Test 3: Labor Anesthesia & Analgesia Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Primip?

A

Someone pregnant for the first time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Multip?

A

Someone who has delivered at least one child >20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does SROM stand for?

A

Spontaneous Rupture of Membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does AROM stand for?

A

Artificial Rupture of Membranes (AKA: Amniotomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do OA and OP mean?

A
  • OA and OP describe the direction the fetus is facing
  • OA: Occiput Anterior (back of the baby’s head is towards the mom’s abdomen)
  • OP: Occiput Posterior (back of the baby’s head is towards mom’s spine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During delivery, what is the preferred baby’s position (OA or OP)?

A

Occiput Anterior (OA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This position is also known as “Sunny Side Up”.

A

Occiput Posterior (More difficult delivery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does CLE stand for?

A

Continuous Labor Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does DPE stand for?

A

Dural Puncture Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does CSE stand for?

A

Combine Spinal Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What will the four numbers following “P” (Para) in a provider’s note stand for?

A
  • 1st Number: Term (37 weeks or >)
  • 2nd Number: Preterm
  • 3rd Number: Abortions (Miscarriage or Other Loss)
  • 4th Number: Living Children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

G2 P0101

A

G2: Pt is in their second pregnancy
P0101: 0 term birth, 1 pre-term birth, 0 abortions/miscarriage, 1 living child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

G4 P2102

A

G4: Pt is in their 4th pregnancy
P2102: 2 term births, 1 pre-term birth, 0 abortions/miscarriage, 2 living children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The intact membrane of the amniotic sac protects the uterine content from __________.

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The amniotic sac provides mechanical protection for the fetus and _____________.

A

Umbilical cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long does a woman have to give birth once their water breaks?

A
  • 12 hours
  • Anything longer will cause an increased risk of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long will the first stage of labor last for a Primip?

How long will the first stage of labor last for a Multip?

A

Primip: 8-12 hours

Multip: 5-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the phases of the first stage of labor?

A
  • Latent Phase
  • Active Phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens during the Latent Phase?

A
  • Cervical Effacement (thins out)
  • Minor cervical dilation (2-4 cm)
  • Contractions: q5-7 mins lasting 30-40 secs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens during the Active Phase?

A
  • Cervical dilation ramps up to 10 cm (complete)
  • Contractions: q2-5 mins lasting 50-70 secs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the duration of the Second Stage of Labor?

A

15-120 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens during the Second Stage?

A
  • Full cervical dilation (10 cm)
  • Contractions q1.5-2 mins lasting 60-90 secs
  • Fetal descent
  • Ends with delivery of fetus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Second Stage is considered PROLONGED if it exceeds _________ (range) hours.

A

3-4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a common cause of a prolonged Second Stage?

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion (Big Head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the risks involved with a prolonged Second Stage?

A
  • Risk for fetal trauma
  • Severe umbilical cord compression
  • Maternal trauma (physical, emotional)
  • Postpartum hemorrhage
  • Infection
  • Admission to NICU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the duration of the Third Stage of Labor?

A

15-30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When does the Third Stage begin, and when does it end?
When is the Third stage considered “prolonged”?

A
  • Begins after delivery
  • Ends w/ delivery of placenta
  • Prolonged after 30 mins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is it considered the Fourth Stage of labor?

A

1st hour of postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During the Fourth Stage, you have a great risk of what?

A
  • Uterine Atony
  • Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What factors are involved in labor pain (long list)?

A
  • Genetic influence
  • Pelvic size/shape
  • Fetal presentation
  • Natural labor/ induction of labor/ augmented labor
  • Most women c/o severe pain during contraction/ pushing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During the first stage of labor, what causes the mechanoreceptor stimulation?

A

Stretching and distention of lower uterine segment and cervix/ contractions → VISCERAL PAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What fibers transmit visceral pain?

A

Unmyelinated C-nerve fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where do the C-nerve fibers enter the spinal cord?

A

T10 - L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where will pregnant women feel visceral pain?

A
  • Hard to localize
  • Lower abdomen, sacrum, back
  • Can be difficult to treat d/t diffused nature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Visceral pain will affect these dermatome levels during the latent phase.

A

T10 - T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Visceral pain will affect these dermatome levels during the active phase.

A

T12 - L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What kind of pain will be more prominent in the Second Stage of Labor?

A

Somatic Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What fibers transmit Somatic Pain?

A
  • Myelinated Aδ fibers via Pudendal nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe Somatic Pain.

A
  • Sharp, easily localized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What causes Somatic Pain in pregnant women?

A

Caused by the stretching and compression of pelvis and perineal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What dermatomes are primarily affected during the second stage of labor?

A
  • T12 - S4
  • Moves further into sacral dermatomes as labor progresses.

Visceral pain is still significant as contraction continues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a Doula?

A
  • Support person
  • Often non-medical
  • Emotional & Physical Support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

List complementary therapies for labor pain.

A
  • Music
  • Massage
  • Reflexology
  • Hypnosis
  • Aromatherapy
  • Acupuncture/ Acupressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is counterirritant?

