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Biology 211 > Test 3 Vocab > Flashcards

Test 3 Vocab Flashcards

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1
Q

genome

A

all the DNA in a cell

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2
Q

chromatin

A

an uncondensed (less condensed) complex of DNA + protein (histones)

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3
Q

gene

A

unit of information that specifies an organism’s inherited traits

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4
Q

chromosomes

A

consist of condensed chromatin

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5
Q

replicated (duplicated) chromosome

A

consists of two sister chromatids

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6
Q

sister chromatid

A

joined copies of the original chromosome (one half of a replicated chromosome)

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7
Q

centromere

A

specific DNA sequence where chromatids are attached most closely to one another by protein structure known as kinetrochore

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8
Q

unreplicated chromosome

A

used once sister chromatids have separated

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9
Q

somatic cells

A

nonreproductive cells, have two sets of chromosomes

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10
Q

chromosomes in human cell

A

2 sets of 23 chromosomes, one from each parent, equaling 46

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11
Q

gametes

A

reproductive cells (sperm and eggs), have half as many chromosomes as somatic cells

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12
Q

chromatin

A

loosely coiled form of DNA found in the nucleus; normal state of DNA when cell is not dividing

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13
Q

G1 phase

A

cell grows and does normal cell functions

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14
Q

S phase

A

cell copies its DNA (chromosomes) in preperation for cell division; each duplicated chromosome has two sister chromatids

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15
Q

G2 phase

A

cell keeps growing, produces more organelles in anticipations of cell division

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16
Q

mitosis

A

division of the nucleus and all nuclear material (including DNA); stages: prophase (including prometaphase), metaphase, anaphase, telophase

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17
Q

prophase

A

chromatin strands tightly coil (condense) into chromosomes (visible with microscope); nuceoli disappear; nuclear membrane begins disintegrating; mitotic spindle forms (consists of two pairs of centrioles, microtubule spindle fibers extend from each and begin to attach to kinetochores, asters also extend away from centrioles)

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18
Q

asters

A

small microtubule fibers that “star” out from the centrioles

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19
Q

metaphase

A

longest stage of mitosis; centrosomes have now moved to opposite poles; spindle fibers have aligned chromosomes along the center axis (metaphase plate/equator) of the cell

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20
Q

anaphase

A

shortest phase; cohesion proteins holding each pair of sister chromatids together are cut, freeing sister chromatids, now separate chromosomes; spindle fibers attached to kinetochores shorten pulling sister chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell

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21
Q

telophase

A

each pole of cell now has identical collections of chromosomes; new nuclear membranes begin to reform around each set of chromosomes; nucleolus reforms in each new nucleus; chromosomes decondense spindle breaks down

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22
Q

cytokinesis

A

division of cytoplasm; usually begins while telophase is finishing;
•Animals-involes a righ of actin micropilaments which serve as a “drawstring” that pinches the cell around the middle to from a cleavage furrow; divides cells into 2 cells each containing its own nucleus, cytoplasm, and organelles
•Plants-involves formation of a cell plate

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23
Q

cleavage furrow

A

shallow groove in cell surface

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24
Q

cell plate

A

material for a new cell wall is laid down between two poles of the cell

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25
Q

control checkpoints

A

where the cell halts the cell cycle and evaluates conditions to decide if the cycle should continue; allows cell to determine if the proper prerequisite activities have occurred to ensure that the remainder of the cell cycle will proceed normally

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26
Q

G0 phase

A

cells that abort its plans to divide and enters a nondividing state; some cells can actually be called back to divide when the right growth factors are present. IE liver cells

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27
Q

G1-S checkpoint

A

near the end of G1, ensures the cell has necessary growth factors, nutrients, and enzymes to synthesize DNA

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28
Q

G2-M checkpoint

A

at the end of G2, ensures that DNA replication is finished before cell begins mitosis

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29
Q

kinases

A

are enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by phosphorylating them

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30
Q

cyclin

A

protein that cyclically fluctuates concentrations in the cell, binds to kinases and activates it

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31
Q

metaphase-anaphase checkpoints

A

at the end of metaphase, prevents anaphase until all kinetochores are properly attached to spindle fibers along the cell’s midplane

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32
Q

faulty checkpoints

A

cells with “faulty” checkpoint quality control allow defective cells to divide and propagate

