Test 4 (Mod 4) Flashcards

1
Q

 One of the most common medical disorders in the United States

A

Hypothyroidism

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2
Q

 Results from insufficient circulating thyroid hormone

A

Hypothyroidism

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3
Q

 Related to destruction of thyroid tissue or defective hormone synthesis

A

Primary Hypothyroidism

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4
Q

 Related to pituitary disease with ↓ TSH secretion or hypothalamic dysfunction

A

Secondary Hypothyroidism

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5
Q

Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of this worldwide

A

Hypothyroidism

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6
Q

 Amiodarone and lithium can produce

A

Hypothyroidism

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7
Q

caused by thyroid hormone deficiencies during fetal or neonatal life

A

Cretinism

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8
Q
	↓ cardiac output
	↓ cardiac contractility
	Anemia
	Cobalamin, iron, folate deficiencies
	↑ serum cholesterol and triglycerides

These are all cardiovascular system signs of _______

A

Hypothyroidism

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9
Q

 Low exercise tolerance
 Shortness of breath on exertion
These are both respiratory system signs of ______

A

Hypothyroidism

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10
Q

 Fatigued and lethargic
 Personality and mood changes
 Impaired memory, slowed speech, decreased initiative, and somnolence

These are all neurologic system signs of _________

A

Hypothyroidism

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11
Q

 ↓ motility
 Achlorhydria
 Constipation
These are all gastrointestinal system signs of ________

A

Hypothyroidism

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12
Q
	Cold intolerance
	Hair loss
	Dry/coarse skin
	Brittle nails
	Hoarseness
	Muscle weakness and swelling
	Weight gain
	Menorrhagia
These are all clinical manifestations of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Hypothyroidism

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13
Q

 Accumulation of hydrophilic mucopolysaccharides in the dermis and other tissues
 Causes puffiness, periorbital edema, masklike effect

A

Myxedema (seen with severe long-standing hypothyroidism)

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14
Q

Complications of this can lead to:
Mental sluggishness
 Drowsiness
 Lethargy progressing gradually or suddenly to impairment of consciousness or coma

A

Myxedema

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15
Q

This medication must be taken regularly, and need to monitor for angina and cardiac dysrhythmias

A

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

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16
Q
Physical exam in someone with this may reveal:
	Bradycardia
	Distended abdomen
	Dry, thick, cold skin
	Thick, brittle nails
	Paresthesias
	Muscular aches and pains
A

Hypothyroidism

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17
Q

excessive thyroid hormone secretion from the thyroid gland, where normal feedback control over thyroid hormone secretion fails

A

• Hyperthyroidism

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18
Q

hypermetabolism and increased sympathetic nervous system activity are caused by

A

Excessive thyroid hormones

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19
Q

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves’ disease (toxic diffuse goiter)

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20
Q

usually have thyrotoxicosis, a goiter or enlargement of the thyroid gland, exophthalmos or abnormal protrusion of the eyes, and pretibial myxedema or dry, waxy swelling of the front surfaces of the lower legs.

A

Graves’ disease

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21
Q

an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are made and attach to the thyroid stimulating hormone receptor sites on the thyroid.

A

Graves’ disease

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22
Q

• A hallmark of _________ is heat intolerance with diaphoresis even when environmental temperatures are comfortable for others.

A

hyperthyroidism

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23
Q

• Cardiac problems of _________include increased systolic blood pressure, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, and atrial fibrillation, which may be apparent on electrocardiography.

A

hyperthyroidism

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24
Q

evaluates the position, size, and functioning of the thyroid gland.

A

Thyroid scan

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25
Q

can determine size and the composition of any masses or nodules

A

Ultrasonography

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26
Q

• Priorities for nursing care of _________ focus on monitoring for complications, reducing stimulation, promoting comfort, and teaching about therapeutic drugs and procedures.

A

Hyperthyoridism

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27
Q

• Drug therapy with antithyroid drugs is the initial treatment of

A

Hyperthyoridism

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28
Q

occurs when the disease is untreated or poorly controlled or is triggered by stressors such as trauma, infection, diabetic ketoacidosis, and pregnancy.

A

• Thyroid storm or thyroid crisis

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29
Q

• This is an extreme state of hyperthyroidism in which manifestations are more severe and life threatening and is most common in patients who have Graves’ disease.

A

Thyroid Storm

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30
Q

• The patient at risk for _______ should remain in a cool, dark, and quiet environment

A

thyroid storm

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31
Q

the result of decreased metabolism from low levels of thyroid hormones.