A
  • A counterirritant is a substance that creates irritation or mild inflammation in one location with the goal of lessening discomfort and/or inflammation in another location.
  • IE: Intradermal sterile water injection
  • Gate Control Theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who dis?

A
  • Jon Snow
  • Used chloroform to anesthetize Queen Victoria
  • Bastard of Winterfell
  • 998th Lord Commander of the Night’s Watch
46
Q

What anesthetic gas is currently used to mitigate labor pain?

A
  • Nitrous Oxide (Nitronox)
  • Self dose
47
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of how Nitrous Oxide alleviates labor pain.

A
  • Inhibitory action at NMDA glutamate receptors
  • Stimulate dopaminergic, opioid, α1, and α2-adrenergic receptors

Nitrous has no decrease in uterine contractility.
Nitrous does not cause neonatal depression.

48
Q

Nitrous Oxide is blended in a 50:50 ratio with ___________ for patient self-administration.

A

Oxygen

Demand valve connected to face mask and activated by negative pressure.

49
Q

What are the side effects of Nitrous Oxide?

A
  • Nausea
  • Dizziness
  • Paresthesia
  • Dry Mouth
50
Q

What are the side effects of Nitrous Oxide + Opioid combination?

A
  • Hypoxia
  • LOC
  • Loss of protective airway reflexes
51
Q

What nerve block can augment the effects of Nitrous?

A

Pudendal Nerve Block

52
Q

What are the effects of Volatile Anesthetics on uterine smooth muscle?

A

Dose-dependent uterine smooth muscle relaxation

53
Q

What receptors does acetaminophen work on?

A

Weak inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 receptors

54
Q

When will acetaminophen have its maximum effect?

A

Max effect in 1 hour

55
Q

What receptors does Ketamine work on?

A

Noncompetitive antagonism at NMDA receptors

56
Q

Why should you not give Ketamine to someone with preeclampsia or HTN?

A

Ketamine increases HR and BP.

Other side effects include visual/auditory hallucinations

57
Q

Ketamine is a _________ derivative.

A

phencyclidine

58
Q

IV/IM Dose of Ketamine for Analgesia (Sub-anesthetic)

A

0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg

59
Q

IV onset and duration of Ketamine

A

Onset: 30 seconds
Duration: 5-10 minutes

60
Q

IM onset and duration of Ketamine

A

Onset: 2-8 minutes
Duration: 10-20 minutes

61
Q

Infusion Loading Dose of Ketamine.
Infusion Rate of Ketamine.

A

Loading Dose: 0.2 mg/kg over 30 minutes
Infusion: 0.2 mg/kg/hr

62
Q

Why would you want to avoid BZD for parturients?

A
  • BZD can cross the placenta
  • May cause maternal and neonatal respiratory depression
  • Neonatal hypotonicity, impaired thermoregulation
  • Amnesia
63
Q

Pros and Cons of using opioids for labor pains

A

PRO: Ease of administration, low cost, no specialized equipment or personnel

CON: N/V, Sedation, Itchiness, Placental transfer to fetus

64
Q

IM dose of meperidine for labor pain

A

50-100 mg q4 hours

65
Q

IV dose of meperidine for labor pain

A

25 mg q2-4 hours

66
Q

Is meperidine lipid soluble?

A
  • Yes. Lipid Soluble.
  • Can cross the placenta readily
67
Q

What is the active metabolite of meperidine?

A

Normeperidine → can cause seizures.

68
Q

IV dose of morphine for labor pain

A

0.05 - 0.1 mg/kg

69
Q

Active metabolite for morphine.
What is the consideration for neonates?

A
  • Morphine-6-glucuronide
  • Longer half-life in neonates, can accumulate → Respiratory depression
70
Q

IM dose of morphine for labor pain

A

0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg

71
Q

Because morphine is hydrophilic, what does that do to the onset?

A

Slower onset

72
Q

Because fentanyl is lipophilic, what does that do to the onset?

A
  • Faster onset
  • Readily crosses the placenta, works quickly
73
Q

Active metabolite for fentanyl.

A
  • No active metabolites
  • But repeated doses may lead to accumulation → Respiratory Depression
74
Q

IV dose of fentanyl for labor pain

A

50-100 mcg/hr

75
Q

How is Remifentanil metabolized?

A

Plasma esterases

76
Q

PCA administration dose of Remifentanil?

A
  • Ultra short-acting
  • Bolus 20-40 mcg w/ 2-3 minute lockout
77
Q

What agonist-antagonist opioid has an improved analgesic score over Fentanyl?

A

Butorphenol (Stadol)

78
Q

Dose of Butorphenol.
Half-life

A
  • IV/IM: 1-2 mg q3-4 hours
  • Half-life: 4.6 hours
79
Q

Dose of Nalbuphine (Nubain)
Half-life.

A
  • IV/IM/SQ: 5-20 mg q4-6 hours
  • Half-life: 5 hours
80
Q

What are the negative side effects of Nalbuphine for the fetus?

A

Fetal bradycardia

81
Q

Why is Toradol avoided during labor?

