Test 3 Version 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

F5 gene controls the production of a protein called factor V (for 5), which helps the blood clot when needed (such as after an injury). Factor V facilitates the production of thrombin. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen to form fibrin, which polymerizes to form the dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. The factor V Leiden mutation changes the protein’s structure which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V, leading to an overproduction of thrombin, excess fibrin and excess clotting. Factor V is made in the liver and can be found in the plasma. Other components, such as____ are found in the blood; and their function includes ____?
A. Albumins; hormone transport
B. Ions; buffering
C. Leukocytes; immune response
D. Only B and C
E. A, B and C

A

E

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2
Q

The excessive clotting that can in occur in individuals with the factor V Leiden mutation is almost always restricted to the veins, where the clotting may cause a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) include pain and swelling. The most common life-threatening concern with DVT is the potential for a clot to embolize (detach from the veins), travel as an embolus through the right side of the heart, and become lodged in a pulmonary blood vessel. This is called a pulmonary embolism (PE). In a situation such as this, where is the most likely location of the PE?
A. the pulmonary vein
B. the right atria
C. the pulmonary artery
D. the aorta
E. the inferior vena cava

A

C

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3
Q

Balancing lipid levels in the blood is an important part of staying healthy. Abnormal levels of blood lipids cause fat deposits in artery walls, which can lead to atherosclerosis and disorders such as stroke and heart attack. Causes for high lipid levels include diabetes, alcoholism, kidney disease, hypothyroidism, liver disease, and stress. In the blood, lipids can be transported by ___
A. Myeloid stem cells
B. Globulins
C. Platelets
D. Fibrinogen
E. None of the above

A

B

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4
Q

Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, colorless cell fragments in the blood that form clots and stop or prevent bleeding. Platelets are made in the bone marrow, the sponge-like tissue inside our bones. Bone marrow contains stem cells. Which of the following is/are true with regard to stem cells found in bone marrow?
A. The stem cells can be classified as myeloid or lymphoid
B. The stem cells arise from a multipotent progenitor cell
C. The stem cells from the red bone marrow give rise to red blood cells only (not white blood cells)
D. Only A and B
E. A, B and C

A

D

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5
Q

The sound of your heartbeat: lub, dub are the heart sounds heard through a stethoscope applied to the chest. The first sound (the lub) happens when the mitral and tricuspid valves close. The first sound, a lub, coincides with____
A. the beginning of ventricular systole
B. the beginning of diastole
C. the end of ventricular systole
D. the closure of valves in the aorta and pulmonary artery
E. None of the above

A

A

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6
Q

When heart valves are damaged and need to be replaced, they can be surgically replaced with a biological valve from a pig, cow or human, or a mechanical valve (made from metal or carbon). With regard to heart valves, which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Tricuspid: Lets oxygen-rich blood coming back from your lungs move from your left atrium (upper chamber) to your left ventricle (lower chamber).
B. Aortic: Lets oxygen-poor blood move from your right ventricle (lower chamber) to your pulmonary artery, which takes blood to your lungs to get oxygen.
C. Mitral: Lets oxygen-poor blood flow from your right atrium (upper chamber) to your right ventricle (lower chamber).
D. A, B and C are all true statements
E. A, B and C are all false (none are true statements).

A

E

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7
Q

The flow of blood through blood vessels is affected by both pressure and resistance (i.e. F=ΔP/R). What must be taken into consideration when calculating resistance?
A. the viscosity of the fluid
B. the length of the tube
C. the inside radius of the tube
D. A, B and C
E. A and C only

A

D

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8
Q

The most common pathologic process that increases afterload in the heart is systemic hypertension (high blood pressure). Other situations that increase afterload include aortic stenosis (a narrowing of the valve) and aortic regurgitation (the inadequate closure of the aortic valve during diastole that results in reverse blood flow through the aortic valve. In general, afterload can be decreased by any process that lowers blood pressure. Afterload ____
A. is equal to EDV-ESV
B. is the amount of resistance the heart must overcome to open the aortic semilunar valve and push the blood volume out into the systemic circulation.
C. is equal to the atrial pressure (in mmHg)
D. is the amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole.
E. is the amount of blood ejected per beat from left ventricle and measured in ml/beat

A

B

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9
Q

Congestive heart failure is a complex clinical syndrome in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s requirements. It results from any disorder that impairs ventricular filling or ejection of blood to the systemic circulation. Patients usually present with fatigue and dyspnea (labored breathing), reduced exercise tolerance, and fluid retention (pulmonary and peripheral edema). The amount of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute as measured in L/min is ______. It is an important determinant of the hemodynamic state in patients with congestive heart failure.
A. the stroke volume
B. the ESV (end systolic volume)
C. the preload
D. systole
E. none of the above

A

E

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10
Q

In the heart, the force of contraction can be affected by ___
A. certain catecholamines
B. parasympathetic activity
C. sympathetic activity
D. B and C only
E. A, B and C

A

E

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11
Q

Johns Hopkins Medicine has a website that describes Broken Heart Syndrome as “a condition that can cause rapid and reversive heart muscle weakness, also known as stress cardiomyopathy”. It states that two kinds of stress — emotional or physical — often cause broken heart syndrome and that the symptoms include those of a heart attack, such as: chest pain, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis (sweating). The website goes on to suggest a possible cause: a substance “may bind to the heart cells directly, causing large amounts of calcium to enter the cells. This large intake of calcium can prevent the heart cells from beating properly.” What might this substance be and what would it bind to?
https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/conditions-and-diseases/broken-heart-syndrome
A. Acetylcholine, M2 receptor
B. Serotonin, 5HT receptor
C. Norepinephrine, β-adrenergic receptor
D. Dopamine, D4 receptor
E. Both A and C

A

C

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12
Q

Autonomic nerves can have various effects on the heart. The vagus nerve ______
A. can cause a parasympathetic response by decreasing the contractility in the heart ventricular muscle.
B. can bring about an increase in the conduction rate in the AV node
C. carries parasympathetic fibers that innervate the SA node which can cause a decrease in the heart rate
D. carries sympathetic nerve fibers that release epinephrine
E. None of the above

A

C

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13
Q

Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is a characteristic cardiac phenotype that can be caused by a number of pathologies, such as clinical hypothyroidism, inflammation of heart tissue (myocarditis), and obstructive sleep apnea. How can the heart rate be slowed?
A. By the binding of a neurotransmitter to the M2 receptor
B. By increasing the permeability to potassium
C. By increasing the permeability to sodium and calcium
D. A, B and C
E. A and B only

A

E

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14
Q

The action potentials in the cardiac muscle cells and the SA nodes have unique features that are important for their unique functions. The cardiac muscle cell action potential____
A. involves funny channels that have a dual activation by voltage and by cyclic nucleotides.
B. has a longer duration that the action potential in the SA node
C. has a rise in permeability to potassium that is responsible for the depolarization that causes the cell to reach threshold.
D. B and C only
E. A, B and C

A

B

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15
Q

Electrical impulses coordinate contractions of the different parts of the heart to keep blood flowing the way it should. An ECG records these impulses to show how fast the heart is beating, the rhythm of the heart beats (steady or irregular), and the strength and timing of the electrical impulses as they move through the different parts of the heart. Changes in an ECG can be a sign of many heart-related conditions.
With regard to an ECG _____
A. the P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization.
B. the QRS wave represents the repolarization of the ventricles
C. the S-T segment represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria
D. the p wave represents the repolarization of the ventricles
E. none of the above

A

A

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16
Q

The exchange of substances across capillary walls is affected by
A. the rate and amount of blood flow
B. the diffusion of substances along their concentration gradient
C. the pressure of the blood in comparison to the pressure of the interstitial fluid
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