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33
Q

tumor

A

a mass of abnormal cells within otherwise normal tissue

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34
Q

benign tumor

A

does not spread to other body tissues

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35
Q

malignant tumor

A

(cancerous tumor): able to migrate from its original site to other body tissues and organs, where it often impairs functions

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36
Q

matastasis

A

when cancer cells break away from the tumor and travel to distant body location

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37
Q

cancer cells

A

uncontrolled growth (mitosis) of abnormal (malignant) cells

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38
Q

heredity

A

(inheritance); transmission of traits from one generation to the next

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39
Q

genes

A

discrete regions of DNA code on a chromosome that contain instructions to build proteins that confer specific traits

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40
Q

alleles

A

variants of a particular kind of gene

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41
Q

mutations

A

are changes in a organism;s DNA

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42
Q

locus

A

the specific spot on a chromosome where a specific gene is located

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43
Q

asexual reproduction

A

one parent passes copies

of all its gens to offspring without fusion of gametes; mitosis in eukaryotes and binary fission in prokaryotes

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44
Q

sexual reproduction

A

usually involves, two parents which give rise to genetically unique offspring, regardless of DNA mutations

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45
Q

zygote

A

created during sexual reproduction; completed by two cells (gametes) which fuse together to form a single cell

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46
Q

fertilization

A

union of gamets (fusion of nuclei); results in diploid cell called a zygote

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47
Q

diploid

A

(2n): two sets of chromosomes; parental cells have two of every kind of chromosome (one is maternal and the other paternal in origin)-use the expression 2n denote the two of every kind of chromosom

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48
Q

haploid

A

(n); one set (half the number) of chromosomes; condition when a cell has only one of each kind of chromosome; in human cells this is only found in gamete cells

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49
Q

autosomes

A

most chromosomes contain information that does not determine gender

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50
Q

sex chromosomes

A

a couple chromosomes (X and Y) contain information that determines gender; female XX and mail XY

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51
Q

karyotypes

A

visual display of condensed chromosomes arranged in homologous pairs

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52
Q

homologous chromosomes (homologs)

A

matching chromosomes (one from each parent) that carry genes for the same types of traits

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53
Q

meiosis I

A

primary function of meiosis I is to do crossing over and separate homologs from each other thus, reduce chromosome number from dipoid to haploid

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54
Q

prophase I

A

nuclear membrane disintegrates; chromatin condenses into chromosomes; spindle form and connects to chromosomes; synapsis and crossing over occur

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55
Q

synapsis

A

homologous chromosomes pair up and are connected together through a special protein structure called the synaptonemal complex

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56
Q

crossing over

A

homologous chromosomes exchange equivalent peices of their chromosome arms containing alleles; crucial step that allows chromosomes to acquire new combinations; recombinant chromosomes

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57
Q

recombinant chromosomes

A

chromosomes that carry genes (DNA) derived from two different parents

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58
Q

metaphase I

A

homologous pairs line up on the mataphase plate randomly (independent assortment)

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59
Q

independent assortment

A

is how one pair lines up has no influence on how the other chromosomes (with their alleles) line up; helps create new daughter cells with varied collections of chromosomes (and alleles)

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60
Q

anaphase I

A

homologous pairs are separated from each other and moved to opposite poles; each pole must receive one chromosome from each homologous pair (remember each chromosome also has a sister chromatid still attached to the kinetochore in the centromere regaion

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61
Q

telophase I and cytokinesis

A

two cells form, each containing a haploid number of chromosomes; cytokinesis proceeds similarly as described in mitosis; chromosomes may or may not decondense and nuclear membrane may or may not reform; ther eis no duplication of chromosomes

62
Q

meiosis II

A

primary purpose of meiosis II is to separate sister chromatids from each other

63
Q

prophase II

A

chromosomes fully condense; nuclear membrane disappears (if it did reform after telephase I); spindle finbers conncect to kinetochores on individual sister chromatids

64
Q

metaphase II

A

chromosomes line up at metaphase plate

65
Q

anaphase II

A

sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell (at this point, they are called daughter chromosomes (unduplicated chromosomes))

66
Q

telophase II and cytokinsis

A

chromosomes decondense and nuclear membrane reforms; cytokinesis proceeds to divide cytoplasm into two new cells; since meiosis I produced two daughter cells which proceeded into meiosis II, at the end of meiosis II we produce a total of 4 haploid, genetically unigue cells

67
Q

nondisjunction

A

either pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids do no separate normally during meiosis