A

Hypothyroidism

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32
Q

• Decreased metabolism causes the heart muscle to become flabby and dilated, resulting in decreased cardiac output and perfusion to the brain and other vital organs, with __________

A

Myxedema

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33
Q

an inflammation of the thyroid gland

A

Thyroiditis

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34
Q

The most common type of thyroiditis

A

Chronic thyroiditis or Hashimoto’s disease

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35
Q

an autoimmune disorder that is usually triggered by a bacterial or viral infection.

A

Hashimoto’s disease

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36
Q

papillary, follicular, medullary, and anaplastic, are the four distinct types of

A

Thyroid Cancer

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37
Q

Initial manifestation is a single, painless lump or nodule

A

Thyroid Cancer

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38
Q

Treatment of choice for papillary, follicular, and medullary carcinomas

A

Surgery

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39
Q

is a life-threatening event in which the need for cortisol and aldosterone is greater than the available supply.

A

• Acute adrenal insufficiency, or Addisonian crisis

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40
Q

• Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss occur with ________

A

Adrenal insufficiency, Addison’s disease

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41
Q

• Laboratory findings include low serum cortisol, low fasting blood glucose, low sodium, elevated potassium, and increased serum blood urea nitrogen levels.

A

Adrenal insufficiency, Addison’s disease

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42
Q

• Instruct the patient with ________ to wear a medical alert bracelet and to carry simple carbohydrates with them at all times.

A

adrenal insufficiency

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43
Q

disease causes problems with exaggerated actions of glucocorticoids which affect metabolism and all body systems to some degree.

A

Cushing’s disease

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44
Q

• The most common cause of _______ is a pituitary adenoma.

A

Cushing’s disease

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45
Q

physical changes in a pt with ______, include fat pads on the neck, back, and shoulders; enlarged trunk with thin arms and legs; and a round face.

A

Hypercortisolism

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46
Q

Can result in emotional lability and mood swings, and pt’s often say that they don’t feel like themselves anymore

A

Hypercortisolism

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47
Q

 Regulate metabolism and ↑ blood glucose

 Critical to physiologic stress response

A

Glucocorticoids

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48
Q

These regulate Sodium balance, and Potassium balance

A

Mineralocorticoids

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49
Q

contributes to
 Growth and development in both genders
 Sexual activity in adult women

A

Androgen

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50
Q

 Caused by excess of corticosteroids, particularly glucocorticoids

A

Cushing Syndrome

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51
Q

 Iatrogenic administration of exogenous corticosteroids is the most common cause of

A

Cushing Syndrome

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52
Q

 Cushing disease and primary adrenal tumors are more common in women aged

A

20 tp 40

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53
Q

 Weight gain most common feature of _______, to include:
 Trunk (centripetal obesity)
 Face (“moon face”)
 Cervical area
 Transient weight gain from sodium and water retention

A

Cushing Syndrome

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54
Q

 Catabolic effects of cortisol
 Leads to weakness, especially in extremities
 Protein loss in bones leads to osteoporosis, bone and back pain.

A

Protein wasting

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55
Q

Inflammatory reaction in the glomerulous

A

Glomerulonephritis

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56
Q

Strep is the main cause of this renal disease

A

Glomerulonephritis

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57
Q

BUN and Creatinine ____ with glomerulonephritis

A

Increase

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58
Q

Sediment, protein, and blood, will be found in urine with

A

Glomerulonephritis

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59
Q

BP is ______ with glomerulonephritis

A

Increased

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60
Q

Urine output ________ with glomerulonephritis

A

Decreases

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61
Q

Urine specific gravity ________ with glomerulonephritis

A

Increases

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62
Q

With glomerulonephritis, client will go into fluid volume _____

A

Excess

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63
Q

Tx for glomerulonephritis

A
Get rid of strep
Balance activity with rest
I+O and daily weights
Monitor BP
Fluid replacement
Dialysis
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64
Q

How to determine fluid replacement

A

24 hour fluid loss + 500cc

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65
Q

Dietary needs for glomerulonephritis include a _____ in protein, a ________ in sodium, and a _______ in carbs

A

Decrease
Decrease
Increase

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66
Q

Diuresis for glomerulonephritis usually begins ___ to ____ weeks after onset

A

1 to 3

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67
Q

Malaise, H/A, anorexia, N/V, decreased output, weight gain

A

Signs and symptoms of RENAL FAILURE

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68
Q

an inflammatory response in the glomerulous, which result in big holes that allow protein to leak out into the urine