A

E

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17
Q

Flow autoregulation ___
A. is a response to a drop in blood pressure
B. is a local control that regulates arteriole diameter
C. occurs because a tissue is not getting enough blood flow
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

A

E

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18
Q

At the arteriole end of a capillary bed
A. the pressure of the blood is lower that the pressure of the interstitial fluid
B. the pressure of the blood is higher than the pressure of the interstitial fluid
C. water and small solutes are being forces into the capillaries due to hydrostatic pressure
D. fluid is being pulled back into the blood
E. None of the above

A

B

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19
Q

If, during protein starvation, the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood plasma on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure in the capillary, then
A. hemoglobin will not release oxygen.
B. fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues.
C. the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase.
D. most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues.
E. plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries.

A

B

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20
Q

Which of the following can you conclude from the graph below?
A. The reduction in binding affinity due to the higher pH in systemic venous blood increases the amount of O2 released in active tissues.
B. A relatively small change in PO2 (from about 40mmHg to about 20 mmHg) can result in relatively large amount of oxygen being released from hemoglobin
C. A relatively large drop in the partial pressure of O2 in blood, from about 100mmHg to 60mmHg, will only cause a relatively small drop in the percent saturation hemoglobin.
D. B and C
E. A, B and C

A

D

21
Q

Air moves into the mammalian lung in response to _______ and oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood in response to _____________
A. negative pressure in the abdominal cavity; active transport
B. lower than atmospheric pressure in the alveoli; lower partial pressure of oxygen in the blood than in the alveoli
C. negative pressure in the intrapleural space; higher partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli than in the blood
D. lower volume in the lung than in the air; higher partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere than in the lung
E. lower concentration in the alveoli than in the air; opening of voltage gated channels

A

B

22
Q

In regular negative pressure breathing in humans, inhalation results from
A. Forcing air from the throat down into the lungs
B. Contracting the diaphragm
C. Relaxing the muscles of the rib cage
D. Relaxing the diaphragm
E. Contracting the abdominal muscles

A

B

23
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. as thoracic volume increases, alveolar pressure (Palv) increases.
B. in expiration, the thoracic volume increases.
C. as alveolar volume increases, alveolar pressure (Palv) decreases.
D. pressure is directly proportional to volume.
E. none of the above

A

C

24
Q

During a normal inspiration______
A. Palv (alveolar pressure) increases
B. Pip (intrapelural pressure) increases
C. Patm (atmospheric pressure) decreases
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

A

E

25
Q

Pleurisy is a condition that causes chest pain that worsens during breathing. It results from inflammation of the membranes that surround the lungs and can be caused by a viral infection. Which of the following are functions of the pleural membranes and/or pleural cavity?
A. The pleural cavity transmits movements of the ribs muscles to the lungs, particularly during heavy breathing
B. The fluid filled space of the pleural cavity allows the lungs to move without abrasion
C. Positive pressure in intra-pleural space keeps lungs in contact with chest wall
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

A

D

26
Q

In active body tissues, HbO2 🡪 Hb + O2 because the affinity of Hb for O2 can be decreased by:
A. A drop in pH
B. An increase in CO2 binding to Hb
C. A decrease in temperature
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

A

D

27
Q

When the air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its nitrogen content is 10%, its oxygen content is 5% and its overall air pressure is 400 mm Hg, then PO2 is
A. 20 mm Hg
B. 85 mm Hg.
C. 40 mm Hg.
D. 60 mm Hg.
E. 4 mm Hg.

A

A

28
Q

Which is the proper sequence of events during exhalation?
A. diaphragm moves down (contracts), rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure
B. diaphragm relaxes (moves up), rib cage gets smaller, decrease in lung volume, increase in pressure
C. diaphragm flattens, rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure
D. external intercostal muscles contract, ribs pulled upward, decrease in lung volume, decrease in pressure
E. None of the above

A

B

29
Q

An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes
A. hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules.
B. an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules.
C. hemoglobin to denature.
D. an increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin.
E. hemoglobin to more readily give up its oxygen molecules.

