Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

If a customer sells short a security that is on the “threshold list” and the member firm fails to deliver the security on settlement, the:

A. customer’s account will be frozen for 90 days
B. security must be bought-in 10 business days from settlement
C. customer’s account must be restricted under Regulation T
D. customer’s margin requirement will be increased from 50% to 100% of the sale amount

A

The best answer is B.

Regulation SHO requires that if a security that is on the exchange’s “threshold list” (list of hard-to-borrow securities) is sold short and the seller fails to deliver on settlement, then the member firm must buy-in the position no later than 10 business days after settlement. Note that Regulation SHO states that this mandatory buy-in must occur within “13 settlement days,” because Regulation SHO counts from trade date, not from settlement date (T + 3 = regular way settlement + 10 for mandatory buy-in = 13 settlement days.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stockholder approval is needed if a corporation wishes to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. split its stock 1 for 2
B. split its stock 2 for 1
C. repurchase shares for Treasury
D. issue convertible securities

A

The best answer is C.

Stockholder approval is needed for a stock split, because it changes the par value of the stock. The State in which the company is incorporated typically requires shareholder approval of a par value change. In contrast, dividend decisions, either in cash or stock, do not require shareholder approval because they are “paid” out of retained earnings and do not affect par value per share. They are made solely by the Board of Directors of the company.

Issuance of convertible securities requires shareholder approval because it is potentially “dilutive” (if the securities are converted, there will be more common shares outstanding, and earnings per common share will fall). The repurchase of shares for Treasury will boost earnings per share, because there will be fewer shares outstanding. This boosts the value of the existing common shares, so no shareholder approval is required. This is another decision that is made solely by the Board of Directors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following options communications must be approved by the designated Registered Options Principal prior to use?

I Advertising
II Sales literature
III Independently prepared reprints

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, III

A

The best answer is D.

The options communications that must be approved in writing prior to use by the designated Registered Options Principal (main office compliance ROP) include advertising, sales literature and independently prepared reprints.

Options institutional sales literature and public appearances are the 2 public communications that do not require designated ROP approval. However, they are subject to the firm’s policies and procedures.

Options correspondence is approved by the Branch Office Manager (however, note that correspondence sent to 25 or more customers in a 30 day time period is defined as “sales literature.”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A registered representative takes an order from a customer to buy 100 shares of PSSS stock at $40 and writes the order ticket for processing. The registered representative fails to include the number of shares to be purchased on the ticket. Which statement is TRUE?

A. The order will be processed for a round lot of 100 shares by default
B. The order will be returned to the representative for entry of the order amount
C. The order will be referred to the member firm’s compliance department for resolution
D. The order will be canceled without any further action taken

A

The best answer is B.

Incomplete order information on an order ticket will result in the ticket not being processed. It will be returned to the representative for entry of all of the required information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a life annuity?

I The shorter the expected annuity period, the larger the monthly payment
II The longer the expected annuity period, the larger the monthly payment
III A life annuity usually pays the largest amount of all of the annuity payment options
IV A life annuity usually pays the smallest amount of all of the annuity payment options

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

The shorter the time period to “expected death” when the separate account is annuitized, the larger the monthly payment will be; conversely the longer the time period to “expected death” when the separate account is annuitized, the smaller the monthly payment will be. Regarding annuity payment options, this must be looked at from the standpoint of the insurance company, that has a large pool of annuitants to cover. The insurance company can afford to pay a larger payment to those persons who it expects will be paid for the shortest time period; it will make smaller monthly payments when it expects to pay for a longer time period. A life annuity lasts only for that person’s life - this is the shortest expected period of the annuity payment options. A life annuity with period certain continues to pay for a fixed time period if the person dies early; a joint and last survivor annuity pays a spouse when one person dies; a unit refund annuity pays a lump sum if a person dies early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Qubes (QQQs) are securities whose value is based upon the securities in the:

A. NASDAQ 100 Index
B. NASDAQ Composite Index
C. Standard and Poor’s 500 Index
D. Russell 2000 Index

A

The best answer is A.

Qubes (QQQs) are Exchange Traded Funds based on the NASDAQ 100 Index - the 100 largest NASDAQ stocks based on market capitalization. Currently the QQQs trade on the NASDAQ exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which statements are TRUE about non-managed fee based accounts?