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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69
Q

Protein in the urine

A

Proteinuria

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70
Q

Low albumin in the blood

A

Hypoalbuminemic

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71
Q

Low albumin leads to a loss of fluid in the _______ space, into the ________

A

Vascular

Tissue

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72
Q

Aldosterone causes retention of

A

Sodium and water

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73
Q

Total body edema

A

Anasarca

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74
Q

Can be caused by bacteria or viral infections, NSAIDs, Cancer and genetic predisposition, systemic disease like lupus or diabetes, or strep

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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75
Q

Proteinuria, Hypoalbuminemia, Edema (anasarca), Hyperlipidemia

A

Signs and symptoms of Nephrotic Syndrome

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76
Q

Ace inhibitors are used in nephrotic syndrome to

A

block aldosterone secretion

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77
Q

Prednisone is used in nephrotic syndrome to

A

reduce inflammation. It shrinks holes so protein (albumin) cant get out.

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78
Q

Prednisone can lead to

A

Immunosuppression

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79
Q

Lipid lowering drugs are used in nephrotic syndrome to

A

lower lipid levels

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80
Q

We need to ______ Na to treat nephrotic syndrome

A

decrease

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81
Q

We need to ______ protein to treat nephrotic syndrome

A

INCREASE

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82
Q

Anticoagulation therapy may be used for up to six months to treat

A

nephrotic syndrome

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83
Q

Limit protein with all kidney problems except __________

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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84
Q

This requires bilateral failure

A

Renal failure

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85
Q

Blood cant get to the kidneys

A

Pre-renal failure

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86
Q

Causes of pre-renal failure

A

Hypotension
Decreased HR (arrhythmia)
Hypovolemic
Any form of shock

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87
Q

20 minutes of poor perfusion can lead to

A

kidney necrosis

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88
Q

Shock _____ kidneys

A

KILLS

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89
Q

Damage has occurred inside the kidney

A

Intra-renal failure

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90
Q

Causes of Intra-renal failure

A

Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic Syndrome
Dyes used in tests such as cardiac cath or CT scan
Drugs (Aminoglycosides, Mycins)- causes nephrotoxicity
Malignant HTN (uncontrolled HTN)
DM (causes severe vascular damage)

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91
Q

Urine cant get out of the kidneys

A

Post-renal failure

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92
Q

Causes of post-renal failure

A
Enlarged prostate
Kidney stone
Tumors
Ureteral obstruction
Edematous stoma (Ileal conduit)
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93
Q

Creatinine and BUN will be _______ with renal failure

A

Increased

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94
Q

Specific gravity will initially be _____ with renal failure

A

High

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95
Q

Because there is not enough erythropoietin, _______ will occur with renal failure

A

Anemia

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96
Q

Stimulates RBC production

A

Erythropoietin

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97
Q

Retention of fluid in renal failure will lead to S&S of _____ and _______

A

HTN and HF

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98
Q

Anorexia, N/V, occur in renal failure due to

A

retaining toxins

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99
Q

Potassium will be _____ in renal failure

A

High- will have hyperkalemia

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100
Q

Metabolic _______ will occur with renal failure

A

Acidosis

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101
Q

Phosphorous will be ________ with renal failure

A

High

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102
Q

High phosphorous in renal failure will lead to a ______ in serum calcium

A

Decrease

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103
Q

A decrease in serum calcium in renal failure will lead to

A

calcium being pulled from bones

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104
Q

First phase of acute kidney failure

A

Oliguric phase

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105
Q

Urine output _____ in oliguric phase of kidney failure

A

decreases

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106
Q

UO of 100 to 400 ml / 24 hours is typical in the _____ phase of acute kidney failure

A

Oliguric

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107
Q

Client will be in fluid volume _______ excess during the oliguric phase of kidney failure

A

Excess

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108
Q

Potassium will ______ during the oliguric phase of kidney failure

A

Increase

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109
Q

Second phase of Acute Kidney Failure

A

Diuretic phase

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110
Q

This phase of acute kidney failure will have a sudden onset

A

Diuretic phase

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111
Q

UO will_______ during the diuretic phase of kidney failure

A

Increase

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112
Q

Client will be in fluid volume ________ during the diuretic phase of kidney failure

A

Deficit (SHOCK)

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113
Q

During the diuretic phase of acute kidney failure, it is possible for the client to lose up to __________ liters of fluid per day

A

10

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114
Q

Potassium will _________ during the diuretic phase of acute kidney failure

A

Decrease

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115
Q

It may take up to ____ months to recover completely from acute kidney failure

A

12

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116
Q

In ________, the machine is the glomerulus (filter).

