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Test 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Infection

A

the invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in body tissues, which may be clinically unapparent or result in local cellular injury due to competitive metabolism, toxins, intracellular replication or antigen-antibody response

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2
Q

Otitis Media

A

an inflammatory disorder usually caused by an infection of the middle ear occurring as a result of a blocked Eustachian tube, which prevents normal discharge

  • common complication of an acute respiratory infection
  • 3 types: Acute otitis media (AOM), Otitis media with effusion (OME), and otitis externa (Swimmer’s ear)
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3
Q

acute otitis media (AOM)

A

is usually painful and often requires treatment with antibiotics. Symptoms include redness of the tympanic membrane, pus, and fever.

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4
Q

otitis media with effusion (OME)

A

is a buildup of fluid in the middle ear without symptoms of infection and is often caused by viral upper respiratory infections and allergies, generally resolving on its own.

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5
Q

otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)

A

an infection of the ear and outer ear canal. Usually treated with antibiotics

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6
Q

conjunctivitis

A

also known as “pink eye”; an inflammation of the conjunctiva.
usually caused by allergy, infection, or trauma
bacterial or viral conjunctivitis is extremely contagious

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7
Q

conjunctivitis assessment

A
  1. itching, burning, or scratchy eyelids
  2. redness
  3. edema
  4. discharge
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8
Q

who are more prone to otitis media and why?

A

infants and children, because they have Eustachian tubes that are shorter, wider, and straighter

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9
Q

otitis media assessment

A
  1. fever
  2. acute onset of ear pain
  3. crying irritability, lethargy
  4. loss of appetite
  5. rolling of head from side to side
  6. pulling on or rubbing the ear
  7. purulent ear drainagee may be present
  8. red, opaque bulging, immobile tympanic membrane on otoscopic examination
  9. signs of hearing loss (indicative of chronic OM)
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10
Q

Myringotomy

A

a surgical incision into the tympanic membrane to provide drainage of the purulent middle ear fluid, may be done by a laser assisted procedure

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11
Q

tympanoplasty tubes

A

small cylinder-shaped tubes inserted into the middle ear to allow continued drainage and to equalize pressure and allow ventilation of the middle ear

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12
Q

influenza

A

highly contagious acute viral respiratory infection

-may be caused by several viruses, usually known as types A, B, and C

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13
Q

Who is the the flu vaccine contraindicated in?

A

people with egg allergies

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14
Q

influenza assessment

A
  1. acute onset of fevered muscle aches
  2. headache
  3. fatigue
  4. sore throat, cough, rhinorrhea
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15
Q

Pneumonia

A

infection of the pulmonary tissue, including the interstitial spaces, the alveoli, and the bronchioles

  • the edema associated with inflammation stiffens the lung, decreases lung compliance and vital capacity, and causes hypoxemia
  • community or hospital acquired
  • WBC and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are elevated
  • sputum culture identifies organism
  • x-ray shows lobar or segmental consolidations, pulmonary infiltrates, or pleural effusions
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16
Q

Pneumonia assessment

A
  1. chills
  2. elevated temperature
  3. pleuritic pain
  4. tachypnea
  5. rhonchi and wheezes
  6. use of accessory muscles for breathing
  7. mental status changes
  8. sputum production
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17
Q

Urinary tract infection (Cystitis)

A

an inflammation of the bladder from an infection, obstruction or the urethra, or other irritants

  • more common in women because the urethra is shorter and located close to the rectum
  • sexually active and pregnant women are most vulnerable
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18
Q

most common causative organisms of UTI

A
  1. Escherichia coli

2. species of Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, and Serratia

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19
Q

UTI/Cystitis assessment

A
  1. Frequency and urgency
  2. burning on urination
  3. voiding in small amounts
  4. inability to void
  5. incomplete emptying of the bladder
  6. lower abdominal discomfort or bad discomfort, bladder spasms
  7. cloudy, dark, foul-smelling urine
  8. hematuria
  9. malaise, chills, fever
  10. WBC greater than 11,000mm3 on urinalysis
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20
Q

UTI client education

A
  1. avoid alcohol
  2. take medication as prescribed
  3. take entire course of antibiotics
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21
Q

Normal Values: Hemoglobin (hgb)

A

M: 14-18
F: 12-16

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22
Q

Normal Values: Hematocrit (hct)

A

M: 42-52
F: 37-47

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23
Q

Normal Values: Red Blood Cells (RBC)

A

M: 4.7-6.1
F: 4.2-5.4

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24
Q

Normal Values: White Blood Cells (WBC)

A

5,000-10,000

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25
Q

Normal Values: Prothrombin time (Pt)

A

11-12.5

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26
Q

Normal Values: Partial Prothrombin time (Ptt)

