Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A variable annuity contract offers a GMIB. This is a(n):

I standard feature of variable annuity contracts
II optional feature of variable annuity contracts
III floor on the minimum rate that the separate account will earn
IV cap on the maximum rate that the separate account will earn

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

A “GMIB” is a Guaranteed Minimum Income Benefit. It is an optional rider offered by many variable annuity contracts. It guarantees that when the separate account is annuitized, if the account has not grown at the guaranteed minimum rate, then the account will be annuitized as if it grew at that guaranteed minimum rate. So if the separate account grows by only 2% a year; and the GMIB is 5%; then the account will be valued at annuitization based on compounding at the 5% minimum benefit. This is a very popular rider, but it does come at a cost.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE about Fill or Kill orders?

I The order can be executed in part or in full
II The order must be executed in its entirety
III If the order cannot be filled, later execution attempts are permitted
IV If the order cannot be filled, later execution attempts are not permitted

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

A “fill or kill” order is to be executed in full or the order is canceled - only one attempt is made to fill the order. An “all or none” order is to be executed in full, but if the trader can’t fill the order, he is free to attempt execution at a later time. These orders cannot be executed in part.

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3
Q

Which Treasury security is NOT sold on a regular auction schedule?

A. CMBs
B. Treasury Bills
C. STRIPS
D. TIPS

A

The best answer is A.

CMBs are Cash Management Bills. They are sold at auction by the Treasury on an “as needed” basis to meet unexpected cash shortfalls, so they are not part of the regular auction cycle. They are the shortest-term U.S. government security, often with maturities as short as 5 days. They are sold in $100 minimums at a discount to par value, just like Treasury Bills.

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4
Q

In order to solicit competitive bids for a new bond issue, the municipality will:

A. invite selected local investment banks and commercial banks to bid on the issue
B. publish an Official Notice of Sale in the Bond Buyer
C. hire a municipal financial advisor to find an appropriate underwriter
D. publish an Offering Notice in Bloomberg

A

The best answer is B.

Municipalities publish an “Official Notice of Sale” that gives the details of a new bond issue that the municipality will put up for auction in the near future. This is published in the Bond Buyer, and often in local newspapers as well. Any interested potential bidders can contact the municipality for more detailed information by requesting a copy of the “Preliminary Official Statement” - the disclosure document for municipal new issues.

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5
Q

A customer buys 1 ABC Jan 50 Call @ $4 and buys 1 ABC Jan 50 Put @ $3 when the market price of ABC = $51. The breakeven points are:

A. $46 and $53
B. $47 and $54
C. $43 and $57
D. $45 and $55

A

The best answer is C.

Long straddles are profitable if the market either moves up or down. To breakeven, the total premium paid must be recovered by the market moving either up or down. To breakeven, the $7 Debit paid for the straddle must be recovered. This happens at 50 + 7 = $57 on the call side of the straddle and 50 - 7 = $43 on the put side of the straddle.

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6
Q

Variable annuity contracts contain which of the following guarantees?

I Mortality Guarantee
II Expense Guarantee
III Interest Rate Guarantee

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I, II, III

A

The best answer is C.

Variable annuity contracts contain a mortality guarantee and an expense guarantee. If one dies later than his or her expected “mortality,” the company still pays; if expenses rise, the company absorbs them above a set percentage. However, no guarantee is given for the rate of return - this is only given for a fixed annuity.

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7
Q

All of the following statements are true about a tender offer for common shares EXCEPT:

A. The offer must remain open for at least 20 business days
B. Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for an additional 10 business days
C. During the life of the offer, the issuer can buy the stock in the market in addition to buying shares via the offer
D. During the life of the offer, any subscribing investors’ shares that are tendered are held in escrow pending the outcome of the offer

A

The best answer is C.

When a tender offer is made for the common shares of an issuer, the maker of the offer is attempting to buy a majority stake in the company. To attract shareholders to tender, the maker usually prices the offer at a premium to the current market price. Such offers are typically contingent on a minimum number of shares being tendered. If the minimum number is not met, the maker might “sweeten” the offer by raising the tender price, or could simply cancel the offer and return the tendered shares to the subscribing shareholders. Note that an escrow agent is used to hold the tendered shares, pending the outcome of the offer.

During the life of the offer, the maker of the offer and its agents are treated as “insiders,” since they have information on how the tender offer is progressing that the general public does not know about. This means that, during the offer, they are prohibited from buying the stock in the market.

The initial offer must be held out for a minimum of 20 business days under SEC rules. Each sweetening of the offer must extend the life of the offer by another 10 business days.

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8
Q

The “death benefit” associated with a variable annuity contract means that if the contract holder dies:

A. prior to annuitization, the amount invested in the contract is returned to a beneficiary
B. after annuitization, the amount invested in the contract is returned to a beneficiary
C. prior to annuitization, the insurance company will make a lump sum payment to complete the terms of the contract
D. after annuitization, the insurance company will pay for the insured’s burial expenses

A

The best answer is A.