68
Q

aneuploidy

A

is the result from the fertilization of gamets in which nondisjunction occurred

69
Q

down syndrome

A

is an aneuploidy condition that results from three copies of chromosome 21

70
Q

genetics

A

the study of heredity

71
Q

phenotype

A

physical appearance; description of a characteristic/trait

72
Q

genotype

A

genetic makup; listing of 2 alleles one from each parent; capital letter for dominant and lower case for recessive

73
Q

dominant

A

masks or cover up the presence of other alleles; is fully expressed in the phenotype of heterozygote (AKA what we “see”)

74
Q

recessive

A

alleles that are masked; are hidden, we don’t “see” their effect on organism’s phenotype in heterozygote

75
Q

homozygous

A

organism with two identical alleles for a trait; homozygous dominant (PP) or homozygoud recessive (pp)

76
Q

heterozygous

A

organism that has two different alleles for a gene

77
Q

true-breeding

A

organisms that produce offspring of the same variety over many generations when they self fertilize

78
Q

self fertilize

A

fertilization within the same organism

79
Q

cross fertilization

A

fertilization between different plants

80
Q

hybridization

A

is a mating (crossing) of 2 contrastion true-breeding varieties

81
Q

P (parental) generation

A

the true-breeding parents

82
Q

F1 (filial) generation

A

the hybrid offspring (Pp) of the P generation

83
Q

F2 generation

A

the offspring that results when the hybrid offspring of the F1 generation either self polinate or cross-pollinate with other F1 hybrids

84
Q

punnett square

A

a diagram for predicting the results of a genetic cross between individuals of known genetic makeup

85
Q

testcross

A

breeding the unknown individual with a homozygous recessive individual

86
Q

law of segregations

A

the two alleles of a gene segregate during meiosis and each gamete carries only one allele of each pair

87
Q

law of independent assortment

A

each pair of alleles segregates independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation

88
Q

single factor cross

A

are concerned when a single genetic trait is passed from parents to an offspring

89
Q

monohybrid crosses

A

a cross between two organisms that are heterzygous for one gene (trait) being followed

90
Q

double factor cross

A

when two pairs of alleles (traits) are gollewed from the parental generation to the offspring

91
Q

dyhybrid crosses

A

a cross between two organisms that are each heterosygous for two genes being followed

92
Q

multiplication rule

A

the probability that two or more independent events will occur together is the product of their individual probabilities

93
Q

addition rule

A

probability that any one of two or more exclusive events will occur is calculated by adding together their individual probabilities

94
Q

Complete dominance:

A

occurs when phenotypes of the heterozygote and dominant homozygote are identical

95
Q

Incomplete Dominance

A

occurs when the allele of neither parent is fully expressed in the heterozygote and the offspring’s phenotype is intermediate between that of the two
homozygous parents

96
Q

Codominance

A

When the phenotypes of both alleles of a gene are exhibited in the heterozygote

97
Q

Multiple Alleles

A

When 3 or more alleles for a given locus (a gene) exists in a given population

98
Q

Pleiotropy

A

Ability of a single gene to have multiple affects on several phenotypic characteristics

99
Q

Epistasis

A

a gene at one locus alters the phenotypic expression of a gene at a second locus

100
Q

Polygenic Inheritance

A

alleles at several loci affect a single phenotypic trait expression

101
Q

Pedigree

A

is a chart that shows how a trait and the genes that control it are inherited within a family

102
Q

Carrier

A

an individual who carries a recessive trait that is not expressed; heterozygous individuals who carry the recessive allele but are phenotypically normal

103
Q

Autosomal Recessive

Conditions

A

Recessively inherited conditions show up only in individuals homozygous for the allele

104
Q

Autosomal Recessive

Disorders

A

Genetic Disorder: allele change that would affect the ability of a person to survive under normal circumstances and without treatment

105
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A

a dysfunctional enzyme causes an accumulation of lipids in the brain

106
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

allele results in defective or absent chloride transport channels in plasma membranes

107
Q

Sickle-cell disease

A

caused by the substitution of a single amino acid in the

hemoglobin protein in red blood cells

108
Q

Autosomal Dominant Conditions & Disorders

A

Genetic Disorder: a dominant allele that would affect the ability of a person to survive under normal circumstances and without treatment; Condition can survive

109
Q

Polydactyly

A

conditions where an individual has more than 5 fingers or toes per hand or foot

110
Q

Progeria (Hutchinson)

