Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of MAP

A

The cuff pressure at which amplitude of oscillations is the highest

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2
Q

What are size requirements for BP cuff?

A

Bladder width should be 40% of extremity Bladder length should be 80% of extremity

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3
Q

As BP cuff moves peripherally, SBP _________ and DBP _________.

A

SBP increases DBP decreases

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4
Q

For every 1 inch change in level of BP cuff in relation to the heart, how much does the pressure change?

A

1 inch=2 mm Hg change So elevated above heart 1 inch, will read 2 mm Hg lower than actual P. Lower 1 inch below heart, will read 2 mm Hg higher than actual P.

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5
Q

Which positions are contraindicated for use of a calf BP?

A

Sitting or reverse Trendelenburg; BP will read normal but will be much lower at level of heart and patient is at high risk for cerebral ischemia.

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6
Q

T/F Abnormal artery flow after removal of A-line is a frequent occurrence.

A

True. May take 30-70 days to normalize.

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7
Q

How to decrease risk associated w/ A lines? (4)

A

Low catheter to artery size ratio Continuous saline infusion at 2-3 mL/hr Minimize flushing Use aseptic technique

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8
Q

How to assess adequate perfusion on ipsilateral hand as A-line is present?

A

Pulse oximetry to assess continuous perfusion on ipsilateral finger.

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9
Q

Where is the phlebostatic axis?

A

4th ICS, mid anteroposterior level

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10
Q

Why do we place the transducer at the level of the ear in a sitting position?

A

This is the location of the Circle of Willis and measures arterial pressure at the base of the brain.

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11
Q

As the pulse moves peripherally, the arterial waveform becomes __________

A

distorted

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12
Q

The dicrotic notch on the A line aligns with what ECG event?

A

The end of the T wave. It signals end systole and closure of aortic valve; the IABP also inflates during this mark as this is when diastole is beginning.

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13
Q

The frequency of the arterial system should be higher/lower than the artery for proper function?

A

Higher. Adding extra tubing, stopcocks, and air in the tubing can decrease the frequency of the system making it unreliable and overdamped. If you increase the frequency of the system, this could lead to underdamping.

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14
Q

What are some physiological causes of underdamped Arterial line tracings?

A

Poor vascular compliance Severe hypothermia Some dysrhythmias *Can overestimate BP by 15-30 mmHg and amplify artifact*

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15
Q

What is an optimum square wave test?

A

1-2 oscillations before return to tracing Underdamped: >2 Overdamped: <1

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16
Q

Which lung zone should the PAC be in? What does this mean?

A

Zone 3 PA>PV>Palv The zones are gravity dependent changes in V/Q in the lung. Zone 3 means that pulmonary arterial pressures are higher than venous, which are higher than pulmonary alveolar pressures. These zones change with patient position so a seated pt Zone 3 is in the lung bases but a patient lying down it will be the posterior lung fields.

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17
Q

Which factors increase CVP?

A

Transducer below phlebostatic axis VSD Hypervolemia RV failure Pericarditis Tamponade Pulmonic stenosis TR/stenosis PEEP

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18
Q

How do you put a patient in Durant’s position?

A

Left lateral decubitus and Trendelenburg

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19
Q

Which patients would benefit from IJ CVC over SC?

A

Those w/ coagulopathy would benefit from IJ b/c can hold pressure over site; those with lung disease/injury d/t increased risk of pneumo.

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20
Q

What is the Fabian test?

A

Connecting tubing to the CVC prior to threading catheter to ensure venous cannulation. The blood is allowed to fill the tubing and then held up against gravity-arterial blood will flow up the tubing column but venous blood will flow downward or stay static.

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21
Q

Entry into RV from RA is indicated by?

A

Rapid rise in SBP, from 0-8 to 20-30 mm Hg

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22
Q

Entry into the PA from the RV is indicated by?

A

Rapid rise in DBP; from 0-8 to 8-15, as well as the appearance of a dicrotic notch that was absent in the RV.

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23
Q

Where is cold injectate introduced during thermodilution?

A

Right atrium…it is measured at the tip of PAC for T change

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24
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring CO?

A

Thermodilution w/ PAC

25
Q

CO and SVO2 levels are directly/indirectly related?

A

Directly; increased CO2=increased SVO2

26
Q

Which factors increase SVO2?

A

Septic shock Paralysis Anesthesia Hypothermia Increased CO Increased Hgb Sedation

27
Q

Which factors decrease SVO2?

A

Cardiogenic shock Seizures Decreased Hgb Shivering Hyperthermia Decreased CO

28
Q

What are contraindications for IABP?

A

Severe aortic regurg Aortic aneurysm Severe PVD

29
Q

IABP balloon inflation is timed with what? IABP deflation?

A

Inflation=dicrotic notch of arterial waveform or T wave Deflation=peak of R wave

30
Q

How long can ECMO be used?

A

up to 30 days

31
Q

What is ventricular discordance?

A

The increase in RV diastolic/filling pressures during inspiration and decrease in LV DP. Increase in LV filling pressure during expiration and decrease in RV. This is the equalization of filling pressures that is seen on heart cath as well.