The “death benefit” of a variable annuity contract is not really much of one. If the contract holder dies prior to annuitization, the insurance company pays the greater of current NAV or the amount invested to a beneficiary. If the contract holder dies after annuitization, there is no more “death benefit.”

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9
Q

The Chairman of a bank municipal broker-dealer is on the town council involved in a negotiated municipal bond underwriting being performed by that municipal broker-dealer. Under MSRB rules, the Chairman is considered to be a(n):

A. affiliated person
B. insider
C. control person
D. related party

A

The best answer is C.

The Chairman of the municipal broker-dealer is considered to be a “control person,” since he is on the town council and the town has selected his firm to perform a negotiated bond underwriting. The existence of the control relationships must be disclosed verbally to customers when the security is recommended; and in writing either at or prior to confirmation of sale.

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10
Q

In a competitive municipal underwriting, the first step taken by the syndicate when determining the bid is to:

A. determine the spread
B. write the scale
C. determine the cover
D. set the coupon rates

A

The best answer is B.

The first step in determining a municipal bid is determining the scale. Once the underwriters have an idea of the yields at which the bonds can be sold, the total takedown is netted out to arrive at a bid price.

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11
Q

When recommending a contractual plan variable annuity, the registered representative should consider which of the following?

I The ability of the customer to make periodic payments into the plan
II The penalties imposed for early withdrawal from the plan
III The front end load that will be earned
IV Whether the customer can handle declining benefit payments in retirement

A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

The motivation in selling a product should not be the sales charge or commission to be earned; one must recommend what is suitable for the customer. When selling variable annuities, consideration should be given to the customer’s ability to meet the pay-in schedule and to the customer’s ability to survive on smaller annuity payments if the separate account doesn’t perform as expected. If the insurance company imposes penalties for early termination, this is another important consideration.

Also note that the sale of contractual plans was banned by Congress in 2006, but existing contractual plans from that point in time remain in force - and some of these plans go on for 20 years. So these still exist as investments that customers might own, but you cannot sell new contractual plans.

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12
Q

Under the provisions of Regulation T, monies must be collected for securities purchases:

A. promptly
B. on the business day after trade date
C. on the second business day after trade date
D. on the seventh business day after trade date

A

The best answer is A.

Regulation T requires that payments for securities purchases be collected “promptly,” but no later than “S + 2” - or no later than industry “regular way settlement” of 3 business days + 2 additional “grace” days; for a maximum time period to collect of 5 business days.

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13
Q

A registered representative solicits an order from a customer to buy 200 shares of XYZZ at $50. The customer agrees and the registered representative completes the order ticket and enters the order for execution. Once the member firm processes the order, the order ticket record must contain which of the following information?

I Time of order receipt
II Time of order entry
III Time of order execution
IV Time of order confirmation

A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

The required time stamps on an order ticket are time of order receipt; order entry; and order execution. There is no requirement for the time of order confirmation to be on the order ticket.

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14
Q

An issuer making a tender offer for its non-convertible bonds and later increases the price being offered by 10%. Which statement is TRUE?

A. The increase in the tender price has no effect on the life of the offer
B. The increase in the tender price increases the life of the offer by another 5 business days
C. The increase in the tender price increases the life of the offer by another 10 business days
D. The increase in the tender price increases the life of the offer by another 20 business days

A

The best answer is B.

An issuer would consider tendering for its outstanding bonds when it has debt outstanding that is not callable, but it has excess funds that it believes would be best used to reduce the amount of debt outstanding.

A tender offer is made to the bondholders, who have the choice of tendering or not. Unlike stock tender offers, where the initial offer must be held out for 20 business days, here the initial life of the offer is only 5 business days. (The life is shorter because this tender offer is being made by the issuer, not an outsider.) Unlike stock tender offers, where there is typically a contingency that a minimum number of shares be tendered, these are “any and all offers” - so if a bondholder tenders, he or she will receive the tender price for the bonds.

If the issuer does not get enough bonds tendered, the issuer can “sweeten” the offer. This extends the offer by another 5 business days, and the sweetened price is given to all bonds tendered. (While the initial offer specifies a price to be paid, or a price based on a spread to a benchmark debt security, the actual price paid on the tendered bonds is not set until that last business day of the offer).

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15
Q

A customer brings $50,000 of cash to the brokerage firm office and gives it to the registered representative to pay for a securities purchase. The registered representative should:

A. reject the cash payment, since cash payments over $10,000 cannot be accepted
B. accompany the customer to the cashier, so that the customer can be given a receipt for the payment
C. accept the payment on the firm’s behalf
D. deposit the cash to his personal account and issue a check in the same amount to the firm for crediting to the customer’s account

A

The best answer is B.

Cash can only be accepted from a customer if it is to be deposited to the customer’s account. A registered representative cannot personally accept cash from a customer.

