Test 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Why should acepromazine be avoided in pediatrics?
A
Causes hypotension and excessive CNS depression
2
Q
Why should xylazine be avoided in pediatrics? (Heart and lungs)
A
Causes cardiac and respiratory depression and sedation
3
Q
Suitable anesthetics for geriatric patients
A
Inhalant
Propofol
Alfax
Lose dose ket/val
Diazepam slow IV
Opioids slow IV
4
Q
What drug is not good for geriatric patients as it can cause hypotension and lowers the seizure threshold?
A
Acepromazine
5
Q
Which type of drug is avoided in geriatric patients as it causes bradycardia, respiratory depression, and arrhythmias?
A
Alpha-2 agonists
6
Q
What drug can lead to pathological death in geriatrics?
A
Atropine
7
Q
What kind of drug can affect the heart, lungs, kidney, and liver in geriatrics?
A
Barbiturates
8
Q
Common conditions of cardiovascular disease
A
Anemia
Shock
Heartworm
Hyperthyroidism
9
Q
Which 2 anesthetic drugs/agents can cause tachycardia in cardiovascular patients?
A
Anticholinergics
Ketamine
10
Q
Anesthetic drugs that can cause arrhythmias in cardiovascular patients (1 drug 1 inhalant)
A
Xylazine
Halothane
11
Q
What anesthetics drugs are safe for respiratory patients?
A
Acepromazine
Diazepam
Propofol
Inhalants
12
Q
Which anesthetic drugs should be used with caution in respiratory patients? (2 types and 2 drug names)
A
Opioids
Ketamine
Xylazine
Barbiturates
13
Q
What issues may hepatic patients have?
A
Hypoproteinemia
Bleeding disorders
14
Q
Which diagnostic tests in renal patients can have abnormal results?
A
Increased BUN and creatinine
Low urine SG
15
Q
Renal patients may have conditions such as: (3)
A
Anemia
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalemia
16
Q
True or false
Consider bicarbonate for treatment if hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis for renal patients
A
True
17
Q
Is xylazine a good tranquilizer for renal patients?
A
No
18
Q
What is the fluid rate for renal patients?
A
10-20ml/kg/hr
19
Q
Should you use diazepam pre med in neurological patients?
A
Yes
20
Q
C-section delivery survival rate
A
95%
21
Q
Should anesthesia remain light or deep until fetuses are removed?
A
Light
22
Q
Which 2 agents should be avoided in c-section patients?
A
Barbiturates
Ketamine IM
23
Q
Which drug will result in close to 100% fetal mortalilty? (Think seizure drug)
A
Phenobarbital
24
Q
What drugs can be put under the tongue during post natal care?
A
Doxapram
Atropine
25
What is the respiratory rate for post natal care?
10rpm and vocalizing
26
List the 4 anesthetic techniques that can be used in c-sections
General anesthesia
Regional anesthesia
Epidural anesthesia
Balanced anesthesia
27
Which anesthetic technique for c-sections uses neurolepanalgesia?
Regional anesthesia
28
Which inhalant anesthetic should be avoided in gastrointestinal patients?
Nitrous oxide
29
Detection by the nervous system tissue injury protects the animal from painful or noxious stimuli is known as:
Nociception
30
“Ouch” pain or no tissue damage is known as
Physiological pain
31
When tissue damage has occurred, acute or chronic pain is called:
Pathological pain
32
What are the 3 things that pathological pain is based on?
Mechanism
Origin
Severity of pain
33
4 steps of the pain pathway
Transduction
Transmission
Modulation
Perception
34
Transformation to stimuli into sensory electrical signs is known as:
Transduction
35
Sensory impulses conducted to spinal cord is known as:
Transmission
36
Impulses are either amplified or suppressed, known as:
Modulation
37
Impulses transmitted to the brain where they are processed and recognized, known as:
Perception
38
When a drug targets more than 2 pain receptors, what is it known as?
Multimodal analgesia
39
What are some consequences of untreated pain?