A

60-70

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27
Q

Normal Values: Albumin

A

3.5-5g/dL

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28
Q

Normal Values: Calcium

A

8.5-10.5 mEq/L

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29
Q

Normal Values: Chloride

A

95-105 mEq/L

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30
Q

Normal Values: Glucose

A

70-110 mg/dL

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31
Q

Normal Values: Iron

A

M: 80-180
F: 60-160

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32
Q

Normal Values: Potassium

A

3.5-5

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33
Q

Normal Values: Protein

A

6.4-8.3

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34
Q

Normal Values: Sodium

A

135-145

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35
Q

Normal Values: Magnesium

A

1.5-2.5

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36
Q

Normal Values: pH

A

7.35-7.45

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37
Q

Normal Values: pCO2

A

35-45

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38
Q

Normal Values: pO2

A

80-100

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39
Q

Normal Values: HCO3

A

22-26

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40
Q

Normal Values: O2sat

A

95-100%

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41
Q

Normal Values: Phosphate

A

2.5-4.5

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42
Q

Normal Values: Specific Gravity

A

1.010-1.025

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43
Q

Normal Values: AST

A

0-35

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44
Q

Normal Values: ALT

A

4-36

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45
Q

Normal Values: Creatinine

A

M: 0.6-1.2
F: 0.5-1.1

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46
Q

Normal Values: Digoxin

A

0.8-2.0

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47
Q

Normal Values: BUN

A

10-20

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48
Q

Normal Values: Platelet

A

150,000-400,000

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49
Q

Normal Values: LDL

A

<130

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50
Q

Normal Values: HDL

A

M: >45
F: >55

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51
Q

Normal Values: Triglycerides

A

M: 40-160
F: 35-135

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52
Q

Normal Values: TSH

A

2-10

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53
Q

Normal Values: T3

A

70-205

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54
Q

Normal Values: T4

A

M: 4-12
F: 5-12

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55
Q

Normal Values: Ammonia

A

15-45

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56
Q

Cellulitis Pathophysiology

A

occurs when an entry point through normal skin barriers allows bacteria to enter and release their toxins in the subcutaneous tissues

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57
Q

Cellulitis Nursing Management

A

Elevate the affected area 3-6 inches above heart level and apply warm, moist packs to the site every 2-4 hours

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58
Q

Influenza And B

A

cause epidemics

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59
Q

Influenza C

A

responsible for mild upper respiratory infections in children and adults

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60
Q

Influenza secondary complications

A

typically include sinusitis, otitis media, bronchitis, and bacterial pneumonia

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61
Q

Influenza Treatment

A

Rest, keeping warm, and drinking large amounts of fluids

  • analgesics and cough medicines
  • antivirals (Zanamivir and oseltamivir)
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62
Q

Influenza Vaccine

A

new vaccine created each year, (two type A and one type B)

  • administered in autumn
  • contraindicated in anaphylactic hypersensitivity to eggs
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63
Q

Pneumonia Pathophysiology

A

arises from normal flora present in patients whose resistance has been altered or from aspiration of the flora present in the oropharynx; pts often have underlying disease that impairs host defenses

    • may also result from blood borne organisms
    • affects both ventilation and diffusion
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64
Q

Community acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A

pneumonia occurring in the community OR 48 hours of hospital admission in its who do not meet criteria for HCAP

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65
Q

Health care-associated pneumonia (HCAP)

A

pneumonia occurring in a nonhospitalized pt with extensive health care contact with one or more of the following:

  • hospitalizationfor 2 or more days in an acute care facility w/in 90 days of infection
  • residence in a nursing home or long-term care facility
  • antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, or wound care w/in 30 days of infection
  • hemodialysis treatment at a hospital or clinic
  • home infusion therapy or home wound care
  • family member w/ infection due to multi drug-resistant bacteria
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66
Q

Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)

A

Pneumonia occurring 48 hours or more after hospital admission that did not appear to be incubating at the time of admission

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67
Q

Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP)

A

a type of HAP that develops 48 hours or more after endotracheal tube intubation

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68
Q

Risk Factors for pneumonia

A
  • debilitated by accumulated lung secretions (asthma, COPD, sickle cell anemia)
  • cigarette smokers
  • immobile
  • immunosuppressed
  • experiencing a depressed gag/cough reflex
  • sedated
  • experiencing neuromuscular disorders
  • nasogastric/orogastric intubation
  • hospitalized client
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69
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

pulmonary consequences resulting from entry of endogenous or exogenous substances into the lower airway

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70
Q

Medical management for pneumonia

A

antibiotics (broad spectrum initially

  • hydration
  • antipyretics
  • antitussives
  • antihistamines
  • rest
  • O2
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71
Q

Glycosaminoglycan (GAG)

A

a hydrophilic protein, normally exerts a non adherent protective effect against various bacteria. The GAG molecule attracts water molecules, forming a water barrier that serves as a defensive layer between the bladder and the urine.

