Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal Medicine > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Syncope is

A

transient diffuse brain malfunction with spontaneous recovery (loss of consciousness and postural tone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Breeds- narcolepsy

A

poodle, lab, dobie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Syncope vs seizure

A

Sync- sudden, during activity, shorter duration; seizure- pre-ictal, starts at rest,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Radiation pattern of pulmonic stenosis

A

Radiates dorsally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is a murmur from PDA heard best

A

Left side, very cranial under triceps mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is a VSD murmur heard

A

Sternally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Radiation pattern of aortic stenosis

A

Cranially up neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Murmur heard at apex is likely which valve(s)

A

Mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Murmur heard at base is like which valve(s)

A

Aortic or pulmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Px of idiopathic syncope

A

Good unless Boxer/Dobie/Dane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Syncope ddx for respiratory- hypoxia (3)

A

LarPar, obstruction, pleural space dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Syncope ddx for respiratory- pulmonary hypertension (2)

A

HWD, MVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Syncope- respiratory ddx categories (5)

A

Hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, parasites, cough, hyperventilation, (humans: hyperventilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pathophys of cough-induced syncope

A

Increased thoracic pressure reduces venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ddx syncope parasite

A

Oslerus osleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peripheral vascular dysfunction ddx for syncope (3)

A

Neurocardiogenic syncope, carotid sinus syncope, postural hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name a type of neurocardiogenic syncope and describe its pathophys

A

vasovagal syncope (esp in Boxers): adrenergic surge during exercise/strong ventricular contractions leads to increased BP, resulting in reflex bradycardia or vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hematological ddx for syncope (3)

A

anemia, polycythemia, myeloproliferative dz (esp myeloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Endocrine causes of syncope (4)

A

Hypo/er-adrenocorticism, DM, insulinoma(CKCS)/hyperinsulinemia, pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Neuro ddx for syncope

A

emboli/thrombi, space-occupying lesions, atherosclerosis (2* to hypoT4 increased fat), seizures, brain/vestib dz, narcolepsy, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Iatrogenic syncope causes

A

Digoxin, vasodilators (phenothiazines, acepromazine, Ca channel blockers, beta blockers, rare ACEi), quinidine, class 3 heart agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phys of class 3 heart drugs and syncope, examples

A

sotalol, K-channel blockers- prolonged Q-T (repolarization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug beside class three heart Rx causes prolonged Q-T which can cause iatrogenic syncope

A

Cisapride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What two shunts can cause cyanosis

A

VSD and R to L PDA, +/- PS (with pulmonary hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which AV valve dysplasia has worse Px

A

Ao worse than pulm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pericardial effusion can cause syncope by

A

Diastolic collapse of RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Four bradyarrhythmic ddx of syncope

A

Sinus bradycardia, sick sinus syndrome (CKCS sudden death), AV blocks, persistent atrial standstill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe 2nd* AV block ECG

A

Fixed PR interval with occasional pauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe 3rd* AV block ECG

A

No P-R association, slow rate, ventricular escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SYNCOPE CONTINUED

A

SYNCOPE CONTINUED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Decreased production ddx- hypoproteinemia

A

liver dysfunction, mal-dig/abs and starvation, inflam dz (mild bc acute phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Increased loss ddx- hypoproteinemia

A

renal, intestinal, third space, burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Main ddx categories for hypoproteinemia in young dogs

A

Congenital, infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Main ddx categories for hypoproteinemia in older dogs

A

inflammatory, neoplasia, metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Most common cause of hypoglobulinemia

A

PLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dx test to eval liver in hypoprot

A

Start with chem,+/- bile acids, CT angiography for PSS, Bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

5 major concerns with hypoproteinemic patient

A

lower anesthetic drug requirement, more susceptible to fluid overload (LOOK UP), wound dehiscence, thromboemboli from lost antithrombin, hemorrhage from hepatic failure/clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be higher in fluid than serum in abd’centesis to be chyle

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When would you not want to do bile acid testing in hypoproteinemia

A

panhypoprot, other liver fxn markers WNL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is bile acid testing indicated in hypoprot

A

low alb/norm glob; low BUN, low chem fxn tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What breed is overrepresented in lymphangiectasia

A

Yorkie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx lymphangiectasia (hypoprot lecture)

A

Low fat diet +/- course of steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Causes of lymphangiectasia

