Test 3 (Mod 3) Flashcards

0
Q

Burn that involves the epidermis

A

Superficial partial-thickness burn

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1
Q

offer most resistance to electrical burns

A

fat and bones

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2
Q

Severity of burn injury is determined by

A

Depth, extent of burn in percent of TBSA, location, and patient risk factors

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3
Q

Burn that involves the dermis

A

Deep partial-thickness burn

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4
Q

Burn that involves fat, muscle, bone

A

Full-thickness burn

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5
Q

With burns of the face, neck, and chest, think-

A

respiratory obstruction

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7
Q

With burns of the hands, feet, joints, eyes, think-

A

self-care

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8
Q

With burns to the ears, nose, buttocks, perineum, think-

A

infection

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9
Q

Areas of the wound not closed by wound contraction will require

A

grafting

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10
Q

a continuous leak of plasma from the vascular space into the interstitial space.

A

Capillary leak syndrome (third spacing)

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11
Q

Cool large burns for no longer than

A

10 minutes

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12
Q

Fluid remobilization starts ______________, when the capillary leak stops and capillary integrity is restored.

A

about 24 hours after injury

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13
Q

Primary concerns during emergent phase of burns include

A

hypovolemic shock and edema

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14
Q

The diuretic stage begins _____________as capillary membrane integrity returns.

A

at about 48 to 72 hours after the burn injury

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15
Q

because of the initial fluid shifts and hypovolemia that occur after a burn injury, heart rate goes _____, and cardiac output goes ______.

A

up, down

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16
Q

In burns, a normal insensible loss is

A

30 to 50 mL / hr

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17
Q

In severe burns, fluid loss may be

A

200 to 400 mL /hr

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18
Q

Cardiac output may remain low with burns until

A

18 to 36 hours after the burn injury

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19
Q

In burns, this electrolyte shifts to the interstitial spaces and remains until edema formation ceases.

A

Sodium (Na+)

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20
Q

This electrolyte shift develops with burns because injured cells and hemolyzed RBCs release this into extracellular spaces

A

Potassium (K+)

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21
Q

an acute gastroduodenal ulcer that occurs with the stress of severe injury, may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn injury because of reduced GI blood flow and mucosal damage.

A

Curling’s ulcer

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22
Q

Immediate care of burns focuses on

A

maintaining an open airway, ensuring adequate breathing and

circulation, limiting the extent of injury, and maintaining the function of vital organs.

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23
Q

Assess the burn patient’s _____ and ___________ before assessing any other body system.

A

airway, adequacy of breathing

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24
Q

Ventilator alarms should be checked ______, for patients who are receiving paralytic drugs during mechanical ventilation

A

hourly

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25
Q

Patients receiving paralytic drugs during mechanical ventilation should be given

A

analgesics, sedatives, and antianxiety drugs

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26
Q

______ of the fluid volume calculated for the first 24 hours after burn injury should be given in the first _____ hours post burn

A

Half, eight

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27
Q

As soon as fluid shifts have resolved, assist patients to

A

Ambulate several times each day

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28
Q

two large bore IV’s for TBSA greater than

A

15%

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29
Q

Central line for TBSA of greater than

A

30%

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30
Q

Should be delayed until a patent airway, adequate circulation, and adequate fluid replacement have been established with burns

A

Wound care

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31
Q

Source of infection in a pt with burns is from

A

the pt’s own flora

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32
Q

dressings on burns may be changed every

A

12 to 24 hours to once every 14 days. Moist wound healing is preferred.

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33
Q

When performing burn wound care with open burn wounds, the RN must wear

A

Disposable hat, mask, gown, and gloves

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34
Q

a chronic, episodic disorder with multiple subtypes classified as a long-duration headache because it usually lasts more than four hours.

A

Migraine headache

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35
Q

is characterized by an intense pain in one side of the head (unilateral) worsening with movement, and occurs with either photophobia (sensitive to light) or phonophobia (sensitive to noise).

A

Migraine

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36
Q

alleviates pain during the aura phase or soon after the start

A

Abortive therapy

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37
Q

Given routinely to all burn patients

A

Tetanus immunization

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38
Q

triptans, ergotamine preparations, and anti-epileptic drugs.

A

Drugs used to treat migraines

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39
Q

manifested by brief (30 minutes to 2 hours), intense unilateral pain that generally occurs in the spring and fall without warning.

A

Cluster headaches

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40
Q

classified as the most common chronic short-duration headaches.

A

Cluster headaches

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41
Q

Caloric needs for a burn patient

A

about 5000 kcal / day

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42
Q

Resting metabolic expenditure may be increased by ___ to ___ above normal in the burn patient

A

50 to 100%

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43
Q

The pain from this is usually accompanied by ipsilateral eye tearing, rhinorrhea, congestion, ptosis, facial sweating, eyelid edema, and miosis.

A

cluster headache

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44
Q

the most common type of chronic long-duration headache, lasting more than 4 hours and are caused by stress and tension.

A

Tension headache

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45
Q

Early, continuous enteral feeding promotes optimal conditions for wound healing with

A

burns

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46
Q

an abnormal, sudden, excessive, uncontrolled electrical discharge of neurons resulting in alteration in consciousness, motor or sensory ability, or behavior.

A

Seizure

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47
Q

defined as two or more seizures experienced by a person.

