: Policy Contributor, User2: Policy Administrator Analysis: The Policy Contributor role is not sufficient for creating policy definitions. While the Policy Administrator would be sufficient to assign the policies, it is not the lowest level role to perform the required tasks. This option is incorrect. B) User1: Resource Policy Contributor, User2: Policy Administrator Analysis: While the Policy Administrator would be sufficient to assign the policies, it is not the lowest level role to perform the required tasks. This option is incorrect. The resource policy contributor role allows for the creation of policies and the assignment of the policies, so is suitable to meet the requirements. C) User1: Policy Administrator, User2: Policy Contributor Analysis: The Policy Administrator role has the correct level of permissions, but would be too permissive for creating policy definitions, and the policy contributor role would not be able to assign the policy at a resource group level. This option is incorrect. D) User1: Resource Policy Contributor, User2: Resource Policy Contributor Analysis: The Resource Policy Contributor role allows the user to create policy definitions and to assign policies to a resource group. This is the correct approach as it allows for the desired permissions while using the least privileged option. This option is correct. The Correct Roles The correct roles are: User1: Resource Policy Contributor User2: Resource Policy Contributor Answer: D) User1: Resource Policy Contributor, User2: Resource Policy Contributor

Answer 22

The correct answer is B) VM1, VM2, and VM4 Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: VM3 is in VNET2 VNET peering relationships exist Transitive peering is NOT supported [1] No NSGs currently applied VNET Peering Analysis: Direct Peering Map: VNET1 ↔ VNET2 (VM1, VM2 can reach VM3) VNET2 ↔ VNET3 (VM4 can reach VM3) VNET4: Isolated (VM5 cannot reach VM3) VM Locations: VM1: VNET1/Subnet1 VM2: VNET1/Subnet2 VM3: VNET2/Subnet1 VM4: VNET3/Subnet1 VM5: VNET4/Subnet1 Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) VNET Peering Rules: Not transitive Bi-directional Cross-region capable Requires setup on both VNets b) Key Concepts: - Direct peering only - No transitive routing - Regional considerations - Network planning Copy Insert at cursor text Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Only VM1 and VM2: Excludes VM4 Ignores VNET2-VNET3 peering C) All VMs: VM5 is isolated No path to VNET4 D) Only VM4: Ignores VNET1-VNET2 peering VM1 and VM2 can also connect [2] Implementation Considerations: a) Peering Requirements: Non-overlapping IP ranges Network connectivity Proper configuration Resource permissions b) Network Planning: Address spaces Subnet design Routing Security Best Practices: a) VNET Design: Plan IP addressing Document peering Consider future growth Security requirements b) Connectivity: Direct peering where needed Hub-spoke topology Network security Monitoring Critical Exam Topics: a) VNET Peering Concepts: Non-transitive nature Bi-directional setup Regional support Limitations b) Network Design: IP addressing Connectivity options Security considerations Management Remember for the Exam: a) Peering Characteristics: Direct connections only No transitive routing Bi-directional traffic Regional considerations b) Network Planning: Address spaces Connectivity requirements Security controls Management needs Additional Important Notes: a) Management Options: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI ARM templates b) Troubleshooting Areas: Connectivity issues Routing problems Security controls Performance Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: VNET peering Network connectivity [3] Routing Security b) Operational Understanding: Implementation Troubleshooting Management Best practices

Answer 23

Determining the Correct Storage Account Type Let's evaluate the options: A) General-purpose v1 Analysis: While General-purpose v1 storage accounts support blobs, this is a legacy type and is not the recommended option. This option is incorrect. B) General-purpose v2 Analysis: General-purpose v2 storage accounts are the recommended type and do support blob storage replication, therefore, this option is correct. C) BlobStorage Analysis: The Blob storage type is designed for blob storage and does support blob replication. This is a valid option, but the general purpose storage accounts are a better solution, as they allow other types of resources to be created if necessary. This option is correct. D) FileStorage Analysis: File storage is designed for file shares and does not support blob service replication. This option is incorrect. The Correct Storage Account Types Both general-purpose v2 and BlobStorage are correct options. General purpose v2 is the most flexible, however both would meet the requirements of this question. Answer: B) General-purpose v2 C) BlobStorage Therefore, the full answer is: General-purpose v2: Supports blob replication directly. BlobStorage: Supports blob replication directly. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2: This is technically a General-purpose v2 account with additional capabilities, and it supports blob replication through the underlying General-purpose v2 capabilities.

Answer 24

The correct answer is C) Log Analytics workspace with custom query Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Need to monitor disk space Custom threshold (20 GB) Volume C specific Multiple VM monitoring Log Analytics Solution Components: Implementation Steps: 1. Create Log Analytics workspace 2. Install Log Analytics agent on VMs 3. Configure custom query for disk space 4. Set up alert rule with condition Sample Query: Perf | where ObjectName == "LogicalDisk" | where CounterName == "Free Megabytes" | where InstanceName == "C:" | where CounterValue < (20 * 1024) Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Alert Components: Log Analytics workspace Data collection rules Query-based alerts Action groups b) Monitoring Hierarchy: Azure Monitor ├── Log Analytics ├── Custom Queries ├── Alert Rules └── Action Groups Copy Insert at cursor text Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Metrics Alert: Cannot directly monitor OS-level metrics Limited to platform metrics Not suitable for disk space B) Activity Log Alert: For subscription-level events Not for resource metrics Wrong alert type D) Service Health Alert: For Azure service issues Not for resource monitoring Wrong alert type Implementation Considerations: a) Configuration Requirements: Agent installation Workspace setup Query definition Alert configuration b) Monitoring Setup: Data collection Query testing Alert thresholds Notification config Best Practices: a) Alert Configuration: Clear alert names Appropriate thresholds Proper action groups Regular testing b) Monitoring Management: Regular review Query optimization Cost monitoring Performance impact Critical Exam Topics: a) Azure Monitor Features: Log Analytics Custom queries Alert rules Action groups b) Implementation Steps: Workspace creation Agent deployment Query configuration Alert setup Remember for the Exam: a) Monitoring Components: Log Analytics workspace Data collection Query language Alert configuration b) Alert Requirements: Resource targeting Threshold definition Action configuration Testing validation Additional Important Notes: a) Management Options: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI REST API b) Troubleshooting Areas: Agent connectivity Query performance Alert triggering Data collection Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: Monitoring solutions Query language Alert types Configuration options b) Operational Understanding: Implementation steps Troubleshooting Management tasks Best practices

Answer 25

The correct answer is C) Frontend IP configuration, backend pool, health probe, and load balancing rule Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Internal Basic Load Balancer requirement [1] Complete functional configuration needed All essential components required Load balancing functionality Required Load Balancer Components: [2] Essential Components: 1. Frontend IP configuration - Private IP from subnet - Internal endpoint 2. Backend pool - Target VMs/resources - Resource association 3. Health probe - Service availability check - Protocol and port 4. Load balancing rule - Traffic distribution - Protocol and ports - Session persistence Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Load Balancer Configuration: All four components are mandatory Logical configuration order Dependencies between components Basic vs Standard SKU differences b) Component Relationships: Frontend IP → Load Balancing Rule → Backend Pool ↓ Health Probe Copy Insert at cursor text Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Frontend IP and backend pool only: Missing health monitoring Missing traffic rules Incomplete configuration B) Frontend IP, backend pool, and health probe: Missing load balancing rules Cannot distribute traffic Incomplete configuration D) Frontend IP and health probe only: Missing backend targets Missing traffic rules Incomplete configuration Implementation Considerations: a) Configuration Requirements: VNet/subnet planning IP addressing Port configuration Health check settings b) Design Elements: High availability Fault tolerance Performance optimization Monitoring Best Practices: a) Load Balancer Setup: Meaningful names Appropriate health checks Proper backend pool config Efficient rules b) Monitoring: Health status Performance metrics Alert configuration Logging setup Critical Exam Topics: a) Load Balancer Components: Required elements Configuration options Dependencies Management b) Network Integration: VNet configuration Subnet planning IP addressing Routing Remember for the Exam: a) Configuration Order: Create Load Balancer Configure Frontend IP Create Backend Pool Set up Health Probe Define Load Balancing Rules b) Component Requirements: All four components needed Proper configuration Logical relationships Testing validation Additional Important Notes: a) Management Options: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI ARM templates b) Troubleshooting Areas: Health probe failures Connection issues Performance problems Configuration errors Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: Component requirements Configuration options Dependencies Best practices b) Operational Understanding: Implementation steps Troubleshooting Management tasks Monitoring

Answer 26

Understanding Flow Logging Network Flow Logs: Capture information about IP traffic flowing through a network interface, subnet, or virtual network. Use Cases: Commonly used for network monitoring, traffic analysis, and security investigations. Retention: You need to be able to specify the duration for which the flow logs are retained. NSG flow logs: Network security group flow logs are a feature of network watcher that allow for the logging of network traffic. Analyzing the Options Let's evaluate the options: A) Network Watcher with NSG flow logs Analysis: Network Watcher is the core Azure service that enables the capture of flow logs. NSG flow logs, specifically, provide the traffic information based on rules applied in a Network Security Group, and are configured within Network Watcher. The retention policy can also be configured within the Network Watcher configuration. Therefore, this option is correct. B) Azure Monitor logs Analysis: While Azure Monitor can consume the NSG flow logs, it is not the service that enables the logging itself. Network Watcher is necessary for enabling flow logs. This option is incorrect, as the service must enable flow logs. C) Traffic Analytics only Analysis: Traffic analytics is a feature within Network Watcher which provides insights based on NSG flow logs, however, it does not enable NSG flow logs themselves. This option is incorrect. D) Azure Network Monitor Analysis: There is not an Azure service called Azure Network Monitor. Network Watcher is the correct service. This option is incorrect. The Correct Service The correct Azure service to enable flow logging and retain the flow logs for a specified duration is Network Watcher with NSG flow logs. Answer: A) Network Watcher with NSG flow logs

Answer 27

Correct Option: B) General-purpose v2 Explanation: General-purpose v2: The General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account type supports both blob containers and file shares, and it allows you to configure different access tiers, including the Cool storage tier. This makes it the appropriate choice for creating a blob container and a file share with the Cool storage tier.

Answer 28

Correct Option: B. StorageV2 (general purpose v2) Explanation: StorageV2 (general purpose v2): The StorageV2 account type supports both blob containers and file shares, and it allows you to configure different access tiers, including the Cool storage tier. This makes it the appropriate choice for creating a blob container and a file share with the Cool storage tier.

Answer 29

Understanding Azure Policy and Roles Azure Policy: Enforces organizational standards and assesses compliance at scale. Policy Assignments: Apply policies to resources, resource groups, or subscriptions. Contributor: A role that grants the ability to create and manage resources. Owner: A role that grants full access to all Azure resources. Policy Contributor: A role that allows a user to manage and create policies. Policy Administrator: A role that allows a user to manage policies and policy assignments, and can also create policies. Analyzing the Requirements User2: Needs to assign Azure policies to RG1. Determining the Correct Role Let's evaluate the options: A) Contributor Analysis: The Contributor role has the ability to create and manage Azure resources, however, it doesn't explicitly grant permissions to manage Azure policies and policy assignments. This role is insufficient. B) Owner Analysis: The Owner role grants full access to all resources, including the ability to manage policies. This role is too permissive, and is not the required solution, though it would grant the desired access. This option is incorrect. C) Policy Contributor Analysis: The Policy Contributor role can manage policy definitions, but it cannot assign policies. This option is incorrect. D) Policy Administrator Analysis: The Policy Administrator role has the correct permissions to manage and assign Azure policies. This role is correct. The Correct Role The correct role is the Policy Administrator. Answer: D) Policy Administrator

Answer 30

Determining the Correct IP Address Type Let's evaluate the options: A) Public IP address Analysis: Public IP addresses are used for internet-facing resources. An internal load balancer must have a private IP address. This option is incorrect. B) Private IP address Analysis: This is the correct approach. Private IP addresses are used for internal resources within a virtual network. Since the requirement is to create an internal load balancer, a private IP address is required. C) Dynamic IP address Analysis: Dynamic IP addresses can change when a resource is deallocated, which is not a desirable solution for internal load balancers which should have predictable IP addresses. While a dynamic private IP can be used, it does not address the core requirement of an internal load balancer, and is therefore incorrect. D) Static IP address Analysis: While a static IP can be used, a dynamic IP can also be used for an internal load balancer. However, the core requirement is to use a private IP. While a static private IP address is a common configuration for an internal load balancer, it is not a requirement. This option is not the correct response to the prompt. The Correct IP Address Type The correct IP address type is Private IP address. Answer: B) Private IP address

Answer 31

Correct Option: B. Storage File Data SMB Share Reader Explanation: Storage File Data SMB Share Reader: This role provides read-only access to Azure file shares over the SMB protocol. It is specifically designed for scenarios where you need to grant read-only access to file shares without granting broader permissions to other storage account resources.

Answer 32

Correct Option: B. az network nic update Explanation: az network nic update: This command is used to update the network interface card (NIC) settings of a virtual machine. To associate NSG1 with the network interface of VM1, you need to update the NIC settings to include the NSG.

Answer 33

Correct Option: A. Azure Monitor

Answer 34

Correct Option: A. az network nsg create Explanation: az network nsg create: This command is used to create a new Network Security Group (NSG) in Azure. Since the requirement is to create an NSG named NSG1, this is the appropriate command to use.

Answer 35

Correct Option: B. DNS Zone Contributor Explanation: DNS Zone Contributor: To link a DNS zone to a virtual network, the user needs permissions to manage DNS zones. The DNS Zone Contributor role provides the necessary permissions to manage DNS zones, including linking them to virtual networks. Important Note for Azure 104 Exam: Understand the different Azure roles and their specific permissions, especially those related to networking and DNS management. Be familiar with the tasks that require specific roles, such as linking DNS zones to virtual networks. Know how to apply the principle of least privilege by assigning the most appropriate role that grants the necessary permissions without providing excessive access.

Answer 36

The correct answer is B) Encryption scope [1] Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Storage2 is a StorageV2 (general purpose v2) account Encryption scopes provide encryption management at the container level Encryption scopes can be used to manage encryption for specific data sets Encryption Scope Characteristics: a) Key Features: - Container-level encryption - Infrastructure encryption options - Key management flexibility - Scope inheritance Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Storage Encryption Types: Storage Service Encryption (SSE) Infrastructure encryption Customer-managed keys Platform-managed keys b) Encryption Scope Properties: Name Encryption type Infrastructure encryption Key management Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Access tier: Related to data storage optimization Not related to encryption Affects cost and performance C) Replication: Data redundancy feature No impact on encryption Geographic availability D) Performance tier: Performance optimization Not related to encryption Affects IOPS and throughput Key Implementation Considerations: a) Configuration Requirements: Storage account type compatibility Key vault integration (if using customer-managed keys) Permission requirements Regional availability b) Security Controls: Key rotation Access policies Audit logging Compliance requirements Best Practices: a) Encryption Management: Regular key rotation Access review Monitoring Documentation b) Security Configuration: Least privilege access Regular audits Compliance monitoring Incident response plan Critical Exam Topics: a) Storage Security Features: Encryption at rest Encryption in transit Key management Access control b) Implementation Steps: Scope creation Key configuration Policy assignment Monitoring setup Remember for the Exam: a) Encryption Scope Requirements: Storage account compatibility Permission requirements Key management options Infrastructure encryption b) Configuration Elements: Scope name Encryption type Key source Infrastructure encryption setting Additional Important Notes: a) Management Options: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI REST API b) Monitoring and Compliance: Activity logs Diagnostic settings Compliance reporting Security metrics Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: Encryption types Configuration options Management tools Security features b) Operational Understanding: Implementation steps Troubleshooting Monitoring Maintenance For the AZ-104 exam, focus on: Storage Security Concepts: Encryption types Key management Access control Compliance requirements Implementation Knowledge: Configuration steps Permission requirements Tool usage Best practices Management Skills: Daily operations Monitoring Troubleshooting Maintenance Security Understanding: Access control Key management Audit logging Compliance requirements

Answer 37

The correct answer is B) Incremental Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Azure Backup for file shares uses incremental backup by default First backup is full, subsequent backups are incremental More efficient use of storage and network resources Reduces backup time and costs Azure Backup File Share Characteristics: a) Backup Process: Initial Backup: Full backup of all data Subsequent Backups: Only changed blocks Recovery Point Creation: Based on incremental changes Storage Efficiency: Only stores delta changes Copy Insert at cursor text Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Azure File Share Backup Features: Supports Azure Files Requires Storage Account integration Uses Recovery Services vault Supports schedule-based backups b) Backup Types Understanding: Full: Complete copy of data [1] Incremental: Only changed blocks Differential: Changes since last full backup Snapshot: Point-in-time copy Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Snapshot: Not a complete backup solution Doesn't provide long-term retention Limited recovery options C) Differential: Not supported for Azure file shares Less efficient than incremental Would consume more storage D) Full: Only used for initial backup Inefficient for regular backups Unnecessary storage consumption Key Implementation Considerations: a) Requirements: Recovery Services vault Supported storage account Proper permissions Network connectivity b) Limitations: Storage account restrictions Backup frequency limits Retention period limits Regional availability Best Practices: a) Backup Configuration: Regular schedule Appropriate retention Monitoring Testing restores b) Performance Optimization: Backup window planning Network bandwidth consideration Storage capacity planning Recovery time objectives Critical Exam Topics: a) Azure Backup Components: Recovery Services vault Backup policies Protection groups Retention policies b) Backup Operations: Backup scheduling Monitoring Alerting Recovery procedures Remember for the Exam: a) Azure File Share Backup Requirements: Premium or Standard file shares Storage account compatibility Regional availability Backup policy limits b) Backup Policy Elements: Schedule Retention Time zones Consistency checks Additional Important Notes: a) Monitoring and Management: Azure Portal PowerShell Azure CLI REST API b) Recovery Options: Original location Alternate location Individual file recovery Point-in-time recovery Key Exam Focus Areas: a) Technical Knowledge: Backup types Configuration requirements Management tools Recovery procedures b) Operational Understanding: Monitoring Troubleshooting Capacity planning Cost optimization For the AZ-104 exam, focus on: Azure Backup Concepts: Backup types [2] Components Requirements Limitations Implementation Knowledge: Configuration steps Policy settings Monitoring Recovery procedures Management Skills: Daily operations Troubleshooting Performance optimization Cost management Security Understanding: Access control Encryption Network security Compliance requirements

Answer 38

The correct answer is A) User2 can be assigned the same RBAC roles as member users Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: User2 is a Guest user in Azure AD [1] Guest users can be assigned the same RBAC roles as member users Guest access is controlled through Azure AD settings and RBAC [2] Guest User Characteristics: a) Default Capabilities: Can be assigned RBAC roles Can be added to security groups Has restricted default permissions Needs explicit access grants b) Key Differences from Member Users: More restricted default permissions Limited directory visibility Different authentication process External identity source Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Guest User Management: - Invitation process - Access levels - Permission assignment - Security considerations Copy Insert at cursor text b) Azure AD B2B Collaboration: Guest user invitation [3] External identity federation Access review Conditional Access policies Why Other Options are Wrong: B) Incorrect: Guest users can access resources when granted permissions C) Incorrect: No automatic access is granted D) Incorrect: Guest users can be added to security groups Critical Exam Concepts: a) Guest User Access Levels: Restricted Limited Same as member users b) Security Considerations: Conditional Access Multi-Factor Authentication Access Reviews Identity Protection Best Practices: a) Guest Access Management: Regular access reviews Least privilege principle Clear documentation Monitoring and auditing b) Security Controls: Conditional Access policies MFA enforcement Session controls Risk-based policies Key Points for the Exam: a) Guest User Properties: External directory source Invitation process Access limitations Permission inheritance b) Administration Tasks: Guest invitation Role assignment Group membership Access review Implementation Considerations: a) Guest Access Configuration: External collaboration settings Guest invite settings User permissions Security controls b) Monitoring and Compliance: Activity logging Access reviews Compliance reporting Security monitoring Remember for the Exam: Guest users can have same RBAC roles Default permissions are restricted Explicit permission assignment needed Security group membership possible Access review requirements Conditional Access policies Additional Important Notes: Guest user limitations Authentication methods Directory role restrictions Collaboration settings Security best practices For the AZ-104 exam, focus on: Azure AD Concepts: B2B collaboration User types Access management Security controls RBAC Understanding: Role assignments Scope levels Permission inheritance Access control Security Knowledge: Conditional Access MFA requirements Identity protection Access reviews Administration Skills: User management Permission assignment Group management Security configuration

Answer 39

The correct answer is B) Contributor at resource group level Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Requirement states "Use the principle of least privilege" Users need to "manage resources" in their respective resource groups [1] No mention of needing to manage access control or assign permissions [2] Analysis of Built-in RBAC Roles: [3] Contributor Role: Can manage all resources Cannot assign roles Cannot manage permissions Perfect fit for resource management without security control Owner Role: Full access including role assignment Too much privilege for basic resource management Violates least privilege principle Reader Role: Read-only access Insufficient for resource management Cannot make changes to resources Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Built-in Role Hierarchy (from most to least privileged): Owner > Contributor > Reader Copy Insert at cursor text b) Key Role Permissions: Owner: Full access + role assignment Contributor: Full resource management, no RBAC Reader: View-only access Custom roles: Specific permissions as needed c) Scope Levels (from broad to narrow): Management Group > Subscription > Resource Group > Resource Copy Insert at cursor text Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Owner at subscription level: Violates least privilege, too broad scope C) Administrator: Not a standard built-in role for resource management D) Reader: Insufficient permissions for resource management Best Practices for RBAC: Always apply least privilege principle Assign roles at the most specific scope needed Use built-in roles when possible Document role assignments Regular access reviews Critical Exam Concepts: a) Role Assignment Components: Security principal (who) Role definition (what) Scope (where) b) Important Role Characteristics: Inheritance Deny assignments Role assignment limits Scope considerations Remember for the Exam: Common built-in roles and their permissions Role assignment scopes Inheritance patterns Security best practices Management hierarchy Role assignment process Additional Key Points: RBAC is additive (permissions combine) Deny assignments override allows Maximum 2000 role assignments per subscription Changes can take up to 30 minutes to propagate Custom roles require additional Azure AD Premium licenses Troubleshooting Knowledge: Access control (IAM) blade usage Role assignment verification Effective permissions checking Activity logs for role changes Common permission issues Implementation Considerations: Regular access reviews Emergency access accounts Break-glass procedures Role assignment documentation Compliance requirements For the AZ-104 exam, focus on: Understanding built-in roles Scope levels and inheritance Least privilege principle Role assignment process Common scenarios and solutions Security best practices Troubleshooting access issues Role management tools and features

Answer 40

The correct answer is C) Locally redundant storage (LRS) [1] Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: LRS is the most cost-effective replication option LRS maintains three synchronous copies of data in a single physical location Provides 99.999999999% (11 nines) durability over a given year Lowest cost redundancy option in Azure Storage Storage Replication Options Comparison: LRS (Locally Redundant Storage): 3 copies in single datacenter Lowest cost 99.999999999% durability Best for cost-sensitive dev/test scenarios ZRS (Zone-redundant Storage): 3 copies across availability zones Higher cost than LRS Better availability than LRS Good for high-availability needs GRS (Geo-redundant Storage): 6 copies (3 primary + 3 secondary region) Higher cost than ZRS Better disaster recovery Secondary region read-only after failover RA-GRS (Read-access GRS): Same as GRS plus read access to secondary Highest cost option Highest availability Best for critical business data Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: a) Replication Costs (Low to High): LRS < ZRS < GRS < RA-GRS Copy Insert at cursor text b) Key Concepts to Remember: Durability ratings Regional vs. geo-redundancy Synchronous vs. asynchronous replication Cost implications Use cases for each type c) Storage Account Types and Supported Replication: General Purpose v2: Supports all replication types General Purpose v1: Limited replication options BlockBlobStorage: All replication types FileStorage: LRS and ZRS only d) Best Practices: Match replication type to business requirements Consider compliance requirements Balance cost vs. redundancy needs Consider application availability requirements Scenario Analysis: Question asks for "minimum required redundancy" Emphasizes "minimizing costs" No specific high-availability requirements mentioned No geo-redundancy requirements specified Therefore, LRS is the most appropriate choice Why Other Options are Wrong: A) GRS: More expensive, exceeds minimum requirements B) ZRS: More expensive, multi-zone redundancy not required D) RA-GRS: Most expensive option, exceeds requirements Additional Exam Tips: Know the differences between replication types Understand pricing implications Be familiar with use cases for each type Know availability and durability percentages Understand regional vs. zonal vs. geo-replication Know which storage account types support which replication options Remember for the Exam: Default replication type for new storage accounts Conversion possibilities between replication types Impact on storage account pricing Regional availability of different replication options Relationship between replication and storage account tier Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) implications This knowledge is crucial for the AZ-104 exam as storage configuration and cost optimization are key objectives in Azure administration.