Catabolism and wasting
Immune system suppression
Inflammation and delayed wound healed
Anesthetic risk
Increased anesthesia doses
Patient suffering
40
Tissue damage and constant stimulation of nerves due to chemical release from inflammation is known as: (2)
Primary hyperalgesia
Peripheral hypersensitivity
41
Constant stimulation of spinal cord neurons, resulting in hyperexcitability and sensitivity is known as:
Secondary hyperalgesia
CNS hypersensitivity (windup)
42
What drug is an NDMA blocker and can help prevent windup from occurring?
Ketamine
43
Pain causes the release of what?
ACTH
44
Pain causes an increase in which 3 things?
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol
45
What is decreased in the presence of pain?
Insulin
46
Stimulation of pain by the CNS may result in: (heart)
Cardiac arrhythmias
47
What does pain by CNS cause? (Something with the veins)
Vasoconstriction
48
What does vasoconstriction increase the work of? And oxygen consumption of?
Myocardial
49
Changes in gait and level of activity can be evident of what?
Arthritic pain
50
Reluctant of laying down or constantly shifting position is evident of what?
Thoracic or abdominal pain
51
What pain assessment tool is very subjective, easy, and quick to use, but difficult to compare improvement over time?
Verbal rating and simple descriptive scales
52
Which pain assessment tool is much easier to compare and total parameters added for an overall numerical score?
Numeric rating scales
53
What pain assessment tool is subjective and not very reliable when change of assessor?
Visual analogue scales
54
What pain assessment tool provides a more comprehensive assessment of an individual animals pain?
Comprehensive scales
55
What 3 things does the choice of drugs for analgesia therapy depend on? (Pertains to patient)
Type and severity of pain
Patients general condition
Route of delivery
56
What may dogs experience while on morphine?
Miosis and hypothermia
57
What may cats experience while on morphine?
Mydriasis and hyperthermia
58
What does morphine do to cats and horses?
Causes excitement and dysphoria
59
What opioid has greater analgesic potency and sedative effect than morphine and fewer tendencies to induce vomiting and can use with a tranquilizer?
Oxymorphone
60
What opioid has less potency but similar duration of affect compared with oxymorphone, is less expensive, and used as a pre-medication alone or with a tranquilizer?
Hydromorphone
61
What opioid has similar characteristics to oxy and hydro, is least likely to cause vomiting in cats and dogs, and is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor?
Methadone
62
What opioid is one of the most potent analgesic known, rapid on onset and short duration of affect when given IV?
Fentanyl
63
What opioid has a wide margin of safety, can be used with a tranquilizer, and provides effective Neuroleptanalgesia in puppies? Is also a pure agonist
Merperidine/pethidine
64
Which opioid has agonist and antagonist properties, can be used to reverse morphine and fentanyl, is not as effective analgesia, and produces dysphoria?
Butorphanol
65
Which opioid is a MU agonist that produces some analgesia, provides post-op analgesia to dogs and cats, and is used to reverse the effects of morphine and fentanyl? (B)
Buprenorphine
66
What opioid is a weak analgesia and sedative, is used as a reversal agent for opioid agonists, and has fewer adverse side effects?
Nalbuphine
67
Do opioids usually have a short duration of action?
Yes
68
Where do you give opioid epidurals?
Lumbosacral junction
69
What is the most common drug for epidurals?
Morphine
70
It is important to flip patients who have epidurals every 2-4hrs to prevent what?
Pulmonary atelectasis and prolonged pressure
71
What is the onset of action for epidurals?
20-60mins
72
What is the duration of action for epidurals?
6-24hrs
73
Delay of action in cats
4-12hrs
74
Delay of action in dogs
12-24hrs
75
How long before surgery should you apply a transdermal patch?
6-12hrs prior to
76
What type of NSAID has limited use in small animals, is used in horses for sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia? (AADR)
Alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist
77
Which drug would you take out of MLK for cats with low tolerance?
Lidocaine
78
Which drug blocks NMDA at the spinal cord, preventing windup?