A

Hemodialysis

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117
Q

Is done 3-4 times per week; the client must watch what they eat and drink between treatments

A

Hemodialysis

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118
Q

To prevent blood clots, the client is given an _________ during dialysis

A

Anticoagulant

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119
Q

Heparin lasts _____ to _______ hours in the body

A

4 to 6

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120
Q

With hemodialysis, blood is being removed, cleansed, and then retuned at a rate of ______ to ________ mL/min.

A

300-800

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121
Q

In forearm with an anastomosis between an artery and a vein

A

AVF (arteriovenous fistula)

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122
Q

A synthetic graft to join the vessels in dialysis use

A

AVG (arteriovenous graft)

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123
Q

Assess hemodialysis access by

A

Palpating for a thrill, and auscultating for a bruit

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124
Q

Uses the peritoneal membrane as a filter

A

peritoneal dialysis

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125
Q

Dialysate is warmed and infused into the peritoneal cavity by gravity via a Tenckhoff catheter

A

Peritoneal dialysis

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126
Q

How much dialysate is used in peritoneal dialysis

A

200-2500 mL

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127
Q

This is what the time that the dialysate remains in the peritoneal cavity is called

A

Dwell time

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128
Q

The bag is lowered and the fluid, along with the toxins, are drained. This is referred to as the _____ in peritoneal dialysis

A

Exchange

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129
Q

We warm the dialysate to promote

A

vasodilation, and more blood flow

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130
Q

What should peritoneal dialysis drainage look like?

A

Clear, straw-colored.

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131
Q

Cloudy peritoneal dialysis drainage means

A

Infection

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132
Q

If fluid doesn’t come out during peritoneal dialysis, you should ________

A

turn the client side to side

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133
Q

This type of peritoneal dialysis is done 4 times a day, 7 days a week, and can cause pressure on the back, and is not recommended for someone with a colostomy due to a high risk of infection

A

CAPD (Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis)

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134
Q

This type of peritoneal dialysis is done at night, and the exchange is done automatically while the client sleeps. It is then disconnected in the AM. Allows for more freedom

A

CCPD (Continuous Cycle Peritoneal Dialysis)

135
Q

Major complication of peritoneal dialysis

A

Peritonitis

136
Q
Constant sweet taste
May get a hernia
Altered body image/sexuality
Anorexia
Low back pain
A

Other complications of peritoneal dialysis

137
Q

Peritoneal dialysis clients need to increase their dietary ______ and _______

A

Fiber and protein

138
Q

Typically done in an ICU setting, and is continuous so that the client doesn’t have drastic fluid shifts

A

CRRT (Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy)

139
Q

With this type of dialysis, there is typically never more than 80mL of blood out of the body at one time being filtered and therefore does not stress the cardiovascular system as much

A

CRRT (Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy)

140
Q

Pain, N/V, WBC in urine, Hematuria, are all signs of

A

Kidney stones

141
Q

Get a _________ anytime you suspect a kidney stone, to have it checked for _________

A

Urine sample

RBCs

142
Q

Ketorolac (Toradol), Ondansetron (Zofran), and Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), are typically used to treat

A

Kidney stones

143
Q

ESWL

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

144
Q

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is used to

A

break up kidney stones into smaller pieces

145
Q

Produces three hormones (T3, T4, Calcitonin)

A

Thyroid Gland

146
Q

Calcitonin _________ serum Ca+ levels by taking the calcium out of the blood and pushing it back into the bone

A

Decreases

147
Q

You need ______ to make hormones

A

Iodine

148
Q

Eyes bulge

A

Exophthalmos

149
Q

Attention span _____ with Graves Disease

A

Decreases

150
Q

Will ______ weight with Graves Disease

A

lose

151
Q

Will have a _______ appetite with Graves Disease

A

Increased

152
Q

Will have a ______ GI with graves disease

A

Fast

153
Q

Will have an ___________ BP with Graves disease

A

Increased

154
Q

Thyroid gets __________ with Graves disease

A

Bigger (Hypertrophy)