A

IBD, neo, congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where does thermoregulation take place in the brain

A

Anterior hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two metabolic ways of increased heat production by thermoregulatory center in brain

A

catecholamine and thyroxine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Any elevation in core body temp due to production >loss is

A

Hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define pyrogenic hyperthermia

A

FEVER! Change in regulatory set point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Three non-pyrogenic types of hyperthermia

A

Inadequate loss, exercise induced, pathologic/pharmacologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Name four exogenous pyrogens

A

Infectious agents (and LPS), immune complexes, inflammation, drugs (tetracyclone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F exogenous proteins can directly cause hyperthermia

A

False- they stimulate endogenous pyrogen release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the four main endogenous pyrogens

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF, IFN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe endogenous pyrogen pathway

A

Monocytes release cytokines which bind to vasc. endothelial cells in ant. hypothal, producing PGE1 and 2, and set point is altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Criteria for FUO

A

Temp elevated, no spontaneous resolution, no determined cause on full initial workups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Top three ddx categories for FUO

A

Infection, imm-med’d, neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Negative prognostic indicators in parvo (5+)

A

NEURO signs, C-reactive protein (not sen/spec); CS: V, leth, hypoALb, lymphopenia (2 more days hops), low cholesterol, poor maintenance of WBC count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Tx in CPV (7)

A

Replacement fluids, 1/4 shock dose; unasyn + aminoglycosides; anti-emetics; PPI/H2-blocker; +/- analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tx CPV outpatient (4)

A

IV resuscitation, one cefovecin SQ, maropitant SID q 5d, SQ fluids prn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Avg water requirement, adjustment factors (4)

A

1 (-2) mL/kcal; 1.8 mL if overweight, hot; ) 0.5 mL/kcal for very cold; 2x as much bc poor concentrating ability until 11wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

IV Maintenance fluid rate for parvo patient -adlut, puppy

A

1 mL/kcal at 1 mL/lb/hour - adult (2x that for puppy +deficit%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Shortcut math - 1/4 deficit

A

10 mL/lb bolus, then 2-5 mL/lb/h (or more with losses) per hour to replace rest of deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Disinfectant for parvo, shedding info

A

Bleach (1:30 >10min), trifectant, steam (shedding for weeks, survives for ~5 months on fomites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Distemper disinfectant

A

Any disinfectant, shedding two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Convalescent titers-

A

Need 4 fold increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Lepto titers, high certainty start-point

A

800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Main CS lepto

A

vasculitis/edema/SIRS/fever; kidney, liver, LPHS (pulmonary hemorrhage syndrome); meningitis/uveitis/pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CSF fluid in FIP

A

Very high protein (>200), high WBC (neut&raquo_space;L, M); risk of herniation during collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Strength of RT PCR testing in FIP

A

Good for detecting FCoV shedding in feces (cant tell benign from fulminant-form), presence of ORF or org out of GI doesnt indicate risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Histo dx of FIP

A

Corona virus found with immunohistochem in pyogranulomatous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Best dx for FIP besides histo

A

Rivalta test (> FCoV Ab, A:G ratio, IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Why is FIP-IN vax not effective

A

labeled for 16+wks and exposure likely earlier- wont work after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Breeds- FIP

A

Persian/Birman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Chance of 2nd cat in home getting infected with FIP

A

All will be seropositive, but no more risk due to exposure (unless genetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Syncope- tx vtach

A

IV lidocaine 2 mg/kg up to 4 times, may give K; esmolol (short B-bl) or sotalol (class 3) may also help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which escape rhythm is supraventricular

A

Junctional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Ddx right axis shift

A

PS, HWD, pulm hypertension, VSD, TofF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What dx for 3* AV block

A

borelia titer, echo for MVDz, infectious dz PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Ddx afib

A

ANY cause of LAE- DCM, HCM, MVD, idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Ddx electrical alternans

A

Pericardial eff, pleural eff, SVT/AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most dogs with Afib respond to what Tx

A

Digoxin and diltiazem (NO B-blockers in CHF!)

80
Q

Define v-tach

A

> 3 VPCs

81
Q

Differentiate VTach and ventricular escape

A

If escape control of SA node,

82
Q

Ventricular vs junctional escape

A

Junctional (40-60), ventricular (20-40)

83
Q

No p wave- ddx

A

Atrial standstill > sinus arrest

84
Q

Why would a junctional escape be a slower rate than expected?