A

B

30
Q

Control of blood gases is important for maintaining homeostasis. With regard to blood gas control, choose the statement that is FALSE.
A. Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to H+, O2 and CO2 changes in arterial blood
B. Control centers in medulla oblongata and pons adjust rate and depth of breathing to compensate for changes in blood gases
C. Central chemoreceptors respond to CO2 changes in the extracellular fluid in the brain
D. Respiratory acidosis can lead to increased PCO2 in the plasma
E. All of the above are true

A

E

31
Q

Neurons of the _______ fire primarily during inspiration and are located in the______
A. VRG, pons
B. DRG, aortic bodies
C. somatosensory group, carotid bodies
D. DRG, pons
E. none of the above

A

E

32
Q

Suppose that you have a cell with a membrane that is permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl- or any other solute. The osmolarity of the cell is higher than that of the solution surrounding the cell. Which of the following should occur?
A.Overall, the cell should lose water.
B.Overall, the cell should take up water, Na+, and Cl-.
C.Overall, the cell should take up water.
D.Overall, the cell should take up water and lose Na+ and Cl-.
E.Overall, the cell should lose water and take up Na+ and Cl-

A

C

33
Q

As you know, one of the primary functions of the kidneys is to filter blood–removing waste products and converting the filtrate into urine. The kidneys also synthesize an enzyme needed for the formation of the hormone calcitriol, which increases the absorption of calcium from the small intestine to increase blood calcium concentration. Further, in response to low blood oxygen levels, cells within the kidney secrete the hormone, erythropoietin (EPO). EPO increases the rate of erythrocyte formation. Considering the many varied functions of the kidney, which of the following could accompany a loss of kidney function?
A. changes in blood pressure
B. pH imbalance
C. accumulation of wastes
D. A, B and C
E. A and C only

A

D

34
Q

Which of the following is correctly paired?
A. collecting duct: responsive to ADH
B. descending loop of Henle: permeable to Na+ and Cl-
C. distal tubule: region where salt and water is usually secreted
D. proximal convoluted tubule: region where NH3 and H+ is usually reabsorbed
E. all of the above

A

A

35
Q

The selective movement of specific small molecules and ions into excretory system tubules is known as _______. But when a substance is taken out of an excretory system tubule and put back into the blood, it is an example of _______.
A.
secretion; reabsorption
B.
reabsorption, secretion
C.
reabsorption, filtration.
D.
excretion, secretion.
E.
excretion, resorption

A

A

36
Q

Which of the following can pass from the glomerular capillaries to the cells of the Bowman’s Capsule?
A. water
B. nitrogenous wastes
C. glucose
D. amino acids
E. all of the above

A

E

37
Q

Angiotensin II ___
A. causes vasoconstriction
B. stimulates aldosterone secretion
C. stimulates ADH secretion
D. increases the sensation of thirst
E. all of the above

A

E

38
Q

Which of the following conditions reduces filtration pressure in the glomerulus?
A. dilate the afferent arteriole
B. constrict the afferent arteriole and relax (dilate) the efferent arteriole
C. increase hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

A

B

39
Q

The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia(NH3). Normally, about 50% of filtered urea is excreted in the urine. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) is one of six enzymes in the urea cycle. OTC deficiency is a rare X-linked genetic disorder characterized by complete or partial lack of (OTC). The lack of the OTC enzyme results in excessive accumulation of nitrogen, in the form of ammonia (hyperammonemia), in the blood. Excess ammonia, which is a neurotoxin, travels to the central nervous system. Symptoms of OTC deficiency include vomiting, refusal to eat, progressive lethargy, and coma. Regarding ammonia and urea, which of the following is true?
A. NH3 in the filtrate can react with excess H+, enabling the excess H+ to be eliminated in the urine in a buffered state as NH4+
B. Some urea can be reabsorbed from the collecting duct
C. The Loop of Henle is the primary location for urea reabsorption
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