155
Q

Serum T4 (thyroxine) levels are ________ with Graves disease

A

Increased

156
Q

Client must stop taking any iodine containing medication ______ prior to a thyroid scan

A

1 week

157
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU), and Methimazole (Tapazole), are both

A

Anti-thyroid medications

158
Q

Anti-thyroid meds stop the thyroid from making _______

A

Thyroid hormone

159
Q

Anti-thyroid meds are used _______ to stun the thyroid

A

Pre-op

160
Q

Euthyroid means _______

A

Normal thyroid

161
Q

Potassium Iodine (SSKI), Strong Iodine Solution (Lugol’s solution), are both _________

A

Iodine Compounds

162
Q

These meds decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland

A

Iodine Compounds

163
Q

It is important to give these meds in milk or juice, and to use a straw, because they will stain teeth

A

Iodine Compounds

164
Q

Decrease myocardial contractility, could decrease cardiac output, decrease HR and BP, decrease anxiety

A

Beta Blockers, such as Propanolol (Inderal)

165
Q

Do not give beta blockers to

A

asthmatics or diabetics

166
Q

Given PO (liquid or tablet form) to treat hyperthyroid

A

Radioactive Iodine

167
Q

Once given radioactive iodine, it is important for the client to stay away from babies for _______, and to not kiss anyone for _______.

A

24, 24

168
Q

__________ can occur post-radioactive iodine due to a rebound effect

A

Thyroid storm

169
Q

Surgical removal of the thyroid

A

Thyroidectomy (partial or complete)

170
Q

________ the HOB post thyroidectomy to _______ edema

A

Elevate, decrease

171
Q

Post thyroidectomy, check for bleeding ___________

A

Behind the neck

172
Q

Pre and post op thyroidectomy, calorie intake needs to be ________

A

Increased

173
Q

Listen for horseness and a weak voice post thyroidectomy to assess for __________

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage

174
Q

If vocal cord paralysis occurs, it could lead to an airway obstruction, and an immediate ________ will be needed

A

Trach

175
Q

It is important to assess for __________ post thyroidectomy

A

Hypocalcemia

176
Q

Assess for __________ removal post thyroidectomy

A

Parathyroid

177
Q

Rigid, tight muscles, seizures, laryngospasm, are all signs of

A

Hypocalcemia

178
Q

Form of hypothyroidism

A

Myxedema

179
Q

When myxedema is present at birth, it is called ________

A

Cretinism

180
Q

This is very dangerous, and can lead to slowed mental and physical development if undetected

A

Cretinism

181
Q

GI will be ________ with Myxedema (hypothyroid)

A

slow

182
Q

Weight will ______ with Myxedema (hypothyroid)

A

increase

183
Q

Client will be _______ with Myxedema (hypothyroid)

A

cold

184
Q

Speech will be _______ with Myxedema (hypothyroid)

A

slow and slurred

185
Q

People with hypothyroidism tend to have ______

A

CAD

186
Q

The parathyroids secrete __________

A

PTH

187
Q

makes you pull calcium from the bone and place it in the blood

A

PTH

188
Q

makes the serum calcium level go up

A

PTH

189
Q

Too much PTH in your body will make the serum calcium level _______

A

High

190
Q

Not enough PTH in your body will make the serum calcium level ________

A

low

191
Q

Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia equals

A

Hyperparathyroidism

192
Q

Too much PTH is seen with

A

Hyperparathyroidism

193
Q

Client may appear sedated with this problem

A

Hyperparathyroidism

194
Q

when you take out two of your parathyroids, PTH secretion will ___________. This is known as a ___________.

A

Decrease

Partial parathyroidectomy

195
Q

Monitor for __________ post op parathyroidectomy

A

Hypocalcemia

196
Q

Hypocalcemia and Hyperphosphatemia equals

A

Hypoparathyroidism

197
Q

Not enough PTH leads to

A

Hypoparathyroidism

198
Q

Used to treat hypoparathyroidism

A

IV Calcium, and Phosphorous binding drugs (Renegel, Oscal)

199
Q

These glands are needed to handle stress

A

Adrenal Glands

200
Q

Responsible for the epi and norepi response

A

Adrenal Medulla

201
Q

Benign tumors that secrete epi and norepi in boluses

A

Pheochromocytoma

202
Q

Will see an increased BP, increased HR and pulse, and flushing and diaphoresis with this adrenal gland problem

A

Pheochromocytoma

203
Q

A 24 hour urine specimen that looks for increased levels of epi and norepi (catecholamines).