I The customer must be provided with a disclosure document prior to account opening
II The customer must be provided with a disclosure document within 15 business days of account opening
III The account must be reviewed at least annually for its appropriateness as a fee based account
IV The account must be reviewed at least bi-annually for its appropriateness as a fee based account

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

To open a non-managed fee based account (NMFBA) for a customer, a disclosure document must be provided, at, or prior to, account opening. Each account must be reviewed at least annually for its appropriateness for the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following will cover the sale of a call contract on ABC stock?

A. Depositing cash equal to the current market value of ABC stock
B. Short 100 shares of ABC stock
C. Long 1 ABC Put at a lower strike price
D. Long 1 ABC Call at a lower strike price

A

The best answer is D.

The usual way that a short call contract (obligation to sell the stock at the strike price if the short call is exercised) is covered is by purchasing or owning the stock. Then, if the short call is exercised, the writer delivers the stock that is owned.

Another way of covering a short call is to buy a call contract on the same stock. To fully cover the sale of the call, the long call must be at the same strike price or lower and must be at the same expiration or later. This question only addresses the fact that the long call must be at the same strike price or lower. That way, if the short call is exercised, the stock can be purchased via the exercise of the long call and delivered with no loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding REITs?

I The REIT issues common shares representing a proportional interest in the investment company
II The REIT issues shares of beneficial interest representing an undivided interest in a pool of real estate investments
III REITs are similar to open end investment company shares
IV REITs are similar to closed end investment company shares

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

REITs issue shares of beneficial interest with each certificate representing an undivided interest in the pool of real estate investments. Other than this difference, the trust is run in a similar fashion to a corporation. REITs are registered securities under the Securities Act of 1933 and trade on an exchange or OTC. Thus, they are similar to closed-end investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, except that investments are made in real estate and mortgages, instead of in securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

A. AON orders can be executed in part or in full
B. FOK orders can be executed in part or in full
C. AON orders are canceled if the entire order is not executed
D. FOK orders are canceled if the entire order is not executed

A

The best answer is D.

A “fill or kill” order is to be executed in full or the order is canceled. An “all or none” order is to be executed in full, but if trader can’t fill the order, he is free to attempt execution at a later time. These orders cannot be executed in part.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The essential difference between a sponsored and an unsponsored ADR is:

A. SEC registration
B. Issuer sponsorship
C. Bank sponsorship
D. Broker-dealer market making

A

The best answer is B.

Sponsored ADRs are sponsored by the issuing foreign corporation. When an ADR is sponsored, the issuer agrees to provide financial statements to the ADR holder in English. The NYSE will only list sponsored ADRs. Unsponsored ADRs are assembled without the participation of the issuer. For example, a bank may assemble an ADR issue consisting of shares of a Japanese computer manufacturer. Since the Japanese firm is not “sponsoring” the ADR, any financial information received about the company will be in Japanese (unless the company also happens to prepare English language reports).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A customer who has a fully paid long position in ABC stock goes “short against the box” for a credit to his account of $50,000. ABC is an NYSE listed stock. The customer can withdraw:

A. $25,000
B. $45,000
C. $47,500
D. $50,000

A

The best answer is C.

When the customer goes “short against the box,” the net position is “0” (e.g., 1,000 shares long / 1,000 shares short). There is no risk at this point, so Reg. T. does not set an initial margin. However, FINRA sets a minimum maintenance margin of 5% of the long side. 5% of $50,000 of stock is $2,500 minimum margin. Therefore, the customer can withdraw $50,000 credit - $2,500 minimum margin = $47,500 withdrawal amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SEC Rule 10b-18 allows an issuer to buy its shares in the open market:

A. at any price that is reasonably related to the current market
B. at the highest independent bid or the last reported sale price, whichever is higher
C. at the lowest independent offer or the last reported sale price, whichever is lower
D. under no circumstances, since this is considered to be market manipulation

A

The best answer is B.