A

Conduction issue compounding- such as RBBB

85
Q

Atrial standstill ddx

A

Hyperkalemia, myocarditis (lyme, trypan, rickett, bartonella), cardiomyopathy (EngSprSp), doxorubicin

86
Q

When should VTach be treated

A

CS of dec. CO, R on T, multifocal,

87
Q

Define neonate time periods

A

Neonatal: birth-2w; transitional: 2-4w; socialization: 4-12w; juvenile: 12w-puberty

88
Q

When do dog eyelids open

A

5-14 d

89
Q

When do ear canals open

A

6-14 d

90
Q

When can puppies walk/U/BM spontaneously

A

14-21 d (extensor dominance at 5 days)

91
Q

When is PCR like adult

A

8w

92
Q

When is renal function like adults

A

8 w

93
Q

When is liver function like adults

A

4-5 m

94
Q

Normal temps for neonates

A

96-97F for weeks 1-2; 100F at 4w

95
Q

Appropriate puppy weight gain

A

Double body weight in 10 d (5-10%/d); (Toy 100-200g, large 400-500g, giant 700g)

96
Q

Appropriate kitten weight

A

100g at birth, double in 2 weeks (10-15g/day); 1 lb/month for 4 months (Slower in formula fed)

97
Q

When should neonates be weighed?

A

12 h after birth, then daily for 2 weeks

98
Q

Ddx categories for failure for neonate to grow

A

genetic, insuff nutrient, excessive nutrient loss, metabolic abnormalities

99
Q

Neonate water turnover

A

2-3x adult

100
Q

Dx dehydration in neonate

A

Dryness of oral/ocular MM or USG

101
Q

Menace develops at

A

2-3m (starts developing at 3w)

102
Q

Eval PLR in neonates at

A

21 days

103
Q

When can you do otoscopic exam on young

A

> 4w

104
Q

When should large breed puppy have ortho exam

A

Regularly from 2-6 months

105
Q

Circulatory differences in neonates

A

Less BP, SC, PVR; Greater HR, CO, CVP

106
Q

Normal neonate HR/RR

A

220 bpm with 15-35RR for first 4 weeks

107
Q

Parameters for physio murmur in young; when to assess

A

Gr 1-3, early left basilar systolic; assess if present at 3m

108
Q

What would indicate lung pathology in young

A

Absence or asymmetry of lung sounds

109
Q

Three most common neonate issues

A

Hypothermia, hypoglycemia, sepsis

110
Q

What is the critical neonate group

A

Lost >10% birth weight at 24 hours- needs feeding/fluids/nursing

111
Q

Best way to assess neonate hearing

A

BAER at >6w

112
Q

When do neonate teeth erupt

A

3-4 weeks

113
Q

Testicles should be present by

A

16 w

114
Q

When are all postural reactions present

A

6-8 weeks

115
Q

Parameters of viability scoring

A

2 pts each: Activity/mm. tone, pulse/HR, stress reflexes, MM color, RR

116
Q

Viability scoring

A

0-3 weak, 4-6 moderate, 7-10 normal

117
Q

When are lab tests similar to adults

A

4 m

118
Q

Neonate PCV

A

higher than puppy or adult (42%)

119
Q

Neonate rads differences-

A

patially mineralized bones, soft tissue thin, 75% water- decreased kvp to half of adult at same thickness

120
Q

When: solid food? wean?

A

Solid: 3w, wean 6-8w

121
Q

Causes of sepsis in neonate

A

Gram -ve to blood via GI, resp, UT, skin infxn

122
Q

Dx neonate sepsis

A

Hx/PE- umbilicus pucture wounds; MDB; bands in buffy coat, UA, cultures

123
Q

When should client call vet

A

crying for 20 min when not alone, refusing nursing

124
Q

Breeds- neonate renal dysplasia

A

Dogs> cats (lhasa, shih, wheaten, poodle)

125
Q

Renal dysplasia- neonate causes

A

in utero panleuk, herpesvirus

126
Q

Origin of DI in neonate

A

Hypothalamus or nephrogenic

127
Q

CS appearance of PSS in young

A

Puppies- 6-8w; kittens by 6 months; variable CS, ascites/icterus rare

128
Q

Kitten breeds for PSS

A

Himalayan, persian, mixed

129
Q

Most consistent kitten signs of PSS

A

Hypersalivation, seizure, ataxia, tremor, depression; 2/3 will be small/thin/unkempt;
(less: blindness, mydriasis, V/D/Anorex, non-specific)