A

Epilepsy

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48
Q

The _____ phase of burns begins with the mobilization of extracellular fluid and subsequent diuresis

A

Acute

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49
Q

The ______ phase of burns is concluded when the burned area is completely covered by skin grafts, or when the wounds are healed

A

Acute

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50
Q

A partial thickness burn wound heals from the

A

edges

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51
Q

must be covered by skin grafts

A

full thickness burns

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52
Q

Full thickness wounds require

A

debridement

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53
Q

In burns, hyponatremia can develop from

A

excessive GI suction and diarrhea

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54
Q

Hypernatremia with burns can develop following

A

successful fluid replacement, improper tube feedings, inappropriate fluid administration

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55
Q

Hyperkalemia may be noted in a burn patient if the patient has

A

renal failure, adrenocortical insufficiency, massive deep muscle injury

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56
Q

cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular failure, muscle weakness, ECG changes, can all be caused by

A

Hyperkalemia

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57
Q

lengthy IV therapy without potassium, vomiting, diarrhea, prolonged gastrointestinal suction, can all lead to

A

Hypokalemia

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58
Q

Partial thickness burns can become full thickness in the presence of

A

Infection

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59
Q

The International Classification of Epileptic Seizures recognizes three broad categories of seizure disorders

A

generalized seizures, partial seizures, and unclassified seizures.

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60
Q

is not associated with any identifiable cause.

A

Primary or idiopathic epilepsy

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61
Q

result from an underlying brain lesion, most commonly a tumor, trauma, or metabolic or other disorders.

A

Secondary seizures

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62
Q

involve both cerebral hemispheres

A

generalized seizures, such as the tonic-clonic seizure

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63
Q

usually involve only one hemisphere.

A

Partial seizures, also called focal or local seizures

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64
Q

includes having oxygen and suctioning emergency equipment available, starting an IV access, and keeping the siderails up at all times. Indicate the reasons for the siderails to meet The Joint Commission requirements.

A

Seizure precautions

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65
Q

decreased ROM and contractures can occur during the acute phase of

A

burns

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66
Q

a medical emergency characterized by prolonged seizures lasting more than 5 minutes or repeated seizures over the course of 30 minutes.

A

Status Epilepticus

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67
Q

an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

A

Meningitis

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68
Q

is usually self-limiting and the patient has a complete recovery

A

Viral meningitis

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69
Q

potentially life-threatening form of meningitis

A

Bacterial meningitis

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70
Q

Speeds up removal of dead tissue from healthy wound bed with burns

A

Enzymatic debridement

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71
Q

may occur as a result of blockage of the flow of CSF, change in cerebral blood flow, or thrombus formation.

A

Increased ICP

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72
Q

Analysis of the cerebrospinal fluid is used to diagnose

A

Meningitis

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73
Q

an inflammation of the brain tissue and often the surrounding meninges, affecting the cerebrum, the brainstem, and the cerebellum.

A

Encephalitis

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74
Q

can be life-threatening or lead to persistent neurological problems such as learning disabilities, epilepsy, memory loss, and fine motor deficits.

A

Viral encephalitis

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75
Q

Assess level of consciousness (LOC) as a priority in patients with

A

Encephalitis

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76
Q

C1-7

A

Innervate neck accessory muscles

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77
Q

T1-11

A

Innervate intercostals

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78
Q

C3-5

A

Diaphragm

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79
Q

Initially bleeding and edema occur _____ segments higher than the spinal injury

A

2

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80
Q

Incomplete injury affecting upper extremities

A

Central cord injury

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81
Q

Incomplete lesion that involves loss of motor, pain, and temp. Proprioception, vibration, and touch intact

A

Anterior cord injury

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82
Q

Incomplete lesion that involves ipsilateral loss of motion, contra lateral loss of pain and temp

A

Brown-Sequard

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83
Q

Impaired mobility or sensation
Wounds of head neck back shoulders
Pain tenderness deformities near the spine
Unconscious after the injury
Unexplained shock (neurogenic vs spinal shock)

A

Indications of cord injury

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84
Q

T6-L2

A

Innervate abdominal muscles

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85
Q

Total loss of motion and sensation below the lesion

A

Spinal shock

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86
Q

Occurs with lesions above T6
Occurs after spinal shock has resolved
Bladder/bowel distention are common triggers but anything can irritate this response

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

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87
Q

Affect CNS above area of function
Spinal arcs below lesion are intact
Incontinent bowel and bladder

A

Upper motor neuron lesions

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88
Q

Disrupt reflex arc resulting in loss of activity at that level
Ex. Lesion on sacral segment results in bladder retention or loss of erection

A

Lower motor neuron lesions

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89
Q

Most have reflex erections but cannot ejaculate

A

Upper motor neuron lesion

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90
Q

Most cannot have erections

A

Lower motor neuron lesions

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91
Q

An inhibitory neurotransmitter and some meds for epilepsy alter the amount of this in the brain or alter how the brain responds to it

A

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)

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92
Q

Originate from a local cortical region and include temporal, frontal, and occipital lobe epilepsy; childhood epilepsy

A

Localization related (focal, partial) seizures.