SEC Rule 10b-18 sets ground rules for issuers or affiliated persons who wish to buy their shares in the open market. If an issuer aggressively buys its stock in the market, or bids for its stock, it can manipulate the market price upwards. Bids and purchases that are made in compliance with Rule 10b-18 will not be considered manipulative activities under Rule 10b-5 (“catch-all” fraud rule). Rule 10b-18 purchases, as they are known:

Must be effected through 1 broker/dealer on any given day;

Cannot be the opening transaction;
Cannot be executed within 10 minutes of market close if the security is “actively traded,” otherwise it cannot be executed within 30 minutes of market close;
Must be effected at prices no higher than the current market;

Cannot exceed 25% of the trading volume in the security that day (except for block purchases handled outside the normal flow of orders).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A registered representative receives an order to sell 100 shares of ABC stock that has been “transferred and shipped” to the customer. Before executing the order, the registered representative must:

I Ascertain the location of the stock
II Ascertain that the securities can be delivered in 3 business days
III Validate that the securities are in “good form”
IV Obtain physical possession of the securities

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. IV only
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is A.

FINRA rules require that orders to sell cannot be accepted unless the firm has reasonable assurance that the securities can be delivered in 3 business days. There is no requirement to obtain physical possession of the securities before placing the sell order, nor is there a requirement to validate the securities as “good for delivery.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For a qualified retirement plan contribution to be deductible from that year’s tax return, the contribution must be made by no later than:

A. April 15th of that year
B. December 31st of that year
C. April 15th of following year
D. the tax filing date of the following year

A

The best answer is D.

Contributions to qualified retirement plans (other than IRAs) must be made no later than the date the tax return is filed (even if it is filed with an extension). On the other hand, IRA contributions must be made no later than April 15th of the tax year after the year for which the deduction is claimed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following terms describe a special tax bond issue?

A. Self supporting
B. Non-self supporting
C. General obligation
D. Moral obligation

A

The best answer is B.

Special tax bonds are backed by taxes other than an ad valorem tax, such as liquor taxes, gasoline taxes, cigarette taxes or sales taxes. They are considered to be a non-self supporting debt since they are paid from tax collections. Self supporting debts are revenue bond issues that pay their own way from collected revenues.

17
Q

Which of the following items are taxable to a limited partnership?

I Short Term Gains
II Long Term Gains
III Ordinary Income

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. None of the above

A

The best answer is D.

Partnerships are not taxable entities; all items of income and loss “flow though” to the tax returns of the partners. Tax liability only exists at the partner level - not at the partnership level.

18
Q

All of the following securities are sold through auction EXCEPT:

A. Treasury Bills
B. Treasury TIPS
C. General Obligation Bonds
D. Government National Mortgage Association Bonds

A

The best answer is D.

All agency securities, including GNMA issues, are sold through selling syndicates in a negotiated offering. T-Bills and TIPS - Treasury Inflation Protection Securities - are sold through yield auctions conducted by the Federal Reserve for the Treasury. General Obligation municipal bonds are sold through competitive bid as well.

19
Q

A stock is quoted at $18 - $19. If a customer sells 100 shares to the dealer, under the FINRA 5% Policy, a fair and reasonable mark-down is based upon which price?

A. $17.50
B. $18.00
C. $18.50
D. $19.00

A

The best answer is B.

Under the 5% Policy, commissions and mark-up / mark-down percentages are computed from the inside market. If a customer buys, any mark-up is calculated from the inside ask price of $19. If the customer sells, any “mark-down” is computed from the inside bid price of $18.

20
Q

All of the following statements are true about overnight repurchase agreements EXCEPT there is virtually no:

A. liquidity risk
B. interest rate risk
C. risk of “principal”
D. credit risk

A

The best answer is B.

Overnight repurchase agreements are overnight sales of government securities, with an agreement to buy back the securities the next day at a pre-set price. The difference in prices is the interest earned for the 1 day loan. These are extremely safe and liquid. There is virtually no credit risk since the loan is backed by U.S. Government securities. This is the same as stating that there is no risk to “principal.” Interest rate risk is present, however. Repurchase agreements are typically backed by long term government securities. The “seller” has an agreement to “buy back” the securities at a pre-agreed price on the next day. Therefore, if interest rates rise sharply that day, the dealer receives back securities that are now worth substantially less. Thus, the interest rate risk resides in the underlying long term government securities; not in the repurchase agreement itself.