130
Q

Kitten ddx for PSS

A

ARF, UTdz, hypoglycemia, electrolytes

131
Q

Most reliable way to dx PSS in neonate

A

Fasted pre/post bile acids

132
Q

Causes of pancreatitis in <6m

A

Trauma, parvo, FIP

133
Q

Dog deciduous formula

A

I 3/3, C 1/1, P3/3

134
Q

Dog permanent formula

A

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3 (Gain P1/1, M 2/3)

135
Q

Kitten deciduous formula

A

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2

136
Q

Kitten permanent formula

A

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1 (gain M 1/1)

137
Q

Where are caries most commonly found

A

Maxillary molars

138
Q

What is wear from occluding tooth

A

Attrition (vs abrasion from external source)

139
Q

When to extract discolored teeth

A

If on rads: lg pulp chmber, resportion into oral cavity, apical lucency (if no dz, recheck 6m-1yr)

140
Q

Cat- first tooth involved in resorption

A

mandibular 3rd premolar

141
Q

What is resorption in cats

A

Odontoclast resorption of cementum (alv bone fused to cementum, no periodontal ligament)

142
Q

When can crown amputation be done in cat resorption (when can’t it?)

A

Ankylosis and no stomatitis, no visible periodontal ligament- Type 2; Cant in type 1, when periodontal ligament is in place)

143
Q

Cause of resorption in dogs

A

Trauma, malocclusion, orthodontic force, inflammation

144
Q

When can dog crown amp be done in resorption

A

If root indistinct (ankylosis)

145
Q

Dog- patterns of resorption

A

Internal - starts in root canal, +/- tooth turns pink; External- starts apically (common in premolars); odontoclastic- like cats, least common, less important

146
Q

6 indications for Abx in periodontal dz

A

Ulceration, severe +/- osteomyelitis, systemic dz, additional sx, bone implants, pulp capping/root canal (for 5-7d)

147
Q

Dx testing values affected by oral dz

A

ALT, ALP, AST (1.5-2x normal), TP (glob), BUN

148
Q

Tx cat stomatitis

A

Prophylaxis, Abx, pain rx, anti-inflam, extractions (distal to canines), home care +/- antiinflam or laster tx to remove proliferative tissue

149
Q

Weaned kitten feeding recommendation

A

TID, no supplementation

150
Q

What Abx in neonate sepsis

A

B-lactams (penicillin, cephalosporins)

151
Q

What Rx causes abnormal teeth/bone development in young animals

A

Tetracyclines

152
Q

What rx causes arthropathy, anemia, skin rxn, KCS in young animals

A

TMS

153
Q

Why shouldnt gentamycin be used in young

A

Nephrotoxicity

154
Q

When are dogs most sensitive to enrofloxacin

A

Up to 28 weeks (7m)

155
Q

Why are beta lactams the antimicrobial of choice

A

prolonged half life, large therapeutic index

156
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis- clinical course

A

Sudden death in first day w/o CS; stop nursing in first 3 days (red urine, icterus, anemia, fading to death in first week); tail tip necrosis in survivors

157
Q

What are the main viruses in young

A

parvo, corona, herpes, adeno, calici, retro, morbilli

158
Q

Normal gingival sulcus depths- dog and cat

A

Dog: 1-3mm, Cat: 0.5-1mm

159
Q

2 most common periodontal dz anaerobes

A

Peptostreptococcus, porphyromonas

160
Q

Most likely oral pathogens

A

Strep, staph, pasteurella, candida, spirochetes

161
Q

Name three Abx for periodontal infection

A

Clavamox, clindamycin, doxycycline

162
Q

If you found white plaque-like lesions on the tongue/mucosa, what would you likely diagnose

A

Mycotic stomatitis

163
Q

Cause of mycotic stomatitis

A

Candida albicans overgrowth

164
Q

Lepto Abx and course duration for oral ulcers

A

For two weeks:

‘cillins (peni, amoxi, ampi) and ‘cyclines (doxy, tetra); For 1 week: azithromycin

