Test 1: NORA Standards of Care - TIPS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 1st AANA standard of care?

A

Patient rights: autonomy, privacy, safety

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2
Q

What is the 2nd AANA standard of care?

A

Pre-anesthesia assessment/eval
- K+, EKG, coags
- Heart and lung functions (METS)

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3
Q

What is 1 MET?

A

The amount of oxygen consumed while sitting at rest and is equal to
(3.5 ml O2 per kg body weight per min)

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4
Q

What is a leisurely walk in METS?

A

2.5

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5
Q

What is a brisk walk in METS?

A

5

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6
Q

What is a poor MET score?

A

<5

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7
Q

What is a fair MET score?

A

5-8

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8
Q

What is a good MET score?

A

9-11

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9
Q

What is an excellent MET score?

A

Greater than 12

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10
Q

What is the 3rd AANA standard of care?

A

Patient specific plan

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11
Q

What is the 4th AANA standard of care?

A

Informed consent

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12
Q

What is the 5th AANA standard of care?

A

Documentation: accurate, timely, legible

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13
Q

What is the 6th AANA standard of care?

A

Equipment: verify funcionality

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14
Q

What is the 7th AANA standard of care?

A

Plan/modification of plan
- CRNA provides care until the responsibility has been accepted by another anesthesia professional

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15
Q

What is the 8th AANA standard of care?

A

Patient positioning

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16
Q

What is the 9th AANA standard of care?

A

Monitoring/Alarms
(audible!)
- Don’t turn off alarms. It is recorded within the machine’s hard drive

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17
Q

What is the 10th AANA standard of care?

A

Infection control policies
- One syringe, one needle, one patient, one time

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18
Q

What is the 11th AANA standard of care?

A

Transfer of care
- GA needs appropriate recovery

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19
Q

What are the 5 points included under the Modified Aldrete Scoring System?

A
  1. Respirations
  2. Oxygen Saturation
  3. Consciousness
  4. Circulation
  5. Activity
20
Q

What are the 5 points included under the Postanesthesia Discharge Scoring System?

A
  1. Vital signs
  2. Surgical Bleeding
  3. Activity and mental status
  4. Intake and output
  5. Pain/nausea/vomiting
21
Q

When using post anesthesia recovery scoring, what score qualifies patient for phase 1 PACU?

A

Less than 5

22
Q

When using post anesthesia recovery scoring, what score is needed to discharge the patient to phase 2 PACU

A

More than 5

23
Q

When using post anesthesia recovery scoring, what score is needed to discharge the patient from phase 2 (to the floor/home)

A

More than 9

24
Q

What does phase 1 PACU mean?

A

1 PACU nurse to 2 patients

25
Q

What does phase 2 PACU mean?

A

1 PACU nurse to 4-6 patients

26
Q

How is the post anesthesia recovery scored?

A
  • Five categories each scored form 0-2
27
Q

How does conscious sedation differ from general anesthesia in terms of responsiveness?

A

Conscious sedation: Purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation
General anesthesia: Un-arousable

28
Q

How does conscious sedation differ from general anesthesia in terms of Airway?

A

Conscious sedation: No intervention required
General anesthesia: Intervention often required

29
Q

How does conscious sedation differ from general anesthesia in terms of Spontaneous ventilation?

A

Conscious sedation: Adequate
General anesthesia: Frequently inadequate

30
Q

How does conscious sedation differ from general anesthesia in terms of Cardiovascular Function?

A

Conscious sedation: Usually maintained
General anesthesia: May be impaired

31
Q

What are the levels of sedation?

A
  • minimal
  • moderate
  • deep
32
Q

Patient factors requiring anesthesia?

A
  • Anxiety
  • cerebral palsy
  • Seizure disorders
  • pain
  • acute trauma
  • increased intracranial pressure
  • significant comorbidities
  • extreme ages
  • Drug/alcohol
  • Emergent or routine procedures outside the OR
33
Q

When treating cerebral aneurysms, what is the typical type of anesthetic?

A

GETA
- Volatiles
- Propofol gtt
- Precedex

34
Q

What are some equipments that may be needed during cerebral aneurysm treatment?

A

Large bore IV
A-line

35
Q

Possible complications of cerebral aneurysm coiling?

A
  • Rupture/dissection
  • Contrast hypersensitivity, anaphylaxis
  • Groin hematoma
36
Q

What is triple H therapy?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hypervolemia
  • Hemodilution

Triple H therapy is used to treat cerebral vasospasm

37
Q

What is the formula for Cerebral perfusion pressure? (CPP)

A

MAP - ICP = CPP

38
Q

How does increased CO2 affect cerebral vessels?

A

Vasodilation

39
Q

What type of anesthetic is recommended for AAA repair?

A

GETA
- Large bore IV/A-line
- Heparin, frequent ACT’s, protamine
- Foley catheter
- Controlled mild hypotension

40
Q

Possible complications of AAA repiar?

A
  • Rupture/dissection
  • Contrast sensitivity, anaphylaxis
41
Q

What is the protamine dosage for heparin reversal?

A

1 mg of protamine per 100 units of heparin

42
Q

Max dose of protamine sulfate

A

50 mg

Give this amount SLOWLY to prevent hypotension. Protamine releases histamine.

43
Q

What does TIPS stand for

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

44
Q

Possible comorbidities with TIPS procedures

A
  • Recent GI bleed
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Ascites
  • Pleural effusion
  • Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
  • Coagulopathy
  • Decreased protein binding
45
Q

Anesthesia considerations with TIPS

A
  • GETA recommended
  • RSI (ascites)
  • Large bore IV
  • Arterial line
  • Volume replacement (Albumin and PRBC’s)
  • Consider what drugs are metabolized by the liver
  • Provider radiation protection
46
Q

Three factors in radiation exposure

A
  • Time
  • Distance
  • Shielding
47
Q

What is the most important factor that limits radiation exposure?

A

Distance (probably)

Inverse square law (Double distance = quarters radiation dosage)