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72
Q

urethrovesical reflux

A

backward flow of urine from the urethra into the bladder

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73
Q

routes of infection: UTI

A
  1. transurethral route (ascending infection) most common
  2. through the bloodstream (hematogenous spread)
  3. by means of fistula from the intestine (direct extension)
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74
Q

medical management of UTI

A
  • anti-infective
  • bactericidal
  • cephalosporin
  • fluoroguinolone
  • penicillin
  • trimethoprim
  • urinary analgesic agent
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75
Q

pyelonephritis

A

a bacterial infection of the renal pelvis, tubules, and interstitial tissue of one or both kidneys. Causes involve either the upward spread of bacteria from the bladder or spread from systemic sources reaching the kidney via the bloodstream

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76
Q

acute pyelonephritis

A

usually leads to enlargement of the kidneys with interstitial infiltrations of inflammatory cells atrophy and destruction of tubules and the glomeruli may result

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77
Q

chronic pyelonephritis

A

is a cause of chronic kidney disease that can result in the end of renal replacement therapies such as transplantation or dialysis

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78
Q

clinical manifestations of acute pyelonephritis

A
  • chills, fever, malaise
  • leukocytosis
  • bacteriuria and pyuria
  • low back pain, flank pain
  • nausea/vomiting
  • headache
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79
Q

clinical manifestations of chronic pyelonephritis

A

usually has no symptoms of infection

noticeable symptoms include: fatigue, headache, poor appetite, polyuria, excessive thirst, and weightloss

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80
Q

urinary retention

A

the inability to empty the bladder completely during attempts to void

81
Q

residual urine

A

urine that remains in the bladder after voiding

82
Q

complications of urinary retention

A

can lead to chronic infections that if unresolved predispose the pt to renal calculi, pyelonephritis, sepsis, or hydronephrosis

83
Q

neurogenic bladder

A

a dysfunction that results from a disorder or dysfunction of the nervous system and leads to urinary incontinence

84
Q

spastic bladder

A

caused by any spinal cord lesion above the voiding reflex arc; results in a. loss of conscious sensation and cerebral motor control.
a spastic bladder empties on reflex with minimal or no controlling influence to regulate its activity

85
Q

flaccid bladder

A

caused by lower moor neuron lesion, common resulting from trauma; increasingly recognized in pts with DM; the bladder continues to fill and becomes greatly distended and overflow incontinence occurs
the bladder muscle does not contract forcefully at any time, pt feels no discomfort

86
Q

tuberculosis

A

communicable lung disease caused by an infection from Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. Transmitted by airborne droplets

87
Q

Lung abscess

A

necrosis of the pulmonary parenchyma caused by microbial infection, generally caused by aspiration of anaerobic bacteria, by definition the chest x-ray demonstrates a cavity of at least 2cm

88
Q

lung abscess clinical manifestations

A

mild productive cough, fever, foul-smelling/bloody sputum, leukocytosis

89
Q

lung abscess assessment

A

chest may reveal dullness on percussion and decreased or absent breath sound w/ intermittent pleural friction rub; crackles

90
Q

medical management of lung abscess

A
  • drainage of abscess
  • percutaneous chest catheter for long term drainage
  • high protein and caloric diet
  • pulmonary resection (lobectomy) if massive hemoptysis occurs
  • IV antimicrobial therapy
  • long term oral antibiotics
91
Q

Vancomycin

A

ANTIBIOTIC
IV Treats: endocarditis, meningitis, osteomyelitis, pneumonia, septicemia, soft-tissue infections
PO Treats: staphylococcal enterocolitis, or diarrhea from C. diff
Action: Binds to cell wall, resulting in cell death
SE: anaphylaxis, nephrotoxicity, n/v, ototoxicity, hypotension

92
Q

Zyvox

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: complicated skin/suture infections, community acquired pneumonia, nosocomial pneumonia, vancomycin-resistant enterococcus faecium, diabetic foot infections
Action: inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
SE: CDAD, Serotonin syndrome, headache, insomnia, teeth discoloration, lactic acidosis, hypoglycemia, optic/peripheral neuropathy

93
Q

Bactrim (trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole)

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: bronchitis, shigella enteritis, otitis media, PCP, UTI, traveler’s diarrhea
Action: inhibits the metabolism of folic acid in bacteria at 2 different points
SE: CDAD, Hepatic necrosis, stevens-johnson syndrome, aplastic anemia, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, rash, fatigue, hallucinations

94
Q

Amoxicillin

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: skin/suture infections, otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory infections, genitourinary infections, endocarditis prophylaxis, management of ulcer disease due to Helicobacter pylori
Action: binds to bacterial cell wall, causing cell death
SE: seizures, CDAD, anaphylaxis, serum sickness, rash, n/v, blood dycrasias

95
Q

Augmentin

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: skin/suture infections, otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory tract infections, genitourinary tract infections
Action: binds to bacterial cell wall, causing death; spectrum is broader than penicillin
SE: vaginal candidiasis, hepatic disfunction, rash seizures, CDAD, anaphylaxis, serum sickness

96
Q

Levaquin (levofloxacin)

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: UTI, chronic bacterial prostatitis, nosocomial pneumonia, CAP, exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, skin/suture infections, plague
Action: inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase enzyme
SE: elevated intracranial pressure, suicidal thoughts/behaviors, torsade de pointes, tendinitis, hepatotoxicity, CDAD, seizures, rash, anaphylaxis

97
Q

Flagyl (metronidazole)

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: intra-abdominal infections, gynecologic infections, skin/suture infections, lower respiratory tract infections, bone/joint infections, CNS infections, septicemia, endocarditis, acne rosacea, bacterial vaginosis
Action:disrupts DNA and protein synthesis in susceptible organisms
SE: abdominal pain, anorexia, superinfection, furry tongue, seizures, psychosis

98
Q

Macrobid (nitrofurantoin)

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: UTI
Action: interferes with bacterial enzymes
SE: pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, chest pain, dizziness, headache, rust/brown coloration of urine, peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, CDAD

99
Q

Keflex (cephalexin)

A

ANTIBIOTIC
Treats: skin/suture infections, respiratory tract infections, otitis media, UTI, bone infections
Action: binds to bacterial cell wall membrane causing cell death
SE: neutropenia, urticaria, rash, CDAD, seizures, abdominal pain, n/v

100
Q

Diflucan

A

ANTIFUNGAL
Treats: fungal infections caused by serious systemic candid infections, UTI, Peritonitis, Cryptococcal meningitis
Action:inhibits synthesis of fungal sterols, a necessary component of the cell membrane
SE: Hepatotoxicity, dizziness, hypokalemia, hypertriglyceridemia (incidence of adverse reactions is increased in HIV patients)

101
Q

Tylenol

A

ANTIPYRETIC/ANALGESIC
Treats: mild pain, fever
Action: inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins that may serve as mediators of pain and fever, has no significant anti-inflammatory properties or GI toxicity
SE: CNS agitation, insomnia, atelectasis, hypertension, hepatotoxicity, hypokalemia, renal failure, muscle spasms

102
Q

Ibuprofen

A

ANTIPYRETIC/ANALGESIC
Treats: mild pain, fever, rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis, dysmenorrhea
Action: inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, decreased pain, inflammation, and fever
SE: headache, dizziness, drowsiness, blurred vision, myocardial infarction, GI bleeding, hyperkalemia, constipation, anemia, allergic reactions, edema, stroke

103
Q

Isoniazid

A

ANTITUBERCULOSIS
Treats: 1st line therapy of active tuberculosis, prevention of tuberculosis in patients exposed to active disease
Action: inhibits mycobacterial cell wall synthesis and interferes with metabolism
SE: psychosis, seizures, visual disturbances, nausea, drug induced hepatitis, pancreatitis, gynecomastia, peripheral neuropathy, blood dyscrasias

104
Q

Rifampin

A

ANTITUBERCULOSIS
Treats: active tuberculosis, elimination of meningococcal carriers
Action: inhibits RNA synthesis by blocking RNA transcription in susceptible organisms
SE: confusion, fatigue, rash, pruritus, abdominal pain, diarrhea, heartburn, red discoloration of urine, hemolytic anemia, muscle weakness

105
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

ANTITUBERCULOSIS
Treats: used in combination with other agents in the treatment of active tuberculosis
Action: converted to pyrazinoic acid in. susceptible strains of mycobacterium which lowers the pH of the environment
SE: anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, dysuria, acne, itching, photosensitivity, anemia, thrombocytopenia, gouty arthritis

106
Q

Ethambutol

A

ANTITUBERCULOSIS
Treats: active tuberculosis or other mycobacterial diseases
Action: inhibits the growth of mycobacteria
SE: confusion, dizziness, joint pain, pulmonary infiltrates, malaise, vomiting, peripheral neuritis

107
Q

Streptomycin

A

ANTITUBERCULOSIS
Treats: is an anti-infective that combined with other agents in the management of tuberculosis
Action: inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria at level of 30S ribosomes
SE: ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, hypomagnesemia, muscle paralysis

108
Q

Zanamivir

A

ANTIVIRAL
Treats: uncomplicated acute illness caused by influenza virus, prevention of influenza in patients
Action: inhibits the enzyme neuramidase, which may alter virus particle aggregation and release
SE: seizures, agitation, delirium, bronchospasm, allergic reactions, nightmares, abnormal behavior

109
Q

Oseltamivir

A

ANTIVIRAL
Treats: uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza infection, prevention of influenza in patients older than 1 year
Action: inhibits the enzyme neuraminidase, may alter virus particle aggregation and release; reduced duration or prevention of flu-related symptoms
SE: seizures, bronchitis, delirium, insomnia, vertigo, nausea, vomiting, confusion, hallucinations

110
Q

What are four organisms that can cause infection?

A

Bacteria
Viruses
Fungus
Parasites

111
Q

What are some common healthcare acquired infections?

A

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Clostridium difficile (C. diff)
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci (VRE)

112
Q

Common bacteria that cause infections

A 
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) 
Clostridium difficile
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
Corynebacterium diphtheria 
Escherichia coli
113
Q

Common viruses that cause infections

A 
HIV
Hepatitis A,B,C, or E virus 
Human papilloma virus
Ebola virus
Hanta virus
SARS- associated corona virus 
Respiratory syncytial virus
114
Q

Common fungi that cause infections

A 
Tinea pedis
Candidiasis
Histoplasmosis
Lobomycosis
Cryptococcosis 
Aspergillus
Coccidioidomycosis
115
Q

Common parasites or protozoa that can cause infections

A 
Giardiasis 
Trichinosis
Toxoplasmosis 
Malaria 
Ascariasis 
Pediculosis 
Cryptosporidiosis
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
116
Q

Discuss lifespan considerations based on infection. Who is at high risk of infection and why?

A

Children and the elderly are most at risk for developing infection based on age. Children have underdeveloped immune systems which can lead to higher susceptibility to infection. The elderly have their immune system weakened throughout their lives making them easier to be infected

117
Q

What are normal defenses against infection (How does the body protect itself)

A

skin is the first line of defense against potential infectious organisms. Skin is slightly acidic which helps clear off many organisms as well as skin having its own cells that help with immune response. The second line of defense are nonspecific phagocytes and other internal mechanisms that don’t discriminate against pathogens and seek to destroy and invaders. the third line of defense is specific phagocytes that respond to specific antigen fragments.

118
Q

Fifths disease

A

Also known as Erythema infectiosum or slapped cheek symptom. This disease is found mostly in children and is caused by the parvo virus. This disease presents as bright red rash on children on the cheeks which can extend to the arms, thighs, and buttocks; fever can present as well headache, runny nose, and sore throat. Fever can be treated with antipyretics and acetaminophen.

119
Q

Closed reduction

A

Traction and countertraction are manually applied to the bone fragments to restore position, length, and alignment. Performed under local or general ansesthesia then immobilized by traction, casting, external fixation, splints or braces until healed.

120
Q

Casts

A

temporary circumferential immobilization device.

-common treatment following a closed reduction

121
Q

Measles

A

Caused by the Rubeola virus. Presents with reddish brown rash on the pts skin, dry cough, runny nose, generalized body aches, and photophobia. The disease usually goes away on its own but can be treated with analgesics, antibiotics, and vitamin A to help with the symptoms. Patient can be on standard precautions. A vaccine is available to prevent measles.

122
Q

Meningococcus (Meningitis)

A

Meningococcus is an infection that effects the meninges of the brain with symptoms that present as a general poor feeling, sudden high fever, neck stiffness, joint pain, and confusion and other mental changes. The infection can be treated with antibiotics or steroids. The disease can be transmitted through close contact with an infected persons. A vaccine is available to prevent meningococcus.

123
Q

Mononucleosis

A

Also known as Epstein-barr virus. Mononucleosis symptoms present on a patient as swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, fever, extreme fatigue, rash, and swollen liver or spleen or both. Mono can be avoided by avoiding kissing or sharing drinks or personal items with a person effected. Fluids, rest, and OTC medications for fever and pain can be used to treat mono. Standard precautions can be used but avoid saliva or blood.

124
Q

Whooping Cough

A

Also known as pertussis. Whooping Coughs symptoms in the early stages are runny nose, low-grade fever, mild cough, and apnea. Later stages of the disease present as vomiting, exhaustion, and a violent cough followed by a high pitch whooping sound. transmission is through close contact with an infected persons. Vaccines are available to prevent pertussis but if infected antibiotics are used to clear the infection.

125
Q

Rotavirus

A

Rotavirus is a disease that can cause severe diarrhea, vomiting, fever, or abdominal pain. Rotavirus is severe in children but adults usually have milder symptoms. Rota virus spreads through infected persons feces or through contaminated foods. Treatment of the virus include giving fluids to replenish fluids lost or reverse dehydration either through oral route or IV.

126
Q

Chicken Pox

A

Chicken Pox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is highly contagious. The virus presents itself as itchy, fluid filled blisters and rash over the entire body that eventually scab. Other symptoms include fever, tiredness, loss of appetite, and headache. The virus spreads mainly through close contact with an effected persons. A vaccine is used to prevent chicken pox overall but if contracted it is treated with over the counter medications, or if more severe can be treated with antivirals.

127
Q

Describe contact precautions

A

Used for direct and indirect contact with patients and their environment. Contact precautions require a gown and gloves to prevent contaminated objects, liquids, or body fluids from toughing the health care providers skin or mucous membranes. Hand hygiene must be performed after treating and before treating the patient to ensure that the transmission of microorganisms isn’t performed.

128
Q

Lordosis, kyphosis, and scoliosis

A

abnormal curvature of the spine

129
Q

disc herniation

A

vertebral disk is not in line

130
Q

Describe neutropenic precautions

A

Neutropenic precautions are used to prevent illness in patients with neutropenia (low count of neutrophils). Precautions taken during this include avoiding sick people at ALL COSTS. Precautions should be taken with foods as raw should be separated from not raw, washing of fruits and vegetables should be done thoroughly and any meat should be cooked to appropriate temperatures to kill as many microbes as possible. Hands should be washed frequently and food refrigerated immediately. If any signs of sickness are seen contact health provider immediately.

131
Q

Spinal stenosis

A

narrowing of the spinal column (vertebral spaces) nerve impingement, pressure on entire spinal cord, weakness or paralysis may result

132
Q

Mononucleosis

A

Also known as Epstein-barr virus. Mononucleosis symptoms present on a patient as swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, fever, extreme fatigue, rash, and swollen liver or spleen or both.

133
Q

Whooping Cough

A

Also known as pertussis. Whooping Coughs symptoms in the early stages are runny nose, low-grade fever, mild cough, and apnea. Later stages of the disease present as vomiting, exhaustion, and a violent cough followed by a high pitch whooping sound.

134
Q

Rotavirus

A

Rotavirus is a disease that can cause severe diarrhea, vomiting, fever, or abdominal pain. Rotavirus is severe in children but adults usually have milder symptoms. Rota virus spreads through infected persons feces or through contaminated foods. Treatment of the virus include giving fluids to replenish fluids lost or reverse dehydration

135
Q

Chicken Pox

A

Chicken Pox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is highly contagious. The virus presents itself as

136
Q

Describe droplet precautions

A

This precaution focuses on diseases that are transmitted through large droplets expelled into the air from the patient. Standard equipment for droplet precautions is a surgical mask that must be work if within 3 ft of a patient. examples include patients with influenza

137
Q

Describe airborne precautions

A

Focuses on diseases that are transmitted through smaller droplets which remain in the air for longer periods of time. Special rooms with negative pressure are used to house these patients with HEPA filters to trap particles. N95 masks are required to be work whenever entering this patients room.

138
Q

Describe neutropenic precautions

A

Neutropenic precautions are used to prevent illness in patients with neutropenia (low count of neutrophils). Precautions taken during this include avoiding sick people at ALL COSTS. Precautions should be taken with foods as raw should be separated from not raw, washing of fruits and vegetables should be done thoroughly

139
Q

Describe standard precautions

A

Standard precautions treat all human body fluids as infectious. Hands must be cleaned whenever entering or leaving a room. Face must be covered whenever coughing or sneezing.

140
Q

How is hygiene related to infection

A

Standard hygiene such as bathing and oral care significantly reduce the risk of infection by diminishing the number of pathogens present on body surfaces

141
Q

How is nutrition related to infection

A

Proper nutrition is quintessential to maintaining energy for the body to fight off infections as well as having an adequate fluid and electrolyte balance to maintain loss from vomiting a diarrhea and reduce the effects of fever

142
Q

How are fluids related to infection

A

Fluids are essential to stay hydrated during an infection If fever, vomiting, or diarrhea are present especially

143
Q

How is sleep related to infection

A

Sleep provides a resting period for your body to conserve and recover energy lost during infection and maybe fight the infection itself

144
Q

How is stress related to infection

A

Stress affects your metabolism, hormones, and immune system leading to higher susceptibility to infections

145
Q

How are immunizations related to infection

A

Immunizations are a primary prevention in preventing infections. Immunizations inoculate the host with either live or dead pathogens below the infectious dose to accumulate the immune system to the pathogen in case it is ever exposed to it again. When the immune system is exposed to the pathogen again defenses should already be in place to combat the invaders.

146
Q

What signs and symptoms would you expect to see if a patient is experiencing an infection? Are there any age related differences?

A

Patient experiencing an infection will likely have a feeling of general uneasiness, fever, increased heart rate and respiratory rates can occur. Lab readings can include increased WBC, increased antibodies, and growth on culture plates if certain types of infectious agents. The young and elderly will have a harder time communicating if they feel uneasy due to the young either not having the vocabulary to describe their feelings as well as having increased vital signs already and the elderly not being as susceptible to pain or sensitivity

147
Q

How does a WBC count relate to infection

A

Normal white blood cell counts are around 5000-10000/mm3. A reading above or below the average levels could be indicative of an infection

148
Q

How does a culture and sensitivity test relate to infection

A

Culture and sensitivity tests are used to cultivate infectious agents onto a growable substance to be identified and be exposed to multiple agents to find which one will have the strongest effect on the pathogen

149
Q

X-Ray

A

bones show up as white areas

150
Q

Arthrogram

A

dye required to view joint structures: tendons, ligaments, cartilage

151
Q

MRI

A

Radio waves and magnetic field view of soft tissue

152
Q

Arthroscopy

A

an endoscopy of joints with local or general anesthesia

153
Q

Arthrocentesis

A

insertion of a needle into a join space to remove fluid, obtain a specimen, or instill medication

154
Q

Bone scan

A

after injection, a radioisotope is taken up by bone and 2 hours later a camera scans the body front and back

155
Q

Alkaline Phosphate

A

serum level of enzyme that is made by osteoblasts to mineralize bone

156
Q

Calcium

A

serum level of substance stored in bone that makes bone rigid

157
Q

Phosphorus

A

serum level of substance that mineralizes bones and teeth

158
Q

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

A

serum test for inflammation

159
Q

Uric Acid

A

serum level for end product of purine metabolism

160
Q

dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

A

special x-ray used to evaluate bone density

161
Q

What joints are usually involved in osteoarthritis?

A

cervical vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, hips, first carpometacarpal, distal interphalangeal, knees, first metatasophlangeal

162
Q

What are some clinical signs that a patient has fractured a hip?

A
  • shortened leg
  • externally rotated hip
  • pain
  • unable to bear weight
163
Q

Cauda equina syndrome (CES)

A

a condition that occurs when the bundle of nerves below the end of the spinal cord known as the cauda equina is damaged

164
Q

What Causes Sciatica?

A
  • Lumbar spinal stenosis (narrowing of the spinal canal in the lower back)
  • Degenerative disc disease (breakdown of discs, which act as cushions between the vertebrae)
  • Spondylolisthesis (a condition in which one vertebra slips forward over another one)
  • Pregnancy.
  • Muscle spasm in the back or buttocks.
165
Q

Heberden’s nodes

A

are hard or bony swellings that can develop in the distal interphalangeal joints

166
Q

Bouchard nodes

A

are hard, bony outgrowths or gelatinous cysts on the proximal interphalangeal joints (the middle joints of fingers or toes)

167
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Incomplete fracture. The broken bone is not completely separated (most common in children)

168
Q

Transverse fracture

A

The break is in a straight line across the bone

169
Q

Spiral fracture

A

The break spirals around the bone; common in a twisting injury

170
Q

Oblique fracture

A

Diagonal break across the bone

171
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

The break is in three or more pieces and fragments are present at the fracture site.

172
Q

Segmental fracture

A

The same bone is fractured in two places, so there is a “floating” segment of bone.

173
Q

Arthroplasty

A

total joint replacement

174
Q

pathological fracture

A

spontaneous fracture from bone disease

175
Q

impacted fracture

A

occurs when the broken ends of the bone are jammed together by the force of the injury

176
Q

what is crepitation

A

grating sound as joint or bone moves

177
Q

talipes equinovarus (TEV)

A

clubfoot; is a common foot abnormality, in which the foot points downward and inward. The condition is present at birth, and involves the foot and lower leg

178
Q

talipes valgus

A

a congenital deformity of the foot in which it is rotated inward so that walking is done on the inner side of the sole

179
Q

talipes varus

A

a congenital deformity of the foot in which it is rotated outward so that walking is done on the outer side of the sole

180
Q

what are the causes of clubfoot?

A

is mainly idiopathic, which means that the cause is unknown. Genetic factors are believed to play a major role, and some specific gene changes have been associated with it, but this is not yet well understood

181
Q

What is the treatment for clubfoot?

A

Treatment is usually successful. It includes stretching and casting (Ponseti method) or stretching and taping (French method). Sometimes, surgery is needed.

182
Q

what is a Denis brown splint?

A

Denis Browne bar, also known as the Denis Browne splint or foot abduction orthosis, is a medical device used in the treatment of club foot

183
Q

Hip dysplasia

A

is the medical term for a hip socket that doesn’t fully cover the ball portion of the upper thighbone. This allows the hip joint to become partially or completely dislocated. Most people with hip dysplasia are born with the condition.

184
Q

what are the causes for hip dysplasia?

A

causes are mainly related to loose hips around the time of birth. This is often due to normal hormones that help relax ligaments to make childbirth easier.

185
Q

Trendelenburg’s sign

A

s found in people with weak or paralyzed abductor muscles of the hip, namely gluteus medius and gluteus minimus, is said to be positive if, when standing on one leg (the ‘stance leg’), the pelvis drops on the side opposite to the stance leg.

186
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

A

is a genetic bone disorder characterized by fragile bones that break easily. It is also known as “brittle bone disease.”

187
Q

Causes of OI

A

mutations in genes reduce the amount of type I collagen produced in the body, which causes bones to be brittle and to fracture easily.

188
Q

Cerebral palsy (CP)

A

is a group of disorders that affect movement and muscle tone or posture

189
Q

what are the causes of CP

A

caused by damage that occurs to the immature brain as it develops, most often before birth

190
Q

zzSpastic cerebral palsy

A

the most common type of cerebral palsy. The muscles of people with spastic cerebral palsy feel stiff and their movements may look stiff and jerky. Spasticity is a form of hypertonia, or increased muscle tone

191
Q

Athetoid cerebral palsy

A

(also known as “dyskinetic cerebral palsy”) is a movement disorder caused by damage to the developing brain. This type of cerebral palsy is characterized by abnormal, involuntary movement. Children with athetoid CP fluctuate between hypertonia and hypotonia.

192
Q

Ataxic cerebral palsy

A

a type of cerebral palsy that affects a person’s balance, coordination, and depth perception. The definition of, Ataxia, means “incoordination” or being “without order.”

193
Q

What medications are possibly prescribed for a child with OI? What is the action of each of them?

A
  • Calcitonin - inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption
  • biphosphonates - to increase bone mass
  • growth hormones - to stimulate growth
194
Q

What are the five P’s to be assessed on a fracture

A 
Pulse
Pallor
Paranesthesia 
Pain  
Paralysis
195
Q

What does ORIF stand for

A

Open reduction, internal fixation

196
Q

What is Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

A

Benign Prostate Hyperplasia is the swelling of the prostate that causes dysuria, nocturnia, bladder distention,urinary retention, postvoid dribbling, and weak streams. Ways to diagnose BPH are by a digital rectal exam, urine flowrate test, pressure flow study, cystoscopy, and PSA tests. BPH can be treated with medications or surgery, or it can just be monitored to see if any growth or further problems occur.

197
Q

What are urinary calculi

A

Urinary calculi are stones formed in the kidney from Uric acid, calcium phosphate, calcium oxalate, struvite, and cystine. Symptoms of urinary calculi include dull aching flank pain, gradual or partial obstructed urinary flow, and gross hematuria. A UTI may also accompany urinary calculi. Renal calculi can be diagnosed by a renal ultrasonography, by blood tests, or a 24 hour urine test. urinary calculi can be treated by surgical means, or extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy but some stones can just be passed naturally. prevention of stones can be done by dietary changes and maintaining adequate fluid intake.

198
Q

What is a bowel obstruction

A

A bowel obstruction is formed when stool is unable to pass through the bowels due to a physical obstruction or a problem with the bowel itself. a bowel obstruction can be diagnosed by assessing for bowel distention, Hyperactive bowel sounds above the obstruction, hypoactive bowel sounds below the obstruction, and bowel pain. Diagnosing of a bowel obstruction can be done by palpating for a mass, a CBC, or an x-ray. a bowel obstruction can be treated with pain meds, IV fluids, NG tube decompression, or surgical intervention if severe enough. Obstructions can be prevented by increasing fluid intake as well as proper nutrition and staying active

199
Q

What is celiac disease

A

Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where the body reacts negatively to gluten and produces antibodies to combat it. unfortunately this leans to the destruction of the microvilli of the intestinal wall. symptoms of celiac disease are Mouth ulcers, anemia, lactose intolerance, nausea and vomiting, osteo changes, unexplained slow growth, rashes, irregular periods, stools greasy, hair loss, enamel issues, and diarrhea. Celiac disease is diagnosed by endoscopy or an antibody test. Preventing reactions from this disease are done by avoiding gluten.

Nursing 113 (5 decks)

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