A

VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) test

204
Q

With a 24 hour urine test, you should throw away the ____ voiding, and keep _______ voiding.

A

First

The last

205
Q

Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormones, are all _______

A

Adrenal Cortex Steroids

206
Q

These steroids change your mood, alter defense mechanisms, break down fats and proteins, and inhibit insulin

A

Glucocorticoids (ex. Prednisone)

207
Q

These steroids make you retain sodium and water, and make you lose potassium

A

Mineralocorticoids: Aldosterone

208
Q

Fluid volume excess and a decrease in serum potassium can be the result of too much ___________

A

Aldosterone

209
Q

Fluid volume deficit and an increase in serum potassium can be the result of not enough ___________

A

Aldosterone

210
Q

made in the pituitary and stimulate cortisol to be made

A

Adrenocorticotropin hormones (ACTH)

211
Q

A hormone of the adrenal cortex

A

Cortisol (steroid)

212
Q

Too many steroids equals ________

A

Hypercortisolism

213
Q

An increase in ACTH equals an increase in

A

Cortisol levels

214
Q

This disease is a result of adrenocortical insufficiency- not enough steroids

A

Addison’s Disease

215
Q

With Addison’s disease, we don’t have enough Aldosterone, therefore we will lose _______ and _________ and retain _______

A

Sodium
Water
Potassium

216
Q

With Addison’s disease, serum potassium will be

A

High

217
Q

S/S of this start with muscle twitching, then proceed to weakness, then flaccid paralysis

A

Hyperkalemia

218
Q

Client may experience anorexia/nausea, hyperpigmentation-bronzing color of the skin and mucous membranes, GI upset, and hypotension, with this adrenal cortex problem

A

Addison’s disease

219
Q

Addison’s disease will have ________ bowel sounds

A

decreased

220
Q

Addison’s disease will have a ________ sodium, _______ potassium, and _____________

A

Decreased
Increased
Hypoglycemia

221
Q

Need to _______ sodium in the diet to treat addisons disease

A

Increase

222
Q

Used to treat Addsion’s disease. It is really Aldosterone

A

Fludrocortisone (Florinef)

223
Q

When on a medicine where weight has to be monitored daily, keep the weight within __________ of their normal weight

A

2-3 pounds (+ or -)

224
Q

Severe hypotension and vascular collapse can mean

A

Addisonian Crisis

225
Q

Addison’s means _______ steroids

A

Not enough

226
Q

Cushing’s means _________ steroids

A

Too many

227
Q

Growth arrest, thin extremities, increased risk of infection, hyperglycemia, psychosis to depression, moon faced, truncal obesity, buffalo hump, are all signs of

A

Too many glucocorticoids (Cushing’s)

228
Q

Oily skin/acne, women with male traits, and poor sex drive (libido), are all signs of

A

Too many sex hormones (Cushing’s)

229
Q

High BP, CHF, weight gain, and fluid volume excess, are all signs of

A

Too many mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone) (Cushing’s)

230
Q

In Cushing’s, the client will have too much mineralocorticoid (Aldosterone), and therefore, the serum potassium will be

A

LOW

231
Q

A 24 hour urine on a client with Cushing’s, would reveal ______ levels of Cortisol (steroids)

A

HIGH

232
Q

Diet for pre-treatment of Cushing’s disease

A

Increase potassium, decrease sodium, increase protein, increase calcium

233
Q

Steroids ______ serum calcium

A

Decrease

234
Q

Steroids decrease serum calcium by excreting it through the _________

A

GI tract

235
Q

These clients have little or no insulin

A

Type I diabetic

236
Q

This type of diabetes is usually diagnosed in childhood

A

Type I DM

237
Q

Auto-immune response (Type 1 A) or Idiopathic (Type 1 B) are causes of this

A

Type I DM

238
Q

First sign of Type I DM may be

A

DKA

239
Q

This type of DM may appear abruptly

A

Type 1

240
Q

You have to have _______ to carry glucose out of the vascular space into the cell.

A

Insulin

241
Q

Since Type ____ diabetics have no insulin, the glucose just builds up in the _______ space.

A

I

vascular

242
Q

Because glucose builds up in the vascular space in Type I DM, the blood becomes _________, and pulls fluid into the vascular space.