A

produces rapid aging in children

111
Q

Achondroplasia

A

a form of dwarfism caused by a rare dominant allele

112
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

degenerative disease of the nervous system; no obvious phenotypic effects until the individual is about 35 to 40 years of age

113
Q

Amniocentesis

A

the liquid (amniotic fluid) that bathes the fetus is removed and tested

114
Q

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

A

sample of the placenta is removed and tested

115
Q

Purines

A

have two organic rings, Adenine(A), Guanine(G)

116
Q

Pyrimidine

A

have one organic ring, Thymine(T), Cytosine(C)

117
Q

Antiparallel

A

The sugar phosphate backbone units run in opposite directions; 5’ end with the phosphate group attached to the 5’-­‐C in the sugar ring

118
Q

complimentary

A

each stores the information necessary to reconstruct the other

119
Q

Semiconservative Model

A

when a double helix replicates, each daughter molecule will have one old strand (derived or “conserved” from the parent molecule) and one newly made strand

120
Q

origins of replication

A

where the two DNA strands are separated, opening up a replication “bubble”; consist of short stretches of DNA having a specific sequence of nucleotides

121
Q

replication fork

A

a Y-­‐shaped region where parental strands of DNA are being unwound

122
Q

DNA helicases

A

enzymes that untwist the double helix at the replication forks

123
Q

Single-­‐strand binding proteins (SSBs)

A

proteins that bind to each unwound strand keeping them from re-­‐paring

124
Q

Topoisomersase

A

enzymes that break and rejoin the parental DNA ahead of the replication fork relieving the strain caused by unwinding (help keep DNA from “tangling” once unwound)

125
Q

Primase

A

enzyme that synthesizes RNA primer

126
Q

RNA primer

A

RNA chain needed to initiate DNA synthesis

127
Q

transcription

A

the synthesis of RNA using information in DNA

128
Q

mRNA

A

carries a genetic message from the DNA to the protein synthesizing machinery of the cell

129
Q

translation

A

sythesis of a polypetide (protein) using information in the mRNA

130
Q

triplet code

A

is genetic information (instructions) for proteins are written in DNA as 3-nucleotide word

131
Q

codons

A

triplet code of DNA on the template strand is transcribed into complementary 3-nucleotide words in mRNA

132
Q

initiation

A

RNA polymerase binds to promoter, DNA strand unwid, RNA polymerase initiates RNA synthesis at start point

133
Q

TATA box

A

nucleotide sequence containing TATA within the promoter

134
Q

transcription factors

A

proteins that bind to TATA box to mediate binding of RNA polymerase II

135
Q

elongation

A

RNA polymerase continues to unwind helix, adding RNA nucleotides

136
Q

termination

A

RNA transcript (pre-mRNA) is released upon reaching the polyadenylation signal (AAUAAA) and RNA polymerase detaches from DNA

137
Q

5’ cap

A

modified guanin nucleotide added to 5’ end of RNA transcript (pre-mRNA)

138
Q

poly-A tail

A

50-250adenin (A) nucleotides, added to the 3’ end of the pre-mRNA

139
Q

intron

A

noncoding segments of nucleic acid that lies between coding regiods

140
Q

exons

A

coding segment of nucleic acid

141
Q

transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

transfer or carries an amino acid from cytoplasm to a growing polypeptide in a ribosome, tRNA is complementary to mRNA

142
Q

anticodon

A

nucleotide triplet on tRNA that base pairs to a complementary codon on mRNA

143
Q

wobble

A

flexible base pairing at the 5’ end ( third nucleotide base) of anticodon

144
Q

ribosomes

A

facilitate the specific coupling of tRNA anticodons with mRNA codons during protein synthesis

145
Q

mutation

A

changes to the genetic information

146
Q

substitutions

A

replaces one nucleotide and its partner with another pair of nucleotides

147
Q

silent mutations

A

changes in a single nucleotide that have no effect on the amino acid produced by codon because of redundancy in the genetic code

148
Q

missense mutations

A

changes in a single nucleotide that still code for an amino acid, but not the correct amino acid

149
Q

nonsense mutations

A

change in a single nucleotide that changes an amino acid codon into a stop codon, nearly always leading to nonfunctional protein

150
Q

insertions or delections

A

additions or losses of nucleotides; may lead to a frameshift mutation

151
Q

mutagens

A

physical or chemical agents that can cause mutations

Biology 211 (6 decks)

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