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Skeletal Rad II > Test #4 > Flashcards

Test #4 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal bone density & structure depends on what?

A

Normally functioning bone cells in adequate numbers
Normal endocrine balance
Normal nerve & stress timulators
Adequate dietary intake, normal intestinal absorption, & urinary excretion of vit. D, Ca, & P

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2
Q

At what age approx. does bone mass begin to decline?

A

35 yrs old

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3
Q

What % of bone loss occurs per decade in males? females?

A

3%; 8%

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4
Q

How can normal progressive bone atrophy be modified?

A

Anabolic gonadal hormones
Adrenal gluco-corticoids
Diet, exercise, heredity

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5
Q

Most metabolic, endocrine & nutritional disorders are charac. radiographically by what?

A

Increased bone production (osteosclerosis)
Increased bone resorption (osteopenia)
Inadequate bone mineralization w/ equilibrium in rate of resorption & production

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6
Q

What % of bone loss is required to see loss of density on xray?

A

30%

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7
Q

How thick should the cortex be compared to the overall diameter of the midpoint of a normal bone?

A

Cortical thickness should be roughly 1/2 the overall diameter of midpoint of a given bone

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8
Q

What bone is frequently used for the cortical thickness measurement to obtain an index of bone mass?

A

2nd or 3rd metacarpal

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9
Q

Increased radiolucency of bone or poverty of bone

A

Osteopenia

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10
Q

What are the M/C causes of osteopenia?

A

Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia (increase of uncalcified osteoid)
Hyperparathyroidism
Infiltrative diseases

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11
Q

M/C causes of diminished bone density in the vertebrae

A 
Involutional osteoporosis
Steroid effect (Cushing's Syndrome)
Multiple Myeloma
Hyperparathyroidism
Leukemia
Hemoglobinopathies
Osteomalacia
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12
Q

What are the M/C causes of loss of bone density in children?

A 
Leukemia
Steroid therapy
Cushing's syndrome 
Osteogenesis imperfecta tarda
Idiopathetic juvenile osteopororsis
Still's disease
Thyrotoxicosis
Liver disease
Turner's syndrome
Paralysis
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13
Q

A skeletal condition in which the quantity of bone is decreased in amount but is normal in composition (quality). Freq. assoc. w/ structural failure

A

Osteoporosis

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14
Q

What is the M/C encountered metabolic disease of bone?

A

Osteoporosis

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15
Q

Type of osteoporosis that involves the major portion of the skeleton especially the axial components

A

Generalized osteoporosis

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16
Q

Type of osteoporosis that is confined to an area or segment of hte body i.e. a limb (Sudecks Atrophy)

A

Regional osteoporosis

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17
Q

Type of osteoporosis that is a focal loss of bone density involving a small portion of a bone. Examples include tumors & arthritis.

A

Localized osteoporosis

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18
Q

M/C causes of generalized osteoporosis

A

Senescent (senile)
Postmenopausal
(AKA Involutional osteoporosis)

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19
Q

Involutional osteoporosis (Senile/postmenopausal) may result from what?

A

Osteoblastic inactivity & excessive bone resorption
Lack of gonadal hormones necessary for osteoblastic activity
Deficiency of proteins
Inadequate diet & activity

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20
Q

What is the M/C complaint assoc. w/ generalized osteoporosis?

A

Back pain

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21
Q

What are the most freq. complications which precipitate pain & disability assoc. w/ osteoporosis?

A

Fxs of the vert. bodies, hips, wrists, ribs, pubic rami, humerus, sacrum
Decrease in height secondary to decrease in vertebral body height producing a kyphosis & spinal rigidity

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22
Q

What are lab features assoc. w/ osteoporosis?

A

Serum Ca & Alk Phos are normal

Urinary hydroxyproline levels may be elevated

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23
Q

Iatrogenic osteoporosis includes what types?

A

Heparin-induced osteoporosis
Dilantin-induced osteoporosis
Steroid-induced osteoporosis

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24
Q

What are the radiographic hallmarks of generalized osteoporosis?

A

Increased radiolucency (osteopenia)
Cortical thinning
Altered trabeculae patterns

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25
Q

What type of hormones are believed to inhibit osteoclastic activity?

A

Estrogens

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26
Q

What sign is assoc. w/ cortical thinning?

A

“Pencil thin cortex”

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27
Q

What appearance is assoc. w/ altered trabecular patterns?

A

pseudohemangiomatous appearance

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28
Q

What major group of trabeculae in the prox. femur is the major weight-bearing group & last to be obliterated in osteoporosis?

A

Principle compressive group

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29
Q

This major group of trabeculae is near the lesser trochanter, curves up & lat. towards the greater trochanter & neck

A

Secondary compressive group

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30
Q

This major group of trabeculae in the prox. femur originates from lat. cortex inf. to greater trochanter, extending in an arc-like fashion medially, terminating at the inf. portion of the femoral head.

A

Principle tensile group

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31
Q

What is formed by the confluence of the trabeculae groups in the prox. femur?

A

Ward’s triangle

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32
Q

Where is the M/C place to see fragility fxs assoc. w/ osteoporosis?

A

the spine

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33
Q

This is characterized by a loss of both ant. & pos. vert. body height. Seen rarely & should suggest a more serious etiology i.e. multiple myeloma, metastatic disease

A

Vertebral Plana (pancaked or flattened)

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34
Q

M/C presentation of fragility fxs especially in the thoracic region. Can lead to thoracic kyphosis “Dowager’s hump”

A

Wedged vertebra

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35
Q

This is central depression of the endplates producing an exagerated concavity. Pressure by the nucleus on the weakened bone. IVD space is usually normal in height.

A

Biconcave vertebra

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36
Q

Localized discal herniations through the endplates. Usually smaller & more irregular margins than those of juvenile onset.

A

Schmorl’s Nodes (Cartiliaginous nodes)

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37
Q

Schmorl’s nodes are M/C’ly seen in what spinal regions?

A

Thoracic & upper lumbars

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38
Q

What are the most freq. sites of fx deformity?

A

Pubic rami

Prox. femur

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39
Q

What sign is assoc. w/ osteoporotic pelvic fxs?

A

Honda sign

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40
Q

What are features of acute fxs assoc. w/? osteoporosis?

A

Demonstrate an increase in density beneath the endplate.
May be present up to 8-10 wks post fx
Offset at ant. cortex (abrupt & angular) “Step sign”
May see displaced paraspinal lines secondary to edema

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41
Q

What are features of healed fxs assoc. w/ osteoporosis/

A

Freq. demonstrate assoc. degenerative changes

No step sign, paraspinal edema or increased density

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42
Q

What are AKAs for regional osteoporosis?

A 
Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy Syndrome (RSDS)
Sudeck's Atrophy
Causalgia
Posttraumatic osteoporosis
Complex regional pain syndrome
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43
Q

Characterized by acute onset of painful regional osteoporosis usually following trivial antecedent trauma

A

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy Syndrome (RSDS)

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44
Q

What age & gender are M/C’ly affected by RSDS?

A

equal sex distribution after age 50

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45
Q

What are the M/C sites affected by RSDS?

A

Hands

Shoulders

46
Q

What are radiographic manifestations of RSDS?

A

Bone appears mottled secondary to accelerated bone resorption
Periarticular osteoporosis (similar to RA)
Joint spaces maintained
Not bilateral

47
Q

What are the M/C causes of RSDS?

A

Immobilization of traumatic injuries
Motor paralysis
Inflammatory lesions

48
Q

What are radiographic manifestations of RSDS?

A

Changes begin to appear after 7-10 days of immobilization
Changes are most prominent after 2-3 months
Patterns of bone loss include; uniform, spotty, bands, cortical lamination or scalloping

49
Q

This describes osteoporosis that occurs suddenly & is reversible, affecting periarticular bones & no known etiology

A

Transient regional osteoporosis

50
Q

What are 2 main disorders assoc. w/ transient regional osteoporosis?

A

Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Regional migratory osteoporosis

51
Q

Who is affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?

A

Males 20-40 & pregnant females (usually the L hip)

52
Q

What are clinical features of transient osteoporosis of the hip?

A

Sudden onset of hip pain, antalgia, & limp
Self-limiting, up to 1 year
Marked osteoporosis of the femoral head, less severe in neck & acetabulum

53
Q

What are features of regional migratory osteoporosis?

A

Males M/C affected
Usually lower extremity
Localized, regressing, migratory osteoporosis

54
Q

Condition of the skeleton characterized by the accumulation of increased amounts of uncalcified osteoid

A

Osteomalacia AKA adult rickets

55
Q

What are the main factors assoc. w/ osteomalacia?

A

Calcium, phosphorus, & Vit. D metabolism

56
Q

What disorders are assoc. w/ osteomalacia?