Ketamine
79
Which kind of drug is used for its strong anti/inflammatory properties, decreased prostaglandin activity (NSAID), and is primarily associated with chronic use and cushings disease?
Corticosteroid
80
What drug is NOT an opioid with activity at the MU receptor, inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine, and serotonin?
Tramadol
81
Which type of drug has no analgesic properties, but helps reduce anxiety and excitement, and is sometimes used in cats and horses with opioids?
Tranquilizers
82
Which 2 drugs are given PO for moderate to severe pain in dogs?
Acetaminophen and codeine
83
Which 2 drugs are given to cats at the same time to provide analgesia until the transdermal patch take effect?
Fentanyl and meloxicam
84
Which 2 drugs are given at the end off surgery, followed by an oral NSAID for 3 days?
Morphine and an injectable NSAID (meloxicam or carprophen)
85
Which 3 drugs are given in IV fluids during surgery, that decrease the amount of anesthetic inhalant needed? (Abbreviation)
MLK
Morphine
Lidocaine
Ketamine
86
What drug is ineffective at less than 2 weeks old?
Atropine
87
Pediatric patients should not be fasted because of their tendency to develop ? because of their decreased ? ?
Hypoglycemia
Glycogen reserves
88
Are normal muscle cells polarized or depolarized at rest?
Polarized
89
The attachment of ? Causes the muscle to depolarize
Acetylcholine
90
What enzyme degrades acetylcholine? Freeing the receptors on the muscle cells
Acetylcholinesterase
91
What are the 2 muscle paralyzing agents?
Depolarizing and non-depolarizing
92
Are depolarizing types of muscle paralyzing agents reversible?
Yes
93
How do depolarizing muscle agents work?
Occupy receptors mimicking acetylcholine
94
Give an example of a depolarizing type of muscle paralyzing agent
Succinyl choline
95
During depolarizing muscle agents, can acetylcholinesterase degrade the mimic of the neurotransmitter?
No
96
Give an example of a non-depolarizing muscle paralyzing agent
Gallamine
97
What can reverse a non-depolarizing muscle agent?
Neostigmine
98
How does neostigmine reverse a non-depolarizing muscle paralyzing agent?
Blocks acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine levels to rise, eventually stimulating muscle contractions
99
Non-depolarizing agents ? acetylcholine receptors but does not trigger them
Blocks
100
Do muscle contract for non-depolarizing agents?
No
101
Neostigmine can cause bradycardia and arrhythmias, what can be given to avoid these side effects?
Atropine
102
Give examples for when you would use a muscle paralyzing agent
Ventilating an animal that is still breathing
Treating coxofemoral luxation
Orthopedic surgeries
Part of balanced anesthesia for c-sections
103
List the 4 contraindications of muscle paralyzing agents (treatments)
Sick animals
Recent aminoglycoside antibiotic treatment
Recent organophosphates treatment (past week)
Potassium or calcium imbalances
104
What happens if you give a muscle paralyzing agent when the animal has potassium or calcium imbalances? (Interfere)
Can interfere with normal muscle transmission
Eclampsia
105
Balanced anesthesia uses a combination of agents for what 3 things?
Analgesia
Anesthesia
Muscle paralysis
106
List 3 advantages of balanced anesthesia
Agents have synergistic effects
Allows for lower dosages to be used
Less side effects
107
What is the main disadvantage of balanced anesthesia?
Need to understand all of the drugs and their different interactions
108
Age of pediatric patients
Less than 2 months
109
Age of infant patients
2-7 weeks
110
Age of neonate patients
Less than 2 weeks
111
List the 4 common procedures performed on pediatric patients
Breed standards
Intussusception and foreign body removals
Fracture repairs
Correction of life-threatening congenital defects
112
Is cardiac output closely related to heart rate for pediatric patients?
Yes
113
Pediatrics have ? alveolar area and ? alveolar surfactant which ? oxygen requirements and do not tolerate ?
Less alveolar area
Less alveolar surfactant
Increases oxygen requirements
Do not tolerate hypoxia