165
Q

Granulomatous, yellow white lesions on tongue or mm- dx

A

blastomyces dermatidis

166
Q

Tx oral blasto

A

Itraconazole for 2 months

167
Q

CS of renal uremia in mouth

A

Pressure point ulcerations

168
Q

Most severe poisoning affecting oral health; CS

A

Thallium- malaise, facial/oral erythema, severe pain

169
Q

What is Plant awns from the hair coat causing oral trauma

A

phytogranulomatosis

170
Q

Main CS from oral trauma

A

pawing, ineffectual swallowing

171
Q

What type of stomatitis requires early, aggressive tx

A

Abyss/Pers/Siam/MCoon cats without cause for periodontal dz (plaque, teething)

172
Q

Primary goal of feline severe stomatitis tx

A

reduce inflammation through plaque control (dental prophy)

173
Q

Hallmarks of heatstroke

A

severe CNS disturbance with multiple organ dysfunction; temp >105.8

174
Q

Four mechanisms of protecting from heat stroke

A

Thermoregulation, acclimatization, acute phase response, heat shock protein production

175
Q

What accounts for 70% heat loss in pets

A

Radiation and convection

176
Q

Define sensible response-

A

< 89.6F; conduction/convection/radiation

177
Q

Define insensible response

A

> 89.6F, via evaporation via panting (pons), mm v’dilation; partial air system: in nose, out mouth to max SA

178
Q

6 predisposing factors for heat stroke

A

Obesity, lar par, prev heat stroke, CNS dz, CV dz, exercise

179
Q

Hypothalamus response to increased body heat- describe

A

Increased symp tone- inc HR, CO, mm. blood supply, cutaneous vasodilation; decreased splanchnic circ (kidney, GI, etc), –> sensible heat loss; panting to increase minute ventilation- evaporative heat loss

180
Q

3 causes of evap cooling fail

A

env temp> body, dehydration, humidity >80%

181
Q

Timing of dog acclimatization

A

partial 10-20d; full 60d

182
Q

7 steps of acclimatization

A
  1. conserve water via aldo/adh 2. RAAS activation 3. Na-sparing 4. increased GFR 5. plasma vol expansion 6. increased HR and CO 7. increased ability to resist rhabdomyolysis
183
Q

Consequence of failed adaptive mechanisms (4)

A

hypovolemia/dehy –> v’constrict’n and dec. CO –> hypoxia/dec perfusion –> hemorrhagic D, DIC, arrhythmias, renal failure

184
Q

Define acute phase response

A

Coordinated response btwn endo cells, leukocytes, epith cells to protect from injury and promote tissue repair via cytokines, esp IL-6

185
Q

What stressors can cause production of heatshock proteins; how

A

Heat, O and N reactive molecules, endotoxemia, ischemia; via increased transcription rate

186
Q

Effect of HSPs

A

increased levels allow transient state of tolerance that would normally kill cells

187
Q

5 mechanisms of HSPs

A

prevent protein breakdown/refold to correct; protect epith barriers to prevent endotoxin leakage, block apoptosis and interfere with oxidative stress; maintenance of arterial pressures to decreased cerebral ischemia; regulate bararecept reflex (to stop hypotension, bradycardia)

188
Q

Pathophys of heat stroke- 7 key features

A

CV collapse, endothelial damage (global), coag alterations, CNS dysfxn, GI integrity loss, acid/base, sepsis/shock

189
Q

Pathophys of CV collapse in HS

A

V’dilation in skin/mm in response to increased core temp –> decreased splanch BF –> generation of ROS/RNS –> splanchnic arteriolar dilation, organ dilation –> dec. CVP and CO –> circulatory shock

190
Q

HS respiratory CS and 2 inciting factors; sequellae

A

CS: alv hemorrhage, pulm edema, congestion; from direct thermal injury to epith and increased pulmonary vasculature resistance from inflammation cytokines; DIC, ARDS

191
Q

HS renal dmg model- 3 causes

A

direct thermal OR indirect via hypoxia from shunting or microthrombi in DIC OR muscle breakdown causing myoglobin nephrotoxicity

192
Q

What portion of the liver has the most damage in HS

A

Centrilobular necrosis d/t highest function

193
Q

Rx for GI HS signs

A

(-cidals) ampicillin and metro; metoclop and cerenia

194
Q

Parvo organisms

A

CPV2, 2a, 2b, 2c

195
Q

Ddx parvo

A

CPV1 (<8w puppy), cornoa, rota, circo, clostridial enteritis, HGE, distemper, helminth, salmonellosis

Small Animal Medicine (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions