Test 5 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Reviewing the patient’s complete medication regimen at the time of admission, transfer, and discharge and comparing it with the regimen being considered for the new setting of care

A

Medication reconciliation

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2
Q

Key uses for medical record

A
  1. Describe information pertinent to the patient.
  2. Provide for continuity in information about patient treatment.
  3. Act as a method for evaluating quality of care.
  4. Serve as a basis for reimbursement.
  5. Function as a tool for evaluating resource allocation.
  6. Serve as a legal document.
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3
Q

Elements of a patient medical record (14)

A
  1. Progress Notes
  2. Physician Orders
  3. Discharge Summary
  4. Flow/Graph Sheets
  5. Lab reports
  6. Medication Administration
  7. Digital images/recordings
  8. Radiology Reports
  9. Monitoring Strips
  10. Admissions Sheet
  11. History/Physical Examination
  12. Consultation Sheet
  13. Consent Forms
  14. Surgical Records
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4
Q

Five characteristics that are consistent within HROs

A

(1) Their preoccupation with failure.
* (2) Reluctance to simplify interpretations.
* (3) Sensitivity to operations.
* (4) Commitment to resilience.
* (5) Deference to expertise.

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5
Q

National Patient Safety Goals (6)

A
  1. Identify patients correctly
  2. Improve staff communication
  3. Use medications safely
  4. Use alarms safely
  5. Prevent infections
  6. Identify patient safety risks
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6
Q

Patient confidentiality is protected by ____

A

Heath Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPPA)

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7
Q

Intended to ensure the privacy and protection of personal records and
data in an environment of electronic medical records and third-party insurance
payers.

A

HIPPA

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8
Q

provides a uniform set of guidelines that apply to all providers and
organizations

A

HIPPA

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9
Q

designed to intervene during the critical prearrest
period when patients often demonstrate clinical warning signs of pending
demise.

A

Rapid Response Team

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10
Q

Goals of rapid response team

A

Preventing intensive care unit transfer
* Preventing cardiac arrest
* Preventing death

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11
Q

should be conducted immediately before starting the procedure.

A

Time out

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12
Q
  • During the time-out, the team members agree, at a minimum on:
A

The correct patient identity
* Correct site
* The procedure to be done.

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13
Q

a structured method
used to identify underlying problem issues or analyze
serious adverse events.

A

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

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14
Q

The process was initially developed to help analyze industrial accidents but now is widely used in health
care to analyze errors.

A

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

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15
Q

the most common complication of
hospital care

A

Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

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16
Q

How many deaths associated with HAI’s in the U.S. each year.

A

75,000

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17
Q

These Five infections together account for the majority of all HAI’s:

A
  1. Surgical site infections (SSI’s)
  2. Cather-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI’s)
  3. Central line bloodstream infections (CRBSI’s)
  4. Pneumonia
  5. Gastrointestinal infections (Clostridium difficile associated disease (CDI))
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18
Q

On average, ___% of adults aged 65 and over have at least one chronic condition,
and ___% have at least two.

A

80% and 50%

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19
Q

Defined as the average number of years an individual is expected to live, either from birth
or the number of years remaining at any given age.

A

Life Expectancy

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20
Q

a multidimensional,
interdisciplinary diagnostic process to determine the medical, psychological,
and functional capabilities of a frail elderly person in order to develop a
coordinated and integrated treatment plan.

A

Comprehensive Geriatric
Assessment (CGA)

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21
Q

The elderly have a reduction in _____ gas exchange surface area

A

Alveolar

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22
Q

In the elderly, the alveoli ____, and Pores of Kohn become larger.

A

Dilate

Likely due to changes in elasticity in the parenchyma.

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23
Q

The central and peripheral chemoreceptors are less responsive to changes in
____ and ____
.

A

PaO2 and PaCO2

24
Q

Response to low O2
or high CO2
in a 75 year-old is ____ that of a 25 year-old.

A

Half

25
Q

The net effect is an overall decrease in ____, which increases the work of
breathing for older adults.

A

Compliance

26
Q
  • Such changes make breathing almost ___ as much work for a 70-year-old as for
    a 20-year-old.
A

Twice

27
Q

Respiratory _____ ____ also declines with age.