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93
Q

Activation of neurons in both hemispheres and include absence, myoclonic, grand mal, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Generalized seizures

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94
Q

Continuous seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or two or more seizures that occur without a recovery period

A

Status epileptics

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95
Q

3 components in the non-expandable skull

A

brain, blood CSF

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96
Q

Widening pulse pressure means

A

Increasing ICP

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97
Q

Widening pulse pressure, Bradycardia, and change in respirations, make up

A

Cushing’s Triad (late sign)

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98
Q

Increased systolic BP is what leads to _______

A

Widening pulse pressure with increased ICP

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99
Q

carotid bodies ilicit a parasympathetic response using the vagus nerve to combat the

A

increase in systolic BP with increased ICP

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100
Q

As a result of the vagus nerve stimulation

A

bradycardia occurs

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101
Q

Hypoventilation leads to an______ in CO2 in the body

A

Increase (CO2 potent vasodilator in the brain, thus increasing ICP even more)

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102
Q

Hypoxia will ______ ICP

A

Increase

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103
Q

Numerical scale making up verbal, motor, and eye opening responses

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

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104
Q

With GCS less than eight, think

A

Intubate!

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105
Q

Ideal GCS range

A

13-15

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106
Q

Normal pupil size

A

2-6 mm

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107
Q

If client is c/o a headache, assume

A

increased ICP

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108
Q

A high level of brain functioning is demonstrated if the client can

A

speak

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109
Q

Absence of movement is the ______ level of response

A

lowest

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110
Q

This test assesses brain stem function; eyelids open…quickly turn head to the right…eyes should move to the left; If eyes remain stationary…reflex absent

A

Oculocephalic Reflex (Doll’s eye reflex)

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111
Q

This test assesses brain stem function; irrigate ear with 50mL of cool water…normally eyes will move to irrigated ear and rapidly back to mid-position

A

Ice cold water caloric test (oculovestibular reflex)

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112
Q

lateral aspect of foot is stroked and toes flex or curl up. Less than 1 year of age a positive result is ok; negative is bad

A

Babinski or plantar reflex

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113
Q

Normal adult response to Babinski

A

toes roll under or flex

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114
Q

A negative babinski is ok for ages greater than_________. Positive is _______

A

1 year of age

Bad

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115
Q

For an ICP patient, to facilitate venous drainage, elevate HOB to

A

20 to 30 degrees

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116
Q

For an ICP patient, to reduce an increase in intra abdominal/thoracic/cranial pressure, prevent or reduce

A

hip flexion

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117
Q

With reflexes, 0=

A

absent

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118
Q

With reflexes, 1+=

A

present, diminished

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119
Q

Potent osmotic diuretic that draws fluid out of brain, puts it into vasculature, and is then excreted through the kidneys

A

Mannitol

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120
Q

Often used with Mannitol to facilitate the removal of fluid from the vasculature

A

Lasix

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121
Q

With reflexes, 2+=

A

normal

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122
Q

With reflexes, 3+=

A

increased but not necessarily pathological

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123
Q

Reduces cerebral edema

A

Decadron

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124
Q

With reflexes, 4+=

A

hyperactive

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125
Q

Names of drains used post-op for brain injuries

A

JP or hemovac

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126
Q

A shunt works by

A

removing excess CSF from around the brain and shunting it to the abdominal cavity, or other location

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127
Q

x-ray of cerebral circulation that goes through the femoral artery

A

Cerebral Angiography

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128
Q

prior to a cerebral angiography, make sure pt is

A

well hydrated, has voided, has peripheral pulses, and the groin is prepped

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129
Q

Anytime an iodine based dye is used the client will need to be well hydrated to promote

A

excretion of the dye

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130
Q

bed rest is required after a cerebral angiography for

A

4-6 hours

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131
Q

Major complication of cerebral angiography

A

Embolus (arm, heart, kidney, lung, brain)

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132
Q

If a client has a change in LOC, one sided weakness, and paralysis, or motor/sensory deficits post cerebral angiography, think

A

brain embolus (blood clot) (STROKE!)

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133
Q

With ICP patient, mechanical ventilation is needed to

A

control ventilation (prevent hypoventilation)

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134
Q

In order to maintain a calm and quiet environment for a patient with ICP, ________ activities

A

space out activities as much as possible

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135
Q

Records electrical activity to help diagnose ________, and is used as a screening procedure for _____, and is an indicator of ______ death.

A

Seizure disorders
Coma
Brain

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136
Q

Important to hold ____ prior to an EEG

A

Caffine

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137
Q

Make sure pt is not _____ prior to an EEG due to a possible drop in blood sugar

A

NPO

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138
Q

Punture site for a lumbar puncture

A

Lumbar subarachnoid (3rd - 4th)

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139
Q

Measures ICP with a mamometer

A

Lumbar puncture

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140
Q

Position client over a table with head down and arched back, or on side in the fetal position for

A

Lumbar puncture (opens subarachnoid space)

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141
Q

Meningitis is a complication of a

A

Lumbar puncture

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142
Q

Frontal lobe is responsible for

A

Speech, expressive language, awareness, memory, skilled movements, emotion behavior, smell

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143
Q

Temporal lobe responsible for

A

Language reception and understanding, hearing

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144
Q

Cerebellum is responsible for

A

Balance and muscle coordination and posture

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145
Q

Brain stem regulates

A

basic body function

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146
Q

Occipital lobe responsible for

A

Vision, language, reading, visual recognition

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147
Q

Parietal lobe responsible for

A

body sensations, spoken and written language

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148
Q

Signs of this include chills, fever, positive Kernig and Brudzinski, vomiting, nuchal rigidity, photophobia