A

Hypertonic

243
Q

The ______ filter excess glucose and fluids. This is called ______ and _________

A

Kidneys
Polyuria
Polydipsia

244
Q

When cells starve, they start breaking down protein and fat for energy. This is called _______

A

Polyphagia

245
Q

When you break down fat, you get _______

A

Ketones (acids)

246
Q

Ketones lead to ______

A

Metabolic Acidosis

247
Q

Metabolic Acidosis leads to ______ respirations, to ______ CO2, which is known as _________ respirations.

A

Increased
Decrease
Kussmauls

248
Q

Excessive urination

A

Polyuria

249
Q

Excessive thirst

A

Polydipsia

250
Q

Excessive hunger

A

Polyphagia

251
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia together equals

A

Hyperglycemia

252
Q

Oral hypoglycemia agents will _____ for Type I DM

A

Not work

253
Q

In this type of DM, the client does not have enough insulin, or the insulin they have is no good

A

Type II

254
Q

Client’s with this type of DM are usually overweight

A

Type II

255
Q

This type of diabetic can’t make enough insulin to keep up with the _________ load the client is taking in

A

Glucose

256
Q

This type of DM may be found by accident. The client may be coming in to MD for things like a wound that won’t heal, repeated vaginal infections, etc.

A

Type II

257
Q

Features of this include insulin resistance, abdominal obesity (waist circumference > 40 inches), increased triglycerides, decreased HDL, increased BP, and CAD

A

Metabolic Syndrome (Syndrome X)

258
Q

Resembles Type II DM, but occurs during pregnancy

A

Gestational Diabetes

259
Q

During pregnancy, mom needs 2-3 times more ______ than normal

A

Insulin

260
Q

Screen all moms at ______ gestation for DM

A

24-28 weeks

261
Q

Extreme blood sugar equals

A

vascular damageq

262
Q

Majority of diabetic calories should come from _______, then _______, and lastly _________.

A

Complex carbs
fats
protein

263
Q

Limit protein to _______ in clients with DM

A

10-20%

264
Q

Diabetics tend to have ________ disease

A

Renal

265
Q

Oral hypoglycemic agents work by

A

Stimulating the pancreas to make insulin (most times)

266
Q

Despite whether or not oral hypoglycemic agents stimulate the pancreas or not, all oral hypoglycemics work to _________

A

Decrease the amount of circulating glucose

267
Q

Oral hypoglycemic agents are only effective on type _____ diabetics

A

II

268
Q

Glipizide (Glucotrol), Metformin (Glocophage), Pioglitazone (Actos), and Sitagliptin (Januvia) are all

A

Common Oral Anti-Diabetic Agents

269
Q

Insulin dose is determined by

A

Body Weight

270
Q

Average adult insulin dose range is

A

0.4-1.0 units/kg/day

271
Q

Insulin dose is adjusted until the blood sugar is normal, and until there is no more ______ or ________ in urine

A

glucose, ketones

272
Q

Regular insulin is ________, while NPH insulin is ________

A

Clear, cloudy

273
Q

What is the only type of insulin that can be given IV?

A

Regular

274
Q

What is the most common method of daily dosing insulin?

A

Basal-bolus

275
Q

Basal-bolus dosing involves the total daily dose of insulin being a combination of a ______ insulin, and a _______ insulin.

A

Long-lasting, Rapid acting

276
Q

Long lasting insulin is given______

A

Once a day

277
Q

Clients should eat when insulin is at its _________

A

Peak

278
Q

When insulin is at its peak, blood sugar is at its ______

A

Lowest

279
Q

When drawing up both regular and NPH insulin together, always draw up ________ first

A

Regular (clear to cloudy)

280
Q

blood test that gives an average of what your blood sugar has been over the past three months

A

Glycosylated Hemoglobin (HbA1c)

281
Q

Ideal goal for HbA1c for a diabetic is

A

4 to 6% or less

282
Q

The ADA defines a HbA1c of _____ as diagnostic for diabetes

A

6.5%

283
Q

Only _______ insulin is used in infusion pumps

A

Rapid acting

284
Q

If hypoglycemic, client should

A

Eat or drink simple sugars

285
Q

Glucose absorption is delayed in foods with lots of _____

A

Fat

286
Q

Once you get the blood sugar up, then the client should eat ___________

A

Complex carbs and protein

287
Q

ADA defines hypoglycemia as a glucose level of

A

70mg/dL or less

288
Q

Anything that increases blood sugar can throw a client into

A

DKA

289
Q

Absent or inadequate insulin leads to sugar going sky high

A

DKA

290
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia lead to fat breakdown (acidosis), which leads to Kussmaul’s respirations, and LOC decreases