A

Muscle strength

28
Q

Physical assessment findings in the
elderly

A

Increased A-P chest diameter:
* Lung and chest wall alterations.
* Decreased lung sounds:
* Natural restrictive process.
* Crackles in the bases:
* CHF, atelectasis.
* Increased pulse pressure:
* Atherosclerotic changes.

29
Q

One unfortunate characteristic of patients with AD is that dementia robs them of
the ability to control their ____

A

Behavior

30
Q

When AD begins to develop, the frontal part of the brains is damaged, and
subsequently destroyed, causing lack of ____ ____

A

Impulse Control

31
Q

a noxious response to a medication that is unintended at doses usually
administered for diagnosis, prophylaxis, or treatment.

A

Adverse drug reaction

32
Q

How to avoid adverse drug reactions

A
  • Drugs which effectively treat a 40 year old, may not be indicated in an 80 year old.
  • New drugs may be incompatible with the older adults current medications.
  • The more medication a individual takes, the greater the risk for adverse reaction.
33
Q

Health damaging lifestyle behaviors

A
  • Tobacco use
  • Excessive use of alcohol
  • Limited physical activity
  • Poor diet and nutrition
  • Obesity
34
Q

A report by the Department of Health and Human Services estimates that
___% of adults age 60 and older are taking two or more medications.

A

76%

35
Q

____% of people use five or more prescription drugs.

A

37%

36
Q

Issues related to geriatric pharmacotherapy

A

medication safety,
adverse drug events, inappropriate medication use, under- and
overprescribing, and the rising cost of drugs

37
Q

Leading causes of mortality

A
  • Cardiac
  • Cerebrovascular
  • Pulmonary diseases
  • Musculoskeletal disorders
  • Malignancies
38
Q

The study of morality—careful
and systematic reflection on and analysis of moral decisions and behavior, whether
past, present or future

A

Ethics

39
Q

“[A] preference or an inclination, especially one that inhibits
impartial judgment” or “an unfair act or policy stemming from prejudice

A

Bias

40
Q

[A] judgment formed before due examination and
consideration of the facts—a premature or hasty judgment.”

A

Prejudice

41
Q

based on duty and states that an act is right or wrong based on its intrinsic
character (duty) rather than on its consequences

A

Deontological theory

42
Q

concerned with doing what is best, while also doing what is right

A

Deontological theory

43
Q

means truth.
* This principle implies that therapists should tell patients the truth at all times.

A

Veracity

44
Q

Remuneration, travel expenses, or honorariums one has received from vendors,
manufactures, or pharmaceutical companies must be disclosed.

These are examples of _____ ___ _____

A

Conflict of Interest relationships

45
Q

ensures that the information entrusted to healthcare
professionals in the line of duty is not revealed to others except when
necessary to carry out their duties.

A

Confidentiality

46
Q

both the most cherished and most violated of the ethical
principles and has become more difficult to maintain due to technologic
advances.

A

Confidentiality

47
Q

based on consequences.
* The right or wrong of an action is based on the outcomes or consequences of
predicted outcomes.

A

Teleological theory

48
Q

The most common consequential theory is _____ where one chooses
the act that brings about the best outcome.

A

Utilitarianism

49
Q

Ethical Principles (8)

A
  1. Beneficence
  2. Capacity
  3. Nonmaleficence
  4. Veracity
  5. Autonomy
  6. Confidentiality
  7. Justice
  8. Role fidelity
50
Q

one or more documents that are generally designed
by knowledgeable case managers, social workers, legal entities, or healthcare
agencies.

A

Advanced Directives

51
Q

communicate a persons foresight and planning and
document their last wishes if they are unable to verbally direct their
treatment

A

Advanced Directives

52
Q

Some things on an advanced directive

A

Medical treatment
* Resuscitation
* Nutritional support
* Other specifics related to their health and welfare.

53
Q

Justice deals with fairness and equity in the distribution of scarce resources,
such as time, services, equipment, and money.

  • How should limited healthcare resources be distributed?
A

Justice

54
Q

states that all individuals should have equal access to goods
and services

A

Egalitarian theory of justice

55
Q

states that the distribution of resources should be such that it
achieves the greatest good for the greatest number of individuals

A

Utilitarian theory of justice

56
Q

means charity or mercy:
Imposes the responsibility to seek good for the patient under all
circumstances.

A

Beneficence

57
Q
A