A

Meningitis

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149
Q

This form of meningitis requires droplet precautions

A

Bacterial

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150
Q

This should be clear and colorless (looks like water)

A

CSF

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151
Q

Post lumbar puncture, pt needs to lie flat or prone for

A

2-3 hours

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152
Q

Increase ______ post lumbar puncture

A

fluids

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153
Q

Most common complication of a lumbar puncture

A

headache

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154
Q

Headache from lumbar puncture will _____ when the client sits up and ____ when they lie down

A

increase

decrease

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155
Q

Headache from lumbar puncture is treated with

A

bed rest, fluids, pain meds, and blood patches

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156
Q

When brain tissue is pulled down through foramen magnum as a result of a sudden drop in ICP

A

Herniation

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157
Q

When the client’s hip is flexed 90 degrees, then extending the clients knee causes pain, this is a

A

Positive Kernig sign

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158
Q

When flexing the client’s neck causes flexion of the clients hips and knees, this is a

A

positive Brudzinski sign

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159
Q

Scalp is very

A

Vascular

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160
Q

With scalp injuries, watch for

A

Infection

161
Q

In an open skull fracture, the dura is

A

torn

162
Q

In a closed skull fracture, the dura is

A

intact

163
Q

With basal skull fractures you would see bleeding where?

A

EENT (Eyes, ears, nose, and throat)

164
Q

Do not give narcotics for head injuries due to it leading to a change in

A

level of consciousness

165
Q

Bruising over the mastoid (over ear)

A

Battle’s sign

166
Q

Periorbital bruising

A

Racoon eyes

167
Q

leaking spinal fluid from your nose

A

Cerebrospinal rhinorrhea

168
Q

temporary loss of neurological function with complete recovery

A

Concussion

169
Q

Will have a short (maybe seconds) period of unconsciousness or may just get dizzy / see spots

A

concussion

170
Q

Teach families to watch for these signs with a pt having a concussion

A
Difficulty awakening/speaking
confusion
severe headache
vomiting
pulse changes
unequal pupils
one sided weakness
THESE ARE ALL SIGNS OF INCREASED ICP!!!
171
Q

Brain is bruised with possible surface hemorrage

A

Contusion

172
Q

May have a longer period of unconsciousness and have residual damage

A

contusion

173
Q

Deep breathing is still necessary for ICP pt’s, but avoid

A

coughing and blowing nose

174
Q

A small hematoma that develops rapidly, may be

A

fatal

175
Q

A massive hematoma that develops slowly may allow the client to

A

adapt

176
Q

This is a rupture of the middle meningeal artery (fast bleeder)

A

Epidural hematoma

177
Q

Is an epidural hematoma an emergency or not?

A

YES!!!

178
Q

Treatment for an epidural hematoma

A

Burr Holes and remove the clot; control ICP

179
Q

Normal ICP lab value

A

0-15mm Hg

180
Q

Usually venous, can be acute (fast), subacute (medium), or chronic (slow)

A

Subdural hematoma

181
Q

Care for the acute subdural hematoma

A

Immediate craniotomy and remove clot; control ICP

182
Q

With your upper spinal cord injury (above T6) major complication to look for is

A

Autonomic dysreflexia or hyperflexia

183
Q

A syndrome characterized by severe HTN and H/A, bradycardia, nasal stuffiness, flushing, sweating, blurred vision and anxiety

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

184
Q

Sudden onset of bradycardia is usually

A

Hypoxia driven

185
Q

A sudden onset neurological emergency if not treated properly, which could lead to a hypertensive stroke

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

186
Q

What can cause autonomic dysreflexia to occur

A

Distended bladder, constipation, painful stimuli

187
Q

Assume c-spine injury is present until proven otherwise. How do we prove otherwise?

A

X-ray

188
Q

How do you tell CSF from other drainage?

A

CSF will be positive for glucose

189
Q

Halo test

A

bloody spot with a ring of CSF around it, which will look like a halo

190
Q

Steroids ______ cerebral edema

A

decrease

191
Q

Head injury patients need an _______ in calories

A

increase

192
Q

Steroids increase breakdown of _____ and _______

A

protein, fat

193
Q

If having CSF rhinorrhea, pt cannot have

A

NG feedings

194
Q

Do not use restraints on a head injury pt, becuase they will make

A

ICP go up

195
Q

Stimuli could promote a ______ in a head injured pt.

A

seizure

196
Q

Earliest sign of increased ICP

A

change in LOC

197
Q

In a profound coma, pupils will be

A

fixed and dilated

198
Q

with seizures remember to

A

protect the airway, and cushion the head

199
Q

Arched spine, plantar flexion, BAD

A

decerebrate posturing

200
Q

arms flexed inwardly; legs extended with plantar flexion

A

decorticate posturing

201
Q

weakness on one side of the body

A

hemiparesis

202
Q

paralysis on one side of the body

A

hemiplegia

203
Q

An osmotic diuretic used for tx of increased ICP

A

Mannitol

204
Q

pulls fluid from brain cells and places it in the general circulation

A

Osmotic diuretics: Mannitol (Osmitrol)

205
Q

As a result of using Mannitol, circulating blood volume _______. Since this increases blood volume, it _________ the workload of the heart

A

increases, increases

206
Q

Increased blood volume from osmotic diuretic use, puts the pt at risk for

A

FVE (fluid volume excess)

207
Q

To combat fluid volume excess with the use of Mannitol, ______ is often used to enhance diuresis

A

Lasix

208
Q

Hyperventilation leads to alkalosis, which leads to brain vasoconstriction, which make ICP go

A

down

209
Q

Keep PCO2 on the low side (35) with increased ICP. Do not lower too much, as it will cause too much vasoconstriction resulting in

A

decreased cerebral perfusion and brain ischemia

210
Q

with increased ICP pt’s, keep temperature below

A

104 degrees F

211
Q

An increased temp will _______ cerebral metabolism, which will _______ ICP

A

increase, increase

212
Q

Phenobarbital (Luminal) may be used with increased ICP to induce a _______, which will decrease cerebral metabolism

A

Coma

213
Q

Restrict fluids to ______ to ______mL per day in a pt with increased ICP

A

1200 to 1500mL

214
Q

Greatest risk of ICP monitoring devices

A

Infection

215
Q

Where do most burns occur?

A

At home

216
Q

Why does plasma seep out into the tissue

A

Increased capillary permeability

217
Q

When does the majority of increased capillary permeability occur?

A

the 1st 24 hours after the injury

218
Q

When does the pulse increase with burns?

A

anytime there is a fluid volume deficit

219
Q

Why does cardiac output decrease with burns?

A

less volume to pump out

220
Q

Why does urine output decrease with burns?

A

Kidneys are either trying to hold onto fluid or they aren’t being perfused

221
Q

Why is epinephrine secreted with burns?

A

To vasoconstrict, which shunts blood to vital organs

222
Q

Aldosterone is secreted with burns to

A

retain sodium and H2O

223
Q

ADH is secreted with burns to

A

retain H2O

224
Q

ADH and aldosterone are secreted in order to help the blood volume

A

go up

225
Q

What is the most common airway injury?

A

CO poisoning

226
Q

CO has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin, therefore preventing ________ from binding

A

O2

227
Q

When a client has burns to the neck/face/chest area, you better think what?

A

Airway compromise

228
Q

What might you do prophylactically for someone with burns to the face/chest/neck area?

A

Intubate

229
Q

Burns of head and neck %

A

9%

230
Q

Burns of trunk, both front and back %

A

18% for each

231
Q

Burns of each arm %

A

9%

232
Q

Burns of genital area %

A

1%

233
Q

Burns of each leg %

A

9%

234
Q

Parkland Formula

A

(4ml of LR) X (body weight in kg) X (% of TBSA burned)= total fluid replacement for the first 24 hours after burn occured

235
Q

give 1/2 of total volume for burns in the first _____ hours

A

eight

236
Q

give 1/4 of total volume for burns in the ___________ hours

A

Second eight hours

237
Q

give 1/4 of total volume for burns in the ___________

A

Third eight hours

238
Q

Fluid replacement therapy for burns for the first 24 hours is based on the ______________, not when the treatment ________.

A

injury occured

was started

239
Q

Where do most burns occur?

A

At home

240
Q

Why does plasma seep out into the tissue

A

Increased capillary permeability

241
Q

When does the majority of increased capillary permeability occur?

A

the 1st 24 hours after the injury

242
Q

Wrapping a burn pt in a blanket helps by

A

holding in body heat, and keeping out germs

243
Q

Why does cardiac output decrease with burns?

A

less volume to pump out

244
Q

Why does urine output decrease with burns?

A

Kidneys are either trying to hold onto fluid or they aren’t being perfused

245
Q

Why is epinephrine secreted with burns?

A

To vasoconstrict, which shunts blood to vital organs

246
Q

Aldosterone is secreted with burns to

A

retain sodium and H2O

247
Q

ADH is secreted with burns to

A

retain H2O

248
Q

ADH and aldosterone are secreted in order to help the blood volume

A

go up

249
Q

Sudden post-stroke changes in brain function may include confusion, disorientation, trouble speaking or physical stroke symptoms, such as sudden headache; difficulty walking; or numbness or paralysis on one side of the face or the body, are all symptoms of

A

vascular demential

250
Q

CO has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin, therefore preventing ________ from binding

A

O2

251
Q

When a client has burns to the neck/face/chest area, you better think what?

A

Airway compromise

252
Q

What might you do prophylactically for someone with burns to the face/chest/neck area?

A

Intubate

253
Q

Burns of head and neck %

A

9%

254
Q

Burns of trunk, both front and back %

A

18% for each

255
Q

Burns of each arm %

A

9%

256
Q

Burns of genital area %

A

1%

257
Q

give 1/2 of total volume for burns in the first _____ hours

A

eight

258
Q

Burns of each leg %

A

9%

259
Q

give 1/4 of total volume for burns in the ___________ hours

A

Second eight hours

260
Q

give 1/4 of total volume for burns in the ___________

A

Third eight hours

261
Q

Fluid replacement therapy for burns for the first 24 hours is based on the ______________, not when the treatment ________.

