Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What are the shaving limits for a femoral repair?
A
From the dorsal midline to just above the tarsus
2
Q
5 thing you don’t want to cut when doing an orthopedic surgery?
A
Muscles, tendons, nerves, arteries, or veins
3
Q
The pin chuck is used to push a pin into the bone marrow, starting at the trochanteric fossa and going down the marrow cavity past the fracture, and is advanced until the end of the pin lodged in the epiphysis of the bone, just above the stifle
A
Normo-grade pinning
4
Q
The pin is inserted at the fracture and advanced into the proximal portion of the bone, through the bone marrow cavity until the pin protrudes out of the top of the femur. The pin is pushed through the skin
A
Retrograde pinning
5
Q
Define osteomyelitis
A
Infection of the bone marrow cavity
6
Q
What is the first step to the surgical approach for femoral intramedullary pinning?
A
Incise through the stockinette or opsite and skin
7
Q
What is the second step to the surgical approach for femoral intramedullary pinning?
A
Incise the fascia
8
Q
What is the third step to the surgical approach for femoral intramedullary pinning? (Locate the 2 muscle names)
A
Locate the vastus lateralis and bicep femoris
9
Q
How long should orthopedic patients be bed rested after surgery?
A
7 days post op
10
Q
Give the 3 other names for the rongeur instrument
A
Chicken bill, Ruskin, and lempert
11
Q
What does the rongeur instrument do?
A
Used to break up and remove bone
12
Q
What type of bone break is the rongeur instrument for?
A
Fractures
13
Q
Give 3 other names for the bone-holding forceps
A
Kern, lane, and Richards
14
Q
What are bone holding forceps used for?
A
Used to hold bone while pinning
15
Q
What kind of head do bone holding forceps have?
A
Strong gripping teeth
16
Q
What is the ratchet on bone holding forceps used for?
A
To manipulate bone fractures to reduction
17
Q
What is the other name for bone cutting forceps?
A
Liston
18
Q
What are bone cutting forceps used for?
A
Used to cut large pieces of bone
19
Q
What are the verbrugge and reduction forceps used for?
A
Can hold bone fragments in reduction while inserting fixators (screws)
20
Q
What is OCD?
A
Osteochondritis dissecans
21
Q
What are bone curets used for?
A
Scooping out pieces of bone
22
Q
What are bone curets commonly used for?
A
To scrape out OCD lesions
23
Q
What are rake muscle retractors used for?
A
Used to hold muscle tissue out of the way
24
Q
What are the weitlaner muscle retractors used for?
A
Used to retract muscle
25
What is the other name for the intramedullary pin chuck?
Jacobs chuck
26
What is the intramedullary pin chuck used for?
Used to advance intramedullary pin until the marrow cavity
27
What is the intramedullary pin chuck used in combination with?
An electrical drill
28
What are intramedullary pin cutters used for?
Used to shorten intramedullary pins and kirschner wires
29
What does apposition mean?
The increase in the diameter of bones by the addition of bony tissue at the surface of bones
30
What are intramedullary pins used for?
Used to stabilize fractures
31
What is another name for kirschner wires?
Cerclage wires
32
What are kirschner wires used for?
Used to help stabilize fracture sites
33
When are bone plates and screws used?
Used in more complicated fractures
34
What are wire twisters used for?
Used to twist cerclage wires
35
What are bone rasps used for?
Used to smooth rough edges of bone
36
What are periosteal elevators used for?
Used to remove muscle from bone by releasing the periosteum
37
What are osteotomes used for?
Used to cut through bone
38
What are bone mallets used for?
Used to strike an osteotome or any other instrument that needs to be pounded during surgery
39
What does PROM mean?
Passive range of motion
40
What are some types of physical therapy?
PROM, cryotherapy, heat therapy, hydro therapy, magnets, electrical stimulation
41
What is physical therapy most commonly used for?
Orthopedic, neurological, post-op, and wound care
42
Who can perform a declaw?
Veterinarians
43
Name the two palmar aspects of the paw that get nerve blocks during declaws?
Medial and laterally
44
Where is the medial nerve block given for declaws?
Medial to the superficial digital flexor tendon
45
Where is the lateral nerve block given for declaws?
Lateral to the superficial digital flexor tendon
46
How much nerve block is given into lateral and medial sites for declaws?
0.10-0.15ml
47
Where are the the locations for the dorsal aspect nerve block for a declaw? (2)
Just distal to the carpus
Between metacarpal 1 and 2
48
How much nerve block do you give distal to the carpus from lateral to medial?
0.20ml
49
How much nerve block do you give between metacarpal 1 and 2?
0.10ml
50
What do you do with the blood in the arm when you place 2 tourniquets for declaws?
Milk it
51
How long can you have 2 tourniquets on the cats are for a declaw?
Max 20 mins
52
Name the first method for declaws
Guillotine method
53
Name the 2nd declaw method
Scalpel/dissection method
54
What is the last declaw method?
Laser method
55
What are the 3 methods when closing declaws
Sutures, glue, or leave it open
56
What kind of paw bandage is applied after a declaw?
Pressure bandage
57
What kind of litter should the cat be using after a declaw?
Shredded paper or pellets
58
What is the most common issue after a declaw?
Hemorrhage
59
Define thrombosis
The presence of a fibrin clot in vessels
60
What is the 2nd most common issue after a declaw?
Leg/paw swelling
61
Why would there be swelling after a declaw?
Circulatory issues or tourniquets on for more than 20 minutes
62
Name 3 more complications of declaws
Infection, pain, osteomyelitis
63
What kind of drug can be used for phantom limb?
Gabapentin
64
How can claws grow back?
If a portion of p3 is left in the surgery site
65
When would osteomyelitis occur?
If p2 is damaged during the procedure
66
List 5 alternatives to declaws
Scratching post, trimming nails, nail caps, behavioural techniques, tenotomy
67
What is a tenotomy?
Disables the cat from being able to extend or retract the nails, tendons are cut
68
When are dewclaw removals ideally performed?
Within the first week of life, 3-5 days old
69
What are 2 reasons dewclaw removals are performed?
Prevent damage later in life (caught or torn) and to conform to breed specifications
70
How are dewclaw removals closed?
Absorbable suture, skin glue, or leave open to heal by 2nd intention
71
Which parts are removed during a mature dog dewclaw removal? (P’s)
P1 to P3
72
What needs to happen when doing a dewclaw removal on mature dogs to prevent hemorrhaging?
Ligation of an artery is often necessary to prevent hemorrhaging
73
Give 4 reasons why c-sections are performed
Breed related dystocia, uterine inertia issues, maternal problem, and fetal problems
74
List 3 reasons to avoid C-sections
Maternal anesthetic problems, anesthetic problems for the puppies, and potential for bitch to fail to bond to offspring
75
How many layers is the uterus closed in?
2 layers
76
List 3 things you can do when a neonates resp rate is low (<10rpm)
Supply oxygen, acupuncture point, or doxapram under the tongue
77
List 3 things you can do when a neonates heart rate is low
Atropine under the tongue, compressions, epinephrine, place an IV or IO catheter to give dextrose
78
What is a puppies normal heart rate?
70-120bpm
79
What is a puppies normal resp rate?
15-40rpm
80
What is a puppies normal temperature?
38.0-39.0°C
81
List 3 reasons for doing a cystotomy
Remove bladder stones, check for chronic cystitis, and repair ruptured bladder
82
What are 3 aftercare ideas after a cystotomy?
Special diet, antibiotics, and stones should be analyzed
83
Where is the usual location where intervertebral disc disease occurs?
Mid-cervical, L1 or L2
84
Clinical signs of intervertebral disc disease
Won’t climb stairs or lower head, in pain, ataxia, lack of proprioception, paralysis, loss of sensation
85
Non-surgical treatments for intervertebral disc disease (4-3 drugs)
Rest, diazepam, corticosteroids, NSAIDS
86
What is a laminectomy? (Spine surgery)
Remove part of the vertebrae at the affected area, expose the spinal cord and take the prolapsed disc out, and put the bone back
87
What is fenestration? (Spine)
Remove diseased discs before they rupture completely
88
How many ligaments does the stifle joint rely on?
7 ligaments
89
What are the most common reasons for CCL repairs? (2)
Sudden movement or fall in overweight animals
90
What is it called when you can move the tibia back and forth?
Anterior drawer movement
91
Do small animals always need a CCL surgery when it’s injured?
No, cage rest may repaid it itself
92
What is a common complication of CCL repairs?
Arthritis
93
List 3 crucial ligament repair options
Extracapsular suture stabilization, intracapsular stabilization, or TPLO
94
What is a TPLO?
Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy
95
List the 3 CCL post-op care
NSAIDS, bandaging, and physical therapy
96
What is a femoral head osteotomy also known as?
Femoral head excision
97
What does a femoral head osteotomy involve?
Removal of the head and neck of the femur
98
Why is femoral head osteotomy surgery done?
Treat a fracture of the femoral head, treat a luxated hip that can’t be reduced, and to relieve arthritic pain from severe hip dysplasia
99
What are other treatments for hip dysplasia? (3 substances)
Omega fatty acids, cartrophen, and NSAIDS
100
Define a pecinectomy
The pectineus muscle is severed, which temporarily reliefs pain
101
What are you changing when you perform a triple osteotomy?
Changing the configuration of the hip joint
102
When must a triple osteotomy be done?
Before arthritic changes are present
103
What are the 2 approaches to a thoracotomy?
Sternotomy or through the ribs
104
Why are thoracotomies done?
Perform internal compressions, repair congenital heart defects, treat lung lobe torsions, treat chest abscesses, and cardiovascular studies in researcg
105
What is IPPV?
Intermittent positive pressure ventilation
106
Typical appearance of abscesses
Blood and pus, swelling, alopecia, usually febrile
107
Early abscess treatments
Shave around the wound, hot packs, antibiotics, anti-inflammatories, possibly drains
108
Late abscess treatment options
Shave widely, lance, flush, place drain, antibiotics, anti-inflammatories
109
Things to consider with abscesses
If still intact and tested for FIV/FLV
110
Abscess home care options
Flush with betadine along drain, give antibiotics, and hot pack or soak if difficult to drain
111
What is common after suturing a laceration?
Dehiscence
112
When is the most common times to get a vaginal prolapse?
Estrus or proesterus
113
When do vaginal prolapses rarely happen?
During parturition
114
How is type 1 vaginal prolapse found?
Only on vaginal palpation
115
What is 1 characteristic of type 1 vaginal prolapse? (Tissue)
Tissue is smooth and shiny on exam
116
What is type 2 vaginal prolapse?
Protrudes from the vulva, only 1cm of the vaginal floor is affected, cranial to the urethral orfice
117
What may the tissue look like with a type 2 vaginal prolapse?
Tissue may be dry/wrinkled, or cracked/ulcerated due to exposure
118
How common is type 3 vaginal prolapse?
Not common, rare
119
What protrudes when there is a type 3 vaginal prolapse?
The entire circumference of the vagina
120
Tests to differentiate prolapse from neoplasia
FNA or other cytology
121
Ways to protect vaginal tissue from trauma or infection from prolapse (4)
E-collar, soft bedding, topical antibiotic or steroid
122
How long until vaginal prolapse resolves?
5-7 days
123
Why might a young animal have rectal prolapse?
Colitis or enteritis
124
What do you do if a rectal prolapse happens again
Place purse string suture in anus for 1-3 days
125
How do you prevent rectal prolapses?
Prevent straining
126
What happens if normal rectal prolapse treatment doesn’t work?
Surgical correction and resection of the affected rectum
127
What are biomedical lasers used for?
To cut or destroy tissue
128
Advantages to biomedical lasers
Provides hemostasis while cutting and less post-op swelling and pain than with a scalpel
129
Define what a hernia is
Protrusion of an organ or fat from out of its normal location in the abdomen, through a defect in the body wall
130
What types of hernias are there? (2)
Congenital or acquired
131
Types of hernias most common in domestic animals (7)
Umbilical, inguinal, scrotal, diaphragmatic, perineal, incisional, or traumatic
132
What are the contents in an umbilical hernia?
Usually fat or omentum
133
What gender are inguinal hernias usually seen in?
Male
134
How are diaphragmatic hernias recognized?
Dyspnea
135
What is the treatment for diaphragmatic hernias?
Usually by lines alba approach, pull back abdominal contents and suture the diaphragm
136
What contents are protruding in a perineal hernia?
Abdominal contents, bladder, go through muscles adjacent to the base of the tail
137
What happens if a hernia is left unrepaired?
Loop of bowel or bladder may go through the body wall into the hernial sac and become trapped
138
What kind of suture pattern is often used to repair hernais?
Vest over pants pattern
139
Reasons for c-sections in livestock
Calf too large or cow too small, incorrect position, twins tangled up, uterine torsion, fetal monster, or failure to progress
140
What drugs are usually given for livestock c-section sedation?
Xylazine or Acepromazine
141
What section is blocked during livestock c-sections?
Paralumbar fossa
142
How long is the incision when doing livestock c-section?
18 inches, through all 3 layers
143
What kind of suture pattern is used on the skin for a livestock C-section?
Ford interlocking
144
What is a rumenotomy?
Incision into the rumen
145
3 reasons for doing a rumenotomy
Hardware disease, grain overload, or removal of other foreign objects
146
What are the 3 types of blocks used for rumenotomys?
Inverted L, line block, or paravertebral block
147
What is LDA?
Left displaced abomasum
148
What is RDA?
Right displaced abomasum
149
Detection of LDA
Decreased appetite, reduced milk production, cow feels sick, can auscultate a ping due to gas build up
150
What is another method to repairing LDA/RDA?
Toggle method, repair is done blindly
151
List some causes for equine colic
Obstructions, displaced organs, torsions, poor circulation, parasites, change in feed
152
Colic appearances
Restless, anxious, kicking at flank, shocky (increased CRT, congested MM)
153
What does it mean if a horse has a HR of 40?
Ok, just leave it for now
154
What does it mean if a horse has a HR of 40-80?
Painful, but wait
155
What does it mean if a horse has a HR of 80+?
Do surgery!
156
What meds do you try first to treat colic?
Banamine or NSAIDs
157
What are 3 other treatment options to colic?
Pass a nasogastric tube, rectal check for impaction, or abdominocentesis
158
What can you give if a horse is impacted from colic?
Mineral oil by mouth
159
What analgesics may be given for colic surgery? (5)
Banamine, xylazine, detomidine, Demerol, or phenylbutazone
160
List some post-op complications after colic surgery
Dehiscence, stormy recovery, diarrhea, myositis, laminitis, ileus, recurrence of colic, nerve damage
161
What is ileus?
Intestines aren’t moving
162
Reasons for castration in horses
Behaviour is more controllable
163
What kind of drugs do you use for in field castrations? Give 2 examples
Short-acting IV meds such as ketamine or xylazine
164
How do you do a cryptorchid horse castration?
Local anesthetic and analgesics or GA
165
What is the difference of an open vs closed castration?
Open - take the testicle out of the vaginal tunic
Closed - leave the testicle in the tunic
166
Is an open or close castration more common?
Closed
167
List 4 post-op castration issues in horses
Infection, flies, herniation and dehiscence, and swelling
168
What is caslicks surgery?
Air aspirated through the horses vulva (wind sucking)
169
What may air in the horse vagina be predisposed to?
Vaginitis and infertility
170
How do you perform caslicks surgery?
Suture the dorsal vulvar lips together, leaving a small hole for urination
171
How much 2% lidocaine is given along the muco junction of the labia when going caslicks surgery?
15-20ml
172
What is another word for roaring?
Ventriculectomy
173
What is roaring?
Paralysis of laryngeal cartilages, they don’t pull out of the way when the horse breathes
174
Which side does roaring usually happen?
Left side
175
How can you observe roaring?
Endoscopy
176
What can occur if you accidentally give a perivascular injection to a horse?
Thrombosis and phlebitis
177
Name the surgeries done when the horse is in dorsal recumbency
All abdominal surgery, laryngeal ventriculectomy, castration, arthroscopies, neurectomy
178
Name the surgeries done when the horse is in lateral recumbency
Eye surgery, tooth extraction, mandible fracture repair, laryngotomy, arthroscopy, periosteal strips, splint fracture removal, neurectomy, condyle fracture repair
179
What is the minimum scrubbing time for an equine surgery?
7 minutes minimum
180
What 2 equine surgeries do you not use final prep for?
Castrations and eye surgery
181
Which lateral recumbency is more preferred in horses?
Left lateral is preferred to right
182
When is the ET tube pulled during assisted recoveries in horses?
When the horse swallows
183
When is the ET tube pulled during unassisted recoveries in horses?
Once the horse is standing
184
What is electrosurgery (cautery) used for?
Cut or coagulate tissue to minimize bleeding
185
What are the 2 types of electrosurgery?
Monopolar and bipolar
186
How does monopolar electrosurgery work?
Current passes from handpiece, through patient, to metal ground plate under the patient
187
How does bipolar electrosurgery work?
Current passes between 2 tips in the handpiece that are used to grasp tissue