A

DKA

291
Q

Hourly blood sugar levels and potassium levels for

A

DKA

292
Q

Insulin decreases _____ and _______ by driving them out of the vascular space into the cell

A

Blood sugar

Potassium

293
Q

Hourly outputs needed for

A

DKA

294
Q

For DKA, when giving IV fluids, start with NS, then when blood sugar gets down to about _______ switch to _____ to prevent throwing the client into _________

A

300
D5W
Hypoglycemia

295
Q

Anticipate giving IV _______ at some point to the client in DKA

A

Potassium

296
Q

Type 1 leads to _______, whereas Type II leads to ______

A

DKA, HHNK(HHS)

297
Q

HHNK or HHS look like DKA, but have no ________

A

Acidosis

298
Q

Clients in HHNK or HHS are making just enough insulin so they don’t break down _____. This means no ______, which means no ________.

A

Fat
Ketones
Acidosis

299
Q

Will a client with HHNK or HHS have Kussmaulls respirations?

A

No

300
Q

DKA and HHNK (HHS) are both hyperosmolar states caused by ________ and _______, but there is no ___________ with HHNK(HHS)

A

Hyperglycemia
Dehydration
Acidosis

301
Q

Diabetic retinopathy leads to

A

Blindness

302
Q

Nephropathy leads to

A

Kidney disease

303
Q

Neuropathy leads to

A

Nerve damage

304
Q

This is when the bladder does not empty properly, it may empty spontaneously, called __________, or it may not empty at all, and this is called __________

A

Neurogenic bladder,
Incontinence,
Retention

305
Q

Stomach emptying is delayed so there is an increased risk for aspiration

A

Gastroparesis

306
Q

Rapid acting insulin onset

A

5-15 minutes

307
Q

Rapid acting insulin peak

A

1-3 hours

308
Q

Rapid acting insulin duration

A

3-5 hours

309
Q

Aspart (NovoLog), Lispro (Humalog), and Glulisine (Apidra) are all examples of

A

Rapid acting insulin

310
Q

Short acting insulin onset

A

30 mins to 1 hour

311
Q

Short acting insulin peak

A

2-4 hours

312
Q

Short acting insulin duration

A

6-8 hours

313
Q

Used for patients on a sliding scale

A

Short acting insulin

314
Q

Humulin R, and Novolin R are examples of

A

Short acting insulin

315
Q

Intermediate acting insulin onset

A

1-1.5 hours

316
Q

Intermediate acting insulin peak

A

6-12 hours

317
Q

Intermediate acting insulin duration

A

18-24 hours

318
Q

Isophane suspension (NPH, Humulin N, Novolin N) are examples of

A

Intermediate Acting Insulin

319
Q

Long acting insulin onset

A

2-4 hours

320
Q

Long acting insulin peak

A

No peak

321
Q

Long acting insulin duration

A

24 hours

322
Q

Glargine (Lantus) is an example of

A

Long acting insulin

323
Q

Intermediate acting insulin combined with either rapid acting or short acting (Regular) insulin

A

Combination Insulin (Pre-mixed)

324
Q

Humulin 70/30, NovoLog Mix 70/30, Humalog Mix 75/25, and Humalog Mix 50/50 are all examples of

A

Combination Insulin

325
Q

Post op care for cushings should include bed rest until

A

BP is stabilized after surgery

326
Q

Normal inflammatory responses are __________ post op surgery for cushings.

A

Suppressed

327
Q

Stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas

A

Sulfonyureas

328
Q

Decreases the rate of hepatic glucose production and lowers the glucose uptake by the tissues

A

Biguanides

329
Q

Delays absorption of glucose from the GI tract

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

330
Q

Glipizide (Glucotrol), Glyburide (Diabeta, Glynase), Glimepride (Amaryl) are all examples of

A

Sulfonyureas

331
Q

Metformin (Glucophage, Glucophage XR) is an example of a

A

Biguanide

332
Q

Acarbose (Precose), and Miglitol (Glyset) are examples of

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

333
Q

Improves glucose uptake in the muscles, decreases endogenous glucose production. Should be avoided in pt’s with symptomatic heart disease. May cause heart failure or MI.

A

Thiazolidineodiones “Glitazones”