Answer 41

The correct answer is D) VM2 can establish any outbound connection except RDP to 10.0.0.0/16 Here's why this is correct: Analysis of NSG2's Rules: Priority 200: Deny TCP 3389 (RDP) from 10.0.0.0/16 to Virtual Network Priority 400: Allow ICMP from 10.0.2.0/24 to 10.0.1.0/24 Copy Insert at cursor text Key Technical Points: NSG2 is associated with VNET1/Subnet2 where VM2 (10.0.2.4) is located [1] The rule with priority 200 (lower number = higher priority) blocks RDP traffic to 10.0.0.0/16 All other traffic types are allowed by default NSG rules The ICMP rule is specifically allowing ping from Subnet2 to Subnet1 Important Notes for AZ-104 Exam: NSG Rule Processing: Rules are processed in priority order (lowest to highest number) Once a rule matches, processing stops Default rules exist at priority 65000+ Custom rules should use priorities between 100-4096 NSG Default Rules: Allow all traffic within the virtual network Allow all outbound internet traffic Deny all inbound internet traffic These rules are lowest priority (65000+) Key Concepts to Remember: Rule Priority Rule Processing Order Default Rules Implicit Denies vs Explicit Allows Source/Destination addressing Protocol specifications Why Other Options are Wrong: A) Incorrect because VM2 can establish RDP to VMs outside 10.0.0.0/16 B) Incorrect because other protocols besides ICMP are allowed by default rules C) Incorrect because only RDP is blocked, not all communication Important Exam Tips: Always check rule priorities first Consider default rules Understand the difference between inbound and outbound rules Know how subnet and NIC NSGs work together Remember that more specific rules override general rules Understand CIDR notation and IP addressing Best Practices: Use priority numbers with gaps (like 100, 200, 300) to allow for future rules Document NSG rules clearly Use service tags where possible Consider using application security groups Regular review of NSG rules for security For the AZ-104 exam, focus on: NSG rule evaluation order Default rules and their priorities Impact of multiple NSGs (subnet and NIC level) Network protocol understanding (RDP, ICMP, etc.) IP addressing and CIDR notation Security rule components (priority, source, destination, action)

Answer 42

For this question, the correct answer is C) 30 days. Here's why this is correct: Key Technical Points: Azure Backup has a mandatory minimum retention period of 30 days for all backup types [1] This applies to both Azure VM backups and Azure File Share backups This is a built-in requirement that cannot be overridden Important Details for Azure 104 Exam: a) Recovery Services Vault Retention Policies: [2] Daily backups: Minimum 7 days Weekly backups: Minimum 1 week Monthly backups: Minimum 1 month Yearly backups: Minimum 1 year BUT overall minimum retention period is 30 days regardless of backup frequency b) Cost Considerations: While the question asks for "cost-effective solution", you cannot go below 30 days Attempting to set lower retention periods will fail This is a compliance and data protection requirement by Azure c) Key Exam Points: Remember the 30-day minimum for all Azure Backup scenarios This applies across: Azure VM backups Azure File Share backups Azure SQL Database backups Azure Managed Disk backups d) Additional Important Notes: Maximum retention periods: Daily and weekly backups: Up to 9999 days Monthly backups: Up to 120 months Yearly backups: Up to 99 years Recovery Services vault can't be deleted if it contains any backup data Changing retention policy affects only new backups, not existing ones Why Other Options are Wrong: A) 7 days: Too short, below minimum requirement B) 14 days: Too short, below minimum requirement D) 180 days: While possible, not the minimum required period For the AZ-104 exam, remember: Always know the minimum retention periods for different Azure services Understand that some minimums are non-negotiable for compliance reasons Be familiar with backup policy configurations and their limitations Know the difference between retention requirements for different backup frequencies (daily/weekly/monthly/yearly) Understand the relationship between retention periods and costs