Test 3 Questions

Question 1

An obstacle departure procedure (ODP) is established if a steeper than normal climb gradient is required by identification of what slope?

Answer 1

152 ft/NM

Question 2

(Figure 1) If departing runway 15, what is the minimum climb gradient if departing into IMC weather conditions?

Answer 2

601 ft/NM

Question 3

(Figure 1) What are the minimum weather conditions to depart if you cannot meet the required climb gradient?

Answer 3

3,300’ ceiling and 3sm visibility

Question 4

(Figure 2) Based on questions 2, if your ground speed after departure is 100 knots, what is your required climb rate in fpm (select closet answer by rounding up)?
(Use equation)

Answer 4

1017 fpm

Equation:
GS/60 x required climb gradient in ft/NM = fpm

Question 5

(Figure 3) After crossing the UBG VOR at what altitude and airspeed can you expect to cross OLM VOR if you’re flying a turbojet when landing south?

Answer 5

280kts/17,000ft

Question 6

(Figure 3) Before beginning your descent on the OLM SIX STAR an ATC controller must issue which clearance in order for your a/c to start a descent?

Answer 6

N1234 descend via the Olympia 6 Arrival

Question 7

(Figure 3) At what point must your aircraft be at 250 knots on the Olympia 6 Arrival if landing North?

Answer 7

When crossing the OLM VOR

Question 8

While navigating on a victor airway, ATC issues you an approach clearance to an airport not serviced by a control tower. When may you begin descending based on the following information:

• A/c Location: 10 NM from IAF on victor airway
• Clearance: “Bonanza 3BR maintain 5000 until established on published portion of the approach, cleared VOR runway 12 approach, report FAF inbound.”

Answer 8

When the a/c is on a published portion of the approach!

Question 9

(Figure 4) What is the lowest altitude an a/c can operate between SUTRO and PYE on T257 if the a/c is traveling northwest towards PYE?

Answer 9

4,000’

Question 10

TRUE or FALSE: An IFR flight plan is required to operate IMC in class G airspace when weather conditions are less than VMC

Answer 10

FALSE

Question 11

While climbing into Class A airspace what pilot action is required?

Answer 11

Reset altimeter to 29.92

Question 12

(Figure 5) If filing a flight plan from SEA to TWISP intersection on J505, what is the minimum altitude you can file?

Answer 12

FL240

Question 13

An IFR flight plan can be defined as?

Answer 13

(ALL OF THE ABOVE)

1. A form that allows an appropriately rated pilot operate in IFR conditions
2. Facilities separation between IFR a/c in controlled airspace through ATC
3. Required anytime you entered controlled airspace when its IFR

Question 14

Your neighbor is a successful contractor and wants to buy an a/c that enables him to visit more job sites in a shorter amount of time. He decides to buy a Beechcraft Baron (B58) and ask you to be his pilot. Can you legally fly for hire? (You are a commercial pilot with AMEL and instrument ratings)

Answer 14

Yes, as long as he buys the a/c!

Question 15

Your friend started her own successful software development business and wants to lease an airplane to fly to business meetings. The local FBO (not part 135 operator) offered to lease your freind an a/c and provide the pilot. She calls you up and asks if this is legal?

Answer 15

No, it is a wet lease and is considered a commercial operations!

Question 16

When is a takeoff alternate required if departing KGEG FAR Part 91?

Answer 16

A takeoff alternate is not required under Part 91

Question 17

(Figure 6) When approaching to land at KGEG FAR Part 91 on the ILS RWY 3, prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900’ RVR.

Answer 17

The pilot MAY START the approach!

Question 18

(Figure 6) When approaching to land at KGEG FAR Part 135 on the ILS RWY 3, prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900’ RVR. There is also a NOTAM for the airport that reads:

GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS

Answer 18

The pilot may NOT start the approach!

Question 19

(Figure 6) When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 FAR Part 91, after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700’ RVR. There is also a NOTAM for the airport that reads:

GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS

Answer 19

The pilot MAY CONTINUE the approach!

Question 20

(Figure 6) When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 FAR Part 135, after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700’ RVR. There is also a NOTAM for the airport that reads:

GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 ALS OTS

Answer 20

The pilot MAY CONTINUE the approach!

Question 21

When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3, at decision height only the approach light system is visible to the pilots, but not the runway. What can the pilot legally do?

Answer 21

Continue the approach, but fly no lower than 100’ above TDZE unless the red side row or red terminating bars are in view of the pilot!

Question 22

(Figure 6) When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3, when crossing OLAKE to verify the accuracy of the glideslope, the altitude should read:

Answer 22

3,900’

Question 23

Which force moves the Piper Seminole’s propeller toward a LOW pitch angle?

Answer 23

Oil Pressure

Question 24

What type of ailerons is the Piper Seminole equipped with?

Answer 24

Differential Frise

Question 25

Which is TRUE about the Seminole’s heater? (think air blower)

Answer 25

The fresh air blower automatically shuts off when the nose gear up limit switch is in the closed position!

Question 26

In the Piper Seminole’s gear system, what shuts the pump OFF during gear EXTENSION?

Answer 26

All 3 down limit switches closing!

Question 27

What speed in the Piper Seminole would give you the best single engine climb performance?

Answer 27

88 kias

Question 28

The a/c’s single engine service ceiling is the:

Answer 28

Highest altitude the a/c can maintain a 50 fpm climb rate when single engine

Question 29

In the Beechcraft Baron, a conventional rotating twin, which engine if failed would most adversely affect performance and controllability?

Answer 29

Left Engine!

PAST

Question 30

The distance required to accelerate the a/c on takeoff to liftoff speed, experience an engine failure, and come to a complete stop is:

Answer 30

Accelerate-Stop Distance

Question 31

If you were operating a Piper Seminole that weighed 3800 lbs and you encountered moderate turbulence, what speed should the a/c be slowed to in order to avoid structural damage?

Answer 31

135 kias

Question 32

Vmca will _____ as Density Altitude increases (normally aspirated engine)

Answer 32

Increased Density Altitude = DECREASED Vmca

Question 33

The published Vmc speed for the Piper Seminole was calculated under what condition (in regard to power)?

Answer 33

Full Power on the operating engine

Question 34

The distance required to accelerate the a/c on takeoff to liftoff speed, experience an engine failure, and climb to 50’ above the runway is:

Answer 34

Accelerate-Go Distance!

Question 35

What CG location and gross weight would lead to the LOWEST Vmc speed?

Answer 35

Forward CG and Heaviest WT

Question 36

Ops Specs are defined as:

Answer 36

A document that air operators write and the FAA approves that specifies the authorization and limitations under which each type of operation must be conducted

Question 37

What position is required under FAR Part 135?

Answer 37

Director of Maintenance

Question 38

Sterile cockpit applies to:

Answer 38

Climbing flight at 9,000’

Question 39

Under FAR Part 135, when are flight attendants required?

Answer 39

In a/c that have MORE than 19 seats (not just passenger)

Question 40

TRUE or FALSE: FAR 135 operators are required to use FAA certified dispatchers?

Answer 40

FALSE