A

injury occured

was started

262
Q

Parkland Formula

A

(4ml of LR) X (body weight in kg) X (% of TBSA burned)= total fluid replacement for the first 24 hours after burn occured

263
Q

Priority nursing goal for burns

A

Hypoxia

264
Q

Which is used to determine if fluid volume replacement therapy for burns is adequate, weight or urine output?

A

Urine output

265
Q

What will stop the burning process?

A

Cool H2O, for no more than 10 minutes

266
Q

Wrapping a burn pt in a blanket helps by

A

holding in body heat, and keeping out germs

267
Q

a chronic, progressive, degenerative disease accounting for 60% of the dementias occurring in people older than 65 years of age, eventually causing complete disorientation and total dependence on others for care.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

268
Q

characterized by loss of memory, judgment, and visuospatial perception, and by a change in personality.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

269
Q

The most important risk factors are age, female gender, and family history.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

270
Q
Noxious stimuli is the cause
SCI T6 and above
Bradycardia
Severe HTN
Severe H/A
Flushing above the injury level
Cool below the injury level
Uninhibited SNS response to stimulus
A

Autonomic Dysreflexia

271
Q

A condition in which a person has significant difficulty with daily functioning because of problems with thinking and memory

A

Demential

272
Q

A decline in thinking skills caused by conditions that block or reduce blood flow to various regions of the brain, depriving brain cells of vital oxygen and nutrients

A

Vascular dementia

273
Q

Sudden post-stroke changes in brain function may include confusion, disorientation, trouble speaking or physical stroke symptoms, such as sudden headache; difficulty walking; or numbness or paralysis on one side of the face or the body, are all symptoms of

A

vascular demential

274
Q

Pooling of blood -decrease
venous return, decrease cardiac
output, hypotension,
bradycardia

A

Neurogenic Shock

275
Q

Massive vasodilation caused by
inflammatory response of body
due to overwhelming infection

A

Septic Shock

276
Q
Massive vasodilation, 
suppression of the sympathetic 
nervous system, injury/disease 
to the spinal cord at T6, spinal 
anesthesia
A

Causes of neurogenic shock

277
Q

Poor trunk control from this spinal injury

A

T1-T8

278
Q

Head and neck SCI

A

C1-C2

279
Q

Diaphram SCI

A

C3

280
Q

Deltoids, biceps SCI

A

C4-C5

281
Q

Wrist extenders SCI

A

C6

282
Q

Triceps SCI

A

C7-C8

283
Q

Hand SCI

A

T1

284
Q

Chest muscles SCI

A

T3-T7

285
Q

Abdominal Muscles SCI

A

T7-T12

286
Q

Leg muscles SCI

A

L1-L5

287
Q

Bowel and bladder SCI

A

S1-S2

288
Q

Sexual function SCI

A

S4

289
Q

Heel of foot SCI

A

S1

290
Q

Respiratory issues with this SCI

A

Thoracic

291
Q

Bowel and bladder issues with this SCI

A

Sacral

292
Q

Immediate after injury to 48 hours.
Total loss of motor/sensory below injury (flacid paralysis)
Spastic paralysis when resolved

A

Spinal Shock

293
Q

This drug does not affect the metabolism of other drugs and is very suitable for adjunctive therapy

A

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

294
Q
Noxious stimuli is the cause
SCI T6 and above
Bradycardia
Severe HTN
Severe H/A
Flushing above the injury level
Cool below the injury level
Uninhibited SNS response to stimulus
A

Autonomic Dysreflexia

295
Q
Total loss of motion and sensation below the lesion
Flaccid paralysis
Bladder - bowel retention
Absent reflexes
Lasts days to weeks
A

Spinal Shock

296
Q

MAP needs to be greater than or equal to ______ in pt’s with SCI

A

85

297
Q

Initial phase of rehab for SCI deals with

A

mobility and communication

298
Q

Physical therapy for SCI focuses on

A

muscle strengthening

299
Q

Occupational therapy for SCI works to

A

redevelop fine motor skills

300
Q

Vocational therapy for SCI helps to get

A

potential work /employment capabilities

301
Q

Recreational therapy for SCI

A

builds abilities to participate in recreational or athletic activities

302
Q

How do antiepileptic (AEDs) work?

A

witnin a seizure focus, they suppress neuron discharge.

Suppress progression of seizure activity from focus to other brain areas

303
Q

How do AEDs achieve suppression of a seizure?

A

suppress sodium influx: reversibly bind to sodium channels producing prolonged channel inactivation, decreasing the ability of neurons to fire at high frequency.
Suppression of Calcium influx: transmitter release is promoted by influx of calcium through voltage-gated calcium channels. Drugs suppress this transmission by blocking calcium channels
Antagonism of Glutamate: in the central nervous system, glutamate is the primary excitatory transmitter. Drugs block the actions of glutamate and suppress excitation of neurons

304
Q

Discontinuation of AEDs can be considered after pt has been seizure free for a minimum of

A

2 years

305
Q

Most widely used AED.
Used to treat all forms of seizures except absence
Suppression of sodium influx that suppresses hyperactivity of the neurons.
Therapeutic levels are 10-20 mcg/mL

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

306
Q

What meds cannot be taken with Phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A

Coumadin and Topamax

307
Q

Used for partial and tonic-clonic seizures, but not effective against absence seizures.
Some consider this the first drug of choice for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