A

Deficiencies
Absorption disorders
Gastric bypass
Renal disorders

57
Q

What are clinical manifestations of osteomalacia?

A 
Muscular weakness & bone pain
Tenderness on palpation
Pt may demonstrate a waddling gait
Bowing deformities
Symptoms related to underlying disease
58
Q

What are lab manifestations of osteomalacia?

A

Biochemical studies are not constant
Ca & P levels typically are slightly decreased or normal
Parathormone, alkaline phosphatase & hydroxyproline are often elevated

59
Q

What are radiographic manifestations of osteomalacia?

A

Loss of bone density d/t increased amounts of uncalcified osteoid
Coarsened trabeculae pattern
Thinning & lack of cortical definition

60
Q

What 2 features differentiates osteomalacia from osteoporosis?

A

Bowing deformities

Pseudofractures

61
Q

What are types of bowing deformities assoc. w/ osteomalacia?

A

Inf. displacement of sacrum (Triradiate pelvis)
Med. displacement of acetabulum (protrusio acetabulae)
Bowing of tib/fib
Kyphoscoliosis & increased endplate concavity
Bell-shaped thorax

62
Q

What are AKAs for pseudofractures?

A

Increment fxs
Looser’s lines
Milkman syndrome
Umbau zonen

63
Q

What are features of pseudofractures assoc. w/ osteomalacia?

A

Linear radiolucenies occurring bilaterally & symmetrically

Seen on concave side of bone (Paget’s is on convex side)

64
Q

What are the M/C locations to see pseudofractures assoc. w/ osteomalacia?

A 
Axillary margin of scapula
Femoral necks & shafts
Pubis & ischial rami
Ulna
Ribs
Clavicle
65
Q

This is a systemic disease of infancy & childhood in which the calcification in growing skeletal elements is deficient

A

Rickets

66
Q

What are the 3 main causes of rickets?

A 
Vit. D deficiency rickets
Renal osteodystrophy (Renal rickets)
Renal Tubular Defect rickets (Fanconi syndrome)
67
Q

When does Vit D rickets usually develop?

A

6 months -1 year

68
Q

What are clinical manifestations of rickets?

A

Softening of skull bones
Craniotabs may be present
Frontal or parietal bossing may occur
Soft tissue swelling about the growth plates is common
Increased irritability, weakness, delayed development
Delayed closure of fontanels

69
Q

What is the name of the sign assoc. w/ rickets when ribs show enlargement at the costochondral junction?

A

Rachitic rosary

70
Q

What are lab findings assoc. w/ rickets?

A

Serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated
Serum calcium is normal to slightly decreased
Serum phosphorous is slightly decreased

71
Q

What radiographic features are unique to rickets vs. osteomalacia?

A

Widening of the physis
Absence of the zone of provisional calcification
Widened, frayed, & cupped metaphyseal margins (paint-brush metaphysis)

72
Q

AKA as Barlow’s Disease. Results from chronic deficiency of Vit. C. Found in infants fed on pasteurized or boiled milk formulas which destroys the Vit. C content

A

Scurvy

73
Q

What age group is M/C affected by scurvy?

A

6 month-2 year

74
Q

What is the clinical hallmark of scurvy?

A

Tendency towards spontaneous hemorrhage d/t capillary fragility

75
Q

What are clinical manifestations of scurvy?

A

Progressive irritability
Legs are tender & edematous (Frog position)
Subcutaneous & mucous membrane hemorrhages occur
Bulging at the costochondral junction

76
Q

Widening & increased density at the zone of provisional calcification assoc. w/ scurvy is called what?

A

White line of Frankel

77
Q

Bony protuberances which occur at the metaphyseal margins & extend at right angles to the shaft assoc. w/ scurvy. D/t ossification at the periosteal attachment

A

Pelkin spurs

78
Q

A radiolucent band located beneath the ZOPC. Separation at this point can occur leading to displacement of the epiphysis & plate. Assoc. w/ scurvy.

A

Trummerfeld zone (AKA Scorbutic zone, Zone of debris)

79
Q

Irregularity at the metaphyseal margins. Freq. occurs secondary to infractions of the metaphyseal/epiphyseal junction. Assoc. w/ scurvy

A

Corner sign

80
Q

The peripheral margins of the epiphysis appears dense while the central portion is more radiolucent. Assoc. w/ scurvy

A

Wimberger’s sign (Ring epiphysis)

81
Q

A condition in which overactivity of the parathyroid gland exists w/ a resultant increase in the levels of parathormone (PTH)

A

Hyperparathyroidism

82
Q

What are the causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A 
Parathyroid adenoma
Parathyroid hyperlplasia
Parathyroid carcinoma
Non-parathyroid tumors which produce a PTH-like substance
MENS
83
Q

Type of hyperparathyroidism that is the response of the gland to chronic hypocalcemia, usually renal glomerular disease by means of a negative feedback

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

84
Q

Type of hyperparathyroidism that is caused by lack of regulatory efforts of serum calcium following prolonged stimulation as in renal dialysis

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

85
Q

In hyperparathyroidism, absorbed bone is replaced by what?

A

Fibrous tissue (osteitis fibrosa cystica)

86
Q

In hyperparathyroidism, what is occasionally found in fibrous tissue overgrowth that replaces bone matrix?

A

Cysts & brown tumors

87
Q

What is the pathologic hallmark of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption of the outer cortex at the insertion points of ligaments & tendons

88
Q

What age/gender is M/C’ly affected by hyperparathyroidism?

A

Females 30-50 yrs of age

89
Q

What are clinical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Symptoms caused by bone disease, hypercalcemia, & renal disease

90
Q

75% of pts w/ hyperparathyroidism have what other disease?

A

Renal disease

91
Q

What lab values are only increased in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Serum Ca

Urine Ca & P

92
Q

What are major radiographic features of hyperparathyroidism?

A 
Osteopenia
Accentuated trabecular pattern
Subperiosteal bone resorption
Loss of cortical definition
Brown tumors
93
Q

What is the radiographic hallmark of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption

94
Q

Where are the earliest changes seen radiographically w/ hyperparathyroidism?

A

Radial margins of the middle & prox. phalanges of the hand (2nd & 3rd), distal clavicle, & medial aspect of the upper 1/3rd of the tibia. Also inner aspects of the inner femur & humerus

95
Q

In hyperparathyroidism, subarticular reabsorption causes widening of what joints?

A

AC joint
Symphysis pubis
SI joint

96
Q

What radiographic sign is seen in the skull w/ hyperparathyroidism?

A

Salt & pepper skull

97
Q

What sign is seen radiographically w/ hyperparathyroidism in the spine?

A

Rugger-jersey sign (M/C in secondary form)

98
Q

M/C locations for brown tumors?

A

Mandible
Pelvis
Ribs
Femors

99
Q

What is the M/C soft tissue changes in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Chondrocalcinosis

100
Q

What is the M/C soft tissue changes in secondary parahyperthyroidism?

A

Periarticular soft tissues may exhibit calcification

101
Q

Type of calcification that occurs in devitalized tissue?

A

Dystrophic calcification

102
Q

Type of calcification that occurs w/ abnormal calcium metabolism?

A

Metastatic calcification

103
Q

The result of excess pituitary somatrophic growth hormone from the eosinophilic cells of the ant. pituitary gland.

A

Acromegaly

104
Q

What is the difference b/w acromegaly & giantism?

A

Acromegaly occurs after closure of the epiphyseal plates

Giantism occurs before closure of epiphyseal plates

105
Q

What is the M/C cause of acromegaly?

A

Pituitary eosinophilic adenoma

106
Q

What is the large mandible assoc. w/ acromegaly called?

A

Lantern jaw

107
Q

What other conditions are assoc. w/ acromegaly?

A

Diabetes

Hyperthyroidism

108
Q

What skin changes are seen w/ acromegaly?

A

Increase thickness of the soft tissues of the hands & feet

Heel pad measurement >20mm

109
Q

What are radiographic signs are seen in the skull assoc. w/ acromegaly?

A

Enlargement of the sella turcica
Enlargement of the paranasal sinuses & mastoids
Thickening of the frontal bone & occiput
Enlarged mandible (lantern jaw)

110
Q

What are radiographic signs are seen in the hands & feet assoc. w/ acromegaly?

A

Terminal tufts show a “spade-like” configuration
Shafts of phalanges & metacarpals b/c widened
Generalized increase of joint space d/t cartilage overgrowth

111
Q

What are the 2 main radiographic signs seen in the spine assoc. w/ acromegaly?

A

Platyspondylia (increased dimensions of vertebra)

Pos. body scalloping

Skeletal Rad II (5 decks)

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