21
Q

Under FINRA rules, to ascertain which investments are suitable for the customer, the registered representative would inquire about the customer’s:

I Existing investment holdings
II Current investment objective
III Financial situation and needs
IV Daily living expenses

A. I only
B. II and III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

“Suitability” means that securities which are recommended to a customer are appropriate for that customer. To ascertain which investments are suitable for the customer, FINRA states that the basis for making the recommendation are the facts disclosed by the customer about his other security holdings and financial situation and needs. Inquiry should be made as the customer’s investment objective, tax status, and financial status. Inquiring about the customer’s daily living expenses might be a little too intrusive to ask.

22
Q

The manager of a pension plan would invest in which of the following?

I Corporate Bonds
II Municipal Bonds
III Government Bonds

A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III

A

The best answer is B.

Pension plans are “tax qualified” retirement plans. Earnings on securities held are tax deferred; so there is no benefit to investing in municipals, which have lower rates because their interest income is exempt from Federal income tax. Investments would be made in corporate and government bonds, both of which have higher rates because their interest income is taxable by the Federal government.

23
Q

A growth fund would likely invest in which of the following securities?

I Common stocks
II Preferred stocks
III Convertible bonds
IV Non-convertible bonds

A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only

A

The best answer is C.

Growth funds would likely invest in common stocks for capital gains; they could also invest in convertible bonds, since they are an “equivalent” to the common stock; and if the common stock price rises substantially, their price will rise as well (because the market will force them to trade at parity with each other). Preferred stocks and non-convertible bonds give a higher rate of current income; but little in the way of capital gains potential (unless interest rates fall by a large amount). In this case, the fund manager is not attempting to profit from market interest rate moves - he or she is simply attempting to select stocks that have excellent growth potential.

24
Q

FINRA’s 5% Policy applies to which of the following?

I Commissions charged on transactions effected over-the-counter
II Commissions charged on transactions effected on stock exchanges
III Underwriting spreads charged on new issue offerings effected over-the-counter
IV Sales charges imposed on mutual fund offerings

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is B.

The 5% Policy applies to over-the-counter and exchange transactions that do not involve a prospectus. Thus, it does not apply to new issue offerings, nor to mutual fund offerings, since both require a prospectus.

25
Q

The OTCBB includes quotes for:

A. NASDAQ stocks
B. Non-NASDAQ Stocks
C. NYSE listed stocks
D. All of the above

A

The best answer is B.

Over-the-counter stocks that are too small for NASDAQ are found on the OTCBB - the “Over-The-Counter Bulletin Board” (run by FINRA) or can be found in the privately run “Pink Sheets” - now renamed the Pink OTC Markets.

26
Q

A brokerage firm offers the following 4 products to customers:

  1. Flat commission rate of $100 per equity trade that includes the services of a dedicated representative
  2. Flat commission rate of $10 per equity trade without a dedicated representative
  3. $1,000 per year flat fee-based account that includes unlimited trading without a dedicated representative
  4. $5,000 per year flat fee-based account that includes unlimited trading with the services of a dedicated representative
    The best choice for a sophisticated self-directed customer that needs no guidance, and who trades 10 to 12 times per month, would be the:

A. $10 per trade commission charge
B. $100 per trade commission charge
C. $1,000 annual fee-based structure
D. $5,000 annual fee-based structure

A

The best answer is C.

This customer needs no guidance, so the products that do not provide the services of a dedicated representative are appropriate. This customer averages 10 - 12 trades per month. In a year, the customer will do 11 trades per month x 12 months = 132 trades x $10 commission per trade = $1,320 annual commission cost. This is more than the $1,000 flat fee account that permits unlimited trading, so the $1,000 flat fee is the better choice for this customer.

27
Q

Which contract is at parity?

A. British Pound Jul 155 Call @ 6 when the Pound closes at 161
B. British Pound Jul 155 Put @ 1 when the Pound closes at 160
C. Canadian Dollar Oct 81 Call @ 3 when the Canadian Dollar closes at 78
D. Canadian Dollar Oct 81 Put @ 3 when the Canadian Dollar closes at 79

A

The best answer is A.

A contract trades “at parity” when the premium equals intrinsic value. The BP Jul 155 Call has intrinsic value of 6 (since the market is 161). Since the premium is 6, the contract is at parity.