308
Q

Suppression of sodium influx that suppresses hyperactivity of neurons.
Grapefruit juice can increase peak and trough levels by 40%

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

309
Q

Treats a wide variety of seizure types.
Suppression of sodium influx that suppresses hyperactivity of neurons.
Suppression of calcium influx.
Increases inhibitory influence of GABA

A

Valproic Acid (Depakote)

310
Q

Liver levels must be monitored and drug should not be given to those with pre-existing liver dysfunction.
Increases level of phenobarbital and phenytoin, combining drug with Topiramate (Topamax) can cause hyperammonemia

A

Valproic Acid (Depakote)

311
Q

Used for partial and generalized seizures but not for absence seizures.
A barbiturate that causes generalized depression of CNS.
Binds to GABA receptors and potentiate effects of GABA

A

Phenobarbital

312
Q

If used with valproic acid, it can increase plasma levels of phenobarbital by 40%, can cause a loss of therapeutic effects with drugs such as oral contraceptives and coumadin

A

Phenobarbital

313
Q

Decreases the ability of neurons to fire at high frequency due to suppression of sodium influx.
This suppresses seizures that depend on high-frequency discharge

A

Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)

314
Q

Make oral contraceptives less effective. Can raise Phenytoin levels; phenytoin, phenobarbital, and carcamazepine can reduce levels of axcarbazepine; alcohol can increase effect; use with caution with diuretics

A

Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)

315
Q

Monotherapy in parital seizures and used in absence seizures
Decreases the ability of neurons to fire at high frequency due to suppression of sodium influx.
This suppresses seizures that depend on high-frequency discharge.
Blockade of calcium channels

A

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

316
Q

Adjunctive use in partial seizures and is recommended for monotherapy for partial seizures.
Analog of GABA but does not directly affect GABA

A

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

317
Q

This drug does not affect the metabolism of other drugs and is very suitable for adjunctive therapy

A

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

318
Q

Adjunctive therpy of partial seizures
Binds with calcium channel blockers on nerve terminals and inhibits calcium reflex.
Inhibits release of glutamate, norepinephrine, and substance P.
Analog of GABA.

A

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

319
Q

Alcohol, opioids, benzodiazepines, and other CNS depressants intensify depressant effects

A

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

320
Q

Adjunctive therapy for myoclonic seizures partial-onset seizures, and primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Does not bind to any known transmitter and action is unknown.
ALL BRAIN TUMOR PTs GET THIS

A

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

321
Q

Adjunctive therapy for primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.
Monotherapy of partial seizures or primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
GABA mediated inhibition.
Suppression of sodium influx.
Blocks calcium channels.
Blocks gutamate.

A

Topiramate (Topamax)

322
Q

Phenytoin and carbamazepine can decrease the levels of this drug by 45% and this drug increases phenytoin levels

A

Topiramate (Topamax)

323
Q
Used to stop seizure but not used for maintenance anticonvulsant therapy.
Includes lorazepam (Ativan) and diazepam (Valium).
Depress neuronal function in multiple areas of the CNS.
Enhance GABA
A

Benzodiazepines

324
Q

Albumin holds onto _______ in the _______space

A

Fluid, Vascular

325
Q

Albumin ________ vascular volume

A

Increases

326
Q

Albumin ________ kidney perfusion

A

Increases

327
Q

Albumin _________ BP

A

Increases

328
Q

Albumin _______ cardiac output

A

Increases

329
Q

Albumin corrects a fluid volume deficit by putting more fluid in the __________________

A

Vascular space

330
Q

Albumin ________ the workload of the heart

A

Increases

331
Q

If you stress the heart too much, the client could be thrown into ______________

A

Fluid volume excess

332
Q

If fluid volume excess occurs, cardiac output will _______-

A

Decrease

333
Q

With fluid volume excess, lung sounds will be _____

A

Wet

334
Q

How can you ensure that you are not fluid overloading a patient?

A

Use CVP. It looks at the right atrial pressure. If increased too high, too fast, it can create right sided heart failure

335
Q

Takes 2 to 4 weeks to develop their own immunity from this. (Active immunity)

A

Tetanus Toxoid

336
Q

Provides immediate protection (passive immunity)

A

Immune globulin

337
Q

Things to check for circulation (four things)

A

Pulse
Cap refill
Skin color
Skin temp

338
Q

Relieves the pressure and restores the circulation, cut through the eschar

A

Escharotomy

339
Q

Relieves the pressure and restores the circulation, but the cut is much deeper into the tissue, cut goes through the eschar and the fascia

A

Fasciotomy

340
Q

Measure urine output via foley catheter every _______ for a burn patient

A

Hour

341
Q

What are two reasons why no urine will return when inserting a catheter in a burn patient?

A

The kidneys are either attempting to hold on to the fluid or they are not being perfused adequately

342
Q

What would you do if you saw brown or red urine with a burn patient?

A

Call the MD

343
Q

What drug may be used to flush out the kidneys in a burn patient?

A

Mannitol (Osmotic diuretic)

344
Q

What would you worry about if there is no urine output or if it is lessthan 30mL/hr, in a burn patient?

A

Kidney failure

345
Q

After 48 hours, the burn patient will begin to diurese. Why?

A

Because fluid is going back into the vascular space. This can lead to fluid volume excess

346
Q

When a burn patient begins to diurese, what will happen to urine output?