32
Q

T/F After a pericardiotomy for constrictive pericarditis, you will have an immediate improvement in symptoms, CO, and RA pressures.

A

False. May not see actual improvement for up to 3 months. CO may stay low and RAP may stay elevated.

33
Q

What are the 4 causes of tamponade?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. CV Surgery
  3. Mediastinal malignancy
  4. Expanding effusion after pericarditis
34
Q

Is CVP increased or d/c in tamponade? What about SV?

A

CVP is increased d/t compression of RA and RV by pericardial fluid.

SV is decreased as well and therefore the only way to increase CO is to increase HR

35
Q

How can a PAC indicate tamponade?

A

Equilibriation of R and L atrial pressures and RVEDP at about 20 mm Hg.

36
Q

What is the choice technique for anesthesia in tamponade?

A

Local anesthesia d/t risk of hypotension and cardiac arrest with GA d/t depression and vasodilation. Also, PPV decreases CVP and CO After pericardiocentesis is performed and HD status is improved, can place under GA and continue exploration (Stoelting).

37
Q

What are anesthetic goals for tamponade?

A

Maintain or increase contractiity

Maintain HR

Maintain or increase preload

Maintain afterload

Ketamine is ideal induction agent d/t SNS tone; also can use Epi for inotrope and chronotrope support

38
Q

PCWP will be less than LVEDP in patients with which valve problem?

A

Aortic regurgitation. PCWP will underestimate LVEDP b/c the regurg is into the LV and won’t affect the LA with a competent mitral valve (Valley)

39
Q

What is the relationship b/w preload, LVEDV, PAOP, LVEDP, and LADP?

A

In absence of mitral stenosis or Pulm HTN

PAOP=LADP=LVEDP=LVEDV=Preload

ANY OF THE PAC MEASUREMENTS ARE INDIRECT INDICATORS OF PRELOAD

40
Q

Does PCWP accurately reflect LVEDP with mitral stenosis?

A

No, it overestimates LVEDP. MV stenosis impedes flow into LV so LVEDP is lower than PCWP.

41
Q

What is the most common intraoperative complication for paients with HTN?

A

Hypotension, esp if taking ACE or ARB

42
Q

Which BP category is 125/75

A

Elevated

120-129 AND <80

43
Q

Which BP category is 130/80?

A

Stage 1 High Blood Pressure

130-139 OR 80-89

44
Q

Which BP category is 146/90?

A

Stage 2 HTN

140+ SBP OR 90+ DBP

45
Q

Which BP category is 185/110?

A

Hypertensive Crisis

180+ AND/OR 120+

46
Q

What are the 2 potential complications of Malignant HTN?

A

Encephalopathy and Papilledema

47
Q

Risk of CV disease doubles w/ each ___/____ increase in BP? Over which BP does this become significant?

A

20/15 mm Hg

115/75

48
Q

Which drug inhibits distal convoluted tubule sodium and chloride resorption?

A

Thiazide diuretics; HCTZ and Indapamide

49
Q

Where do potassium sparing diuretics exert their effects?

A

They antagonize aldosterone specific mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal convoluted tubule, decreasing Na and H20 reabsorption and increasing K+ retention

50
Q

Where do loop diuretics exert their effect? What is their MOA?

A

Inhibit Loop of Henle and proximal and distal convoluted tubules Na+ and Cl- resorption

Furosemide, ethacrynic acid

51
Q

List 4 nonselective Beta blockers

A

Propranolol

Nadolol

Timolol

Pindolol

52
Q

List 3 selective Beta 1 blockers

A

Metoprolol

Atenolol

Esmolol

53
Q

List 2 drugs which block both alpha and beta receptor. What are benefits of blocking both of these receptors?

A

Labetolol

Coreg

Alpha 1 blocker and nonselective Beta blocker; lowers SVR and prevents reflect tachycardia due to eta 1 blockade

54
Q

List 2 alpha 2 agonists.

A

Clonidine

Methyldopa

55
Q

What are the 3 classes of CCBs? List examples of each class.

A

Benzothiazapine (Diltiazem)

Phenylalkylamine (Verapamil)

Dihydropyridine (Amlodipine, Nicardipine)

56
Q

Where do benzothiazepines exert their effects? Name a drug in this class.

A

Decreases the conduction velocity through the AV node by prolonging the refractory perid.

Diltiazem, which is a 1st line medication to treat SVT. It also is a vasodilator for essential HTN and reduces peripheral vascular resistance.

57
Q

Where do phenylalkylamines exert their action? List one drug in this class. In which situations should these drugs not be given?

A

Depress the AV node, negative inotropic effect, and moderate vasodilating effect on coronary and systemic arteries.

Verapamil

*Should not be given to patients in HF or with severe bradycardia, SA node, dysfuction, or AV block, and WPW syndrome.

58
Q

Where do dihydropyridines exert their effects? List examples of these drugs.

A

Selective for peripheral arteriolar beds.

Nicardipine and Amlodipine

Nicardipine has the greatest vasodilating effect of all CCBs, lacks SA and AV node activity.

59
Q
A