A
  • NSAIDs suppresses uterine contractions
  • Promote premature closure of fetal ductus arteriosus
  • Inhibit platelet aggregation
  • OK to give to mother after baby is delivered
82
Q

What is the goal of a paracervical block?

A
  • Block transmission through paracervical ganglion
  • Short-term pain relief in the first stage of labor
  • Performed by OB provider
83
Q

What are the risks involved with a paracervical block?

A
  • Maternal complications: LAST and syncope
  • Risk of injection into fetal scalp
  • Fetal bradycardia
84
Q

What is the most severe fetal complication with a paracervical block?

A

Fetal Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity

85
Q

What is the most common fetal complication with a paracervical block?

A

Fetal bradycardia

86
Q

When will a paracervical block be contraindicated?

A
  • Patients with uteroplacental insufficiency
  • Non-reassuring FHR
87
Q

What is the nerve block that is an alternative to pharmacologic pain management in the 2nd stage of labor?

A

Pudendal Nerve Block

88
Q

What are the drawbacks of a pudendal nerve block?

A
  • Minimizes the urge to push
  • Rapid maternal absorption of LA
  • Risk injection into the pudendal artery
  • Risk for LAST
  • Fetal trauma or injection of LA into the fetus
89
Q

What is the only form of analgesia that provides complete analgesia for both stages of labor?

A

Neuraxial Techniques

90
Q

What actions are required before performing neuraxial interventions?

A
  • Anesthesia consent
  • Preprocedural assessment (Airway, etc)
  • Routine lab testing is not required for healthy parturients (Plts)
91
Q

What pressors are used for hypotension secondary to neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Ephedrine (crosses placenta)
  • Phenylephrine (best for repeated doses)
92
Q

List drugs and items to have within reach when preparing for neuraxial anesthesia.

A
  • Vasopressors
  • Emergency Drugs
  • Induction agents
  • Muscle relaxants
  • Intralipids
  • O2 source/ mask/ Ambu bag
  • Suction
  • Airway equipment
93
Q

When is the best time to get anesthesia informed consent on a parturient?

A
  • Right at admission
  • Optimal timing before the onset of labor or early labor
94
Q

Is IV access optional for neuraxial anesthesia?

A

No. You must have IV access before a spinal or epidural.

95
Q

Better to Preload or Co-Load fluids when performing neuraxial anesthesia.

A

Better to co-load fluids with neuraxial anesthesia.

96
Q

How often does the blood pressure cycle during the initial stage of neuraxial anesthesia dosing be dosed?

A
  • Cycle 1-5 minutes during initial stage
  • Change cycle to 15 minutes after initial 20-30 mins
97
Q

Besides BP, what other monitors will the patient be on?

A
  • Pulse OX
  • FHR (document pre and post FHR)

EKG is not required

98
Q

What are the two positioning options when performing neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Sitting
  • Lateral
99
Q

What is the benefit of performing neuraxial anesthesia in a lateral position?

A
  • Less risk of intravascular catheter d/t epidural veins decompressed.
  • Position may be more comfortable for the patient
100
Q

What happens to the apex of the thoracic curvature when a patient is pregnant?

Why is this important to know for neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Apex of thoracic curvature shifted from T8 → T6
  • Increase risk of cephalad spread
101
Q

What does epidural vein engorgement indicate for neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Smaller epidural spaces
  • ↑ Risk of venous cannulation
102
Q

What causes “tight spaces” in the lumbar spine?

A

Decrease intervertebral gap associated with lumbar lordosis.

103
Q

What causes the Touffier’s line to be elevated?

A

Forward rotation of the pelvis

104
Q

Where is the Tuffier’s line located?

A
  • Level of the posterior superior iliac crest.
  • Located between L4 and L5
105
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Patient refusal
  • Uncooperative patient
  • Uncontrolled hemorrhage w/ hypovolemia
  • Epidural site infection
  • Severe bleeding/ clotting disorder
  • Anticoagulation
106
Q

What are the relative contraindications for neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Elevated ICP d/t mass lesion
  • Local anesthetic allergy
  • Language barrier w/o interpreter
  • Severe fetal depression
  • Severe maternal cardiac dz
  • Active coagulopathy
  • Untreated systemic infection
  • Pre-existing neurologic deficit
  • Skeletal anomalies
  • Hardware in spine
107
Q

What are these spots called?
What could these spots indicate?

A
  • Café-au-lait spots
  • More than six café-au-lait spots can be a sign of an underlying genetic condition like neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1).
108
Q

What are the risks involved when an epidural is placed too early?

A
  • Risk for instrumental delivery (Vacuum or forceps)
  • Prolonged second stage of labor
  • Risk for epidural becoming ineffective and needing to be replaced
109
Q

What are the risks involved when an epidural is placed too late?

A
  • Patient can no longer get into a good position
  • Patient can no longer stay still
  • Provider preference
110
Q

What are the five options of neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  • Epidural (CLE)
  • Dural puncture epidural (DPE)
  • Combined spinal-epidural (CSE)
  • Single shot spinal / intrathecal
  • Continuous spinal / intrathecal