A

D

40
Q

ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of the following ways?
A. ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood and RAAS regulates the volume of the blood.
B. ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of water, and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ reabsorption.
C. ADH and RAAS work antagonistically; ADH stimulates water reabsorption during dehydration and RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is in excess in body fluids.
D. Both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, which increases both blood volume and pressure via its receptors in the urinary bladder.
E. None of the above

A

B

41
Q

Diuretics are substances that slow renal reabsorption of water and thereby cause diuresis, and elevated urine flow rate, which in turn reduces blood volume. Diuretics are often prescribed to treat hypertension (high blood pressure). Naturally occurring diuretics include caffeine and alcohol. Caffeine inhibits sodium reabsorption. By what mechanism might alcohol bring about diuresis?
A. It could stimulate secretion of aldosterone
B. It could inhibit secretion of ADH
C. It could stimulate the RAAS system
D. It could inhibit secretion of ANP
E. It could decrease water reabsorption from the ascending Loop of Henle

A

B

42
Q

Stimuli that initiate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway include ___
A. dehydration
B. Na+ deficiency
C. hemorrhage (bleeding)
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

A

D

43
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Macula densa cells are located on the proximal tubule of the kidney
B. Juxtaglomerular cells (JG) can sense when blood pressure is high and will react by releasing renin
C. JG cells are specialized smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole which synthesize and secrete renin.
D. Macula densa cells monitor the Na+ concentration in the filtrate and signal JG cells to make renin when Na+ levels are high.
E. JGA stands for “Jane Goodall-Africa” who is Dr. Kuemerle’s favorite female scientific researcher

A

C

44
Q

The kidney plays an important role in acid-base regulation. If a person has alkalosis, then __
A. Less HCO3- will be reabsorbed into the blood and more will excreted in the urine.
B. ATP becomes depleted, causing the ATPase pumps to inactivate, which ultimately results in less H+ being secreted into the filtrate, thus lowering the blood plasma pH
C. The proximal tubule cells can make extra bicarbonate (more than is reabsorbed from the filtrate) from the metabolism of glutamine.
D. Ammonia (NH3) and phosphates (HPO42-), which have been secreted into the filtrate, react with excess HCO3- allowing it to be eliminated in the urine.
E. None of the above

A

A

45
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?
A. An increase in ANP brings about an increase in glomerular filtration rate
B. ANP inhibits the release of aldosterone
C. An increase in ANP results in a decrease in the plasma fluid volume
D. All of the above are false.
E. None of the above are false. They are all true statements.

A

E

46
Q

The kidney plays an important role in acid-base regulation. ATPase pumps and transporters located on both the basolateral and apical membrane of both the proximal and distal tubule cells contribute greatly to this process. How?
A. In the distal tubule, H+ is secreted into the filtrate using H+ ATPase pumps (located on the apical side).
B. Na+/K+ ATPase pumps, located at the basolateral membrane of the tubule cells, help maintain a concentration gradient which facilitates the diffusion of Na+ into the filtrate to be excreted.
C. Na+/H+ pumps in the proximal tubule transport Na+ from the filtrate into proximal tubule cells and transport H+ from the proximal tubule cells into the filtrate.
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C

A

E

47
Q

Acetazolamide is a compound that blocks the activity of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase inside kidney tubular epithelial cells. Acetazolamide_____
A. prevents the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water
B. must be an anti-diuretic
C. increases the amount of H+ and HCO3- in the kidney tubular epithelial cell
D. increases Na+ reabsorption
E. all of the above

A

A

48
Q

An increase in renin may be caused by ___ ; while an increase in ADH is caused by____
A. a decrease in sodium intake; an increase in solute concentration in the ECF
B. a decrease in renal sympathetic nerve activity; an increase in blood pressure
C. an increase in blood pressure in the renal artery; a decrease in solute concentration in the ECF
D. an aldosterone-secreting adrenal tumor; stimulation of the hippocampus
E. hypertension; hypertension

A

A