A

It will increase

347
Q

Where do we find most of our K+?

A

Inside the cell

348
Q

What happens to cells in burns

A

They rupture or lyse

349
Q

Because of cell rupture or lysing in burns, what happens to the number of K+ ions in the serum (vascular space)?

A

They increase

350
Q

Burns can lead to _________, due to an increase in the number of K+ ions in the vascular space

A

Hyperkalemia

351
Q

Why are things like Mylanta, Protonix, and Pepcid ordered for burn patients?

A

To prevent a stress ulcer (Curlings Ulcer)

352
Q

Aluminum Hydroxide Gel (Amphogel), Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesium) are examples of

A

Antacids

353
Q

Ranitidine (Zantac), Famotidine (Pepcid), Nizatidine (Axid), are all examples of

A

H2 Antagonists

354
Q

Pantoprazole (Protonix), Esomeprazole (Nexium), are examples of

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

355
Q

Why would you want to make a burn patient NPO and have an NG tube hooked to suction?

A

To avoid developing a paralytic ilius

356
Q

Causes of a paralytic ilius in burn patients include:

A

Decreased vascular volume, which leads to shunting.
Decreased GI motility during times of stress
Hyperkalemia

357
Q

Burn patients need ______ calories. They need to have lots of _______ and __________.

A

More

Protein and Vitamin C

358
Q

When would you remove an NG tube?

A

When you hear bowel sounds

359
Q

How can you ensure that a GI feeding is moving through the GI tract?

A

Check residuals (always put back in after measuring)

360
Q

What labs might you order to check proper nutrition is being achieved and a proper nitrogen balance?

A

Pre-albumin, Total protein, and Albumin

361
Q

A negative nitrogen balance indicates

A

poor nutrition

362
Q

Formally called first degree burn; damage only to epidermis

A

Superficial thickness

363
Q

formally called second degree burn; damage to entire epidermis and varying depths of the dermis

A

Partial thickness

364
Q

Formally called third degree burn; damage to entire dermis and sometimes fat

A

Full-thickness

365
Q

When hands are burned, it is important to remember to

A

wrap each finger separately.

Use splints to prevent contractures

366
Q

The number one complication with a perineal burn is ____

A

Infection

367
Q

Dead tissue in a burn is called ______

A

Eschar

368
Q

If eschar is not removed, can tissue regenerate?

A

No

369
Q

Burn patients need to be on what kind of isolation?

A

Protective Isolation

370
Q

What do enzymatic drugs do?

A

Eat dead tissue

371
Q

Sutilanis (Travase) and Collagenase (Santyl) are examples of

A

Enzymatic drugs

372
Q

Don’t use these on the face, don’t use if pregnant, don’t use over large nerves, don’t use if area is opened to a body cavity

A

Enzymatic drugs

373
Q

Biggest worry with hydrotherapy in burns

A

Cross contamination

374
Q

Soothing, apply directly, if it rubs off apply more, can lower the WBC, can cause a rash

A

Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

375
Q

Can cause acid base problems, stings, if it rubs off apply more

A

Mafenide Acetate (Sulfamylon)

376
Q

Keep these dressings wet; can cause electrolyte problems

A

Silver Nitrate

377
Q

Stings, stains, allergies, acid-base problems

A

Povidone-Iodine (Betadine)

378
Q

Why should antibiotic drugs be alternated?

A

To avoid bacteria from building resistance or tolerance

379
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics may be used until

A

the wound cultures have come back

380
Q

When giving MYCIN drugs, worry about

A

the clients BUN and creatinine. Specifically if they increase, or if the client c/o any hearing loss

381
Q

Irreversible hearing loss

A

Ototoxicity

382
Q

Can occur from mycin drugs

A

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

383
Q

A donor site may have a transparent dressing placed until bleeding stops, but otherwise the donor site can be

A

left open to air

384
Q

Donor sites for grafting can be reharvested every _______ in a well nourished client

A

12 to 14 days

385
Q

If a skin graft site should become blue or cool, what would this mean?

A

Poor circulation

386
Q

Sometime a Q-tip needs to be rolled over a graft from the middle to the edges in order to

A

get the exudate out so that the graft can adhere

387
Q

Flush a chemical burn with ______ for ________ minutes

A

H2O, 15-20 minutes

388
Q

Electrical burns have two wounds. They are _______

A

entry and exit wound. Exit wound will be worse

389
Q

First thing to do for an electrical injury

A

Place on a cardiac monitor for 24 hours due to high risk of V-fib

390
Q

With electrical burns, myoglobin and hemoglobin can build up and cause ______

A

Kidney damage

391
Q

Affects all innervation below the level of the lesion

A

Complete

392
Q

Some fibers are still intact and can communicate messages up or down the cord

A

Incomplete SCI

393
Q

Lesion affects upper extremities

A

Central cord injury

394
Q

Lose motor pain and temp. Proprioception vibration and touch remain intact

A

Anterior cord injury

395
Q

Ipsilateral loss of motion position and vibration on same side of injury. Loss of pain and temp on opposite side

A

Brown-Sequard lesion

396
Q

Keep pt aligned and down in bed away from pulley with

A

Gardner-Wells tongs

397
Q

Lesions in brain and spinal cord are called

A

Upper lesions

398
Q

Peripheral lesions are called

A

Lower motor lesions