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16
Q

A customer buys $100,000 par value of 10 year municipal bonds in the secondary market at 110. The bonds are sold after 4 years for 108. The customer has:

A. a $2,000 capital loss
B. a $2,000 capital gain
C. a $4,000 capital gain
D. no capital gain or loss

A

The best answer is B.

The premium on both original issue and trading market municipal bonds must be amortized on a straight line basis over the life of the bond. The bonds were bought at 110, with 10 years left to maturity. Therefore, the 10 point premium is amortized over 10 years, and so 1 point a year is amortized (with no tax deduction allowed for the annual amortization amount). After 4 years, 4 points will be amortized and the adjusted basis is 106. if the bonds are sold for 108, the capital gain is 2 points or $2,000 on $100,000 face amount of bonds.

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17
Q

Payment for U.S. Government securities that are sold through auction is made on:

A. Auction Date
B. Auction Date + 1
C. Issue Date
D. Issue Date + 1

A

The best answer is C.

Payment for U.S. Government securities that are won at auction must be made on issue date (Thursday of the auction week for T-Bills and the 15th of the month for STRIPS, TIPS, Treasury Notes, and Treasury Bonds). Payment is to be made in cash, Federal Funds, or in similar maturing Government securities (effecting a direct “rollover” of that debt).

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18
Q

A customer sells 1 ABC Jan 50 Call @ $4 when the market price of ABC is $51. The stock then moves to $58 and the customer is exercised. The tax consequence upon exercise is a:

A. capital loss of $400
B. capital gain of $400
C. sale proceeds of $5,400
D. cost basis of $5,400

A

The best answer is C.

If a writer of a call is exercised, he or she is selling the stock. The customer’s sale proceeds is the sale price of the stock ($50) plus the premium received ($4) = $54. Notice that this is the same as the breakeven. No taxable event occurs until the stock is bought.

19
Q

Which of the following are overlapping debts?

I Port authority
II Park district
III Library system
IV Road district

A. I only
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

Revenue bonds such as a port authority issue are “self supporting” and cannot be overlapping debts. Only general obligation issues can be “overlapping.” Since districts can overlay a number of different towns (different municipal issuers), district debt is often overlapping. The formal definition of overlapping debt is the debt of someone other than the issuer, for which the issuer’s residents are responsible. General obligation county debt and district debts are all overlapping.

20
Q

A municipal variable rate demand note:

I is considered to be a short term issue
II is considered to be a long term issue
III gives the issuer the right to call the bond from the holder on pre-set dates
IV gives the holder the right to put the bond to the issuer on pre-set dates

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

A municipal variable rate demand note is a long-term municipal security because it has no stated maturity, but it is issued at short-term (lower) interest rates, because the holder has the right to “put” the bond to the issuer at par at each interest payment date. The interest rate is reset, usually weekly at the interest payment date, to an indexed rate for the next week. Thus, the interest rate will vary. With any variable rate note, the interest rate varies as market rates move; therefore the market price remains at, or very close to, par. Thus, these instruments have almost no market risk.

21
Q

Which of the following will result in a “locked-in” trade?

A. A market order placed for a NASDAQ issue quoted in the NASDAQ System (Single Book)
B. A market order placed for an OTC equity issue quoted in the OTCBB
C. A market order placed for an OTC equity issue quoted in the Pink Sheets
D. All of the above

A

The best answer is A.

A “locked-in” trade is one in which all of the terms and conditions of the trade are accepted by buyer and seller. Once the trade is executed, last-sale reporting to NASDAQ and reporting to the clearance corporation (NSCC) are done electronically. System trades of NASDAQ stocks are “locked-in” - the NASDAQ System is both an automated quotation and execution system. Anyone who enters a quote or order into the System agrees to accept automated executions. Note that the previous name for the System was Single Book, and this may still show on the exam.

The OTCBB and Pink Sheets are quotation mediums only. There is no automated trading; rather, trades are still negotiated “over-the-phone” or “on-line” and thus, are not locked-in.

22
Q

An elderly customer that is currently invested in bonds for income is concerned about declining yields due to record low interest rates. He has contacted his registered representative and inquires about purchasing a reverse convertible note on a Blue Chip stock because it offers a higher yield. The customer should be informed about all of the following EXCEPT the:

A. note is not an obligation Blue Chip corporation
B. note is subject to the credit risk of the issuing bank
C. customer can potentially lose 100% of the principal amount due to a stock price decline
D. “knock-in” price of the underlying security gives the customer the right to put the note back to the issuer at par at maturity

A

The best answer is D.

Reverse convertible notes were created for customers looking for enhanced yield in a low interest rate environment. Of course, any enhanced yield comes with higher risk. The note is linked to the price movements of an underlying stock (or very rarely, an underlying index). At maturity, the holder will receive par value, as long as the price of the reference stock is above the “knock-in” price (typically 70-80% of the initial reference price). On the other hand, if at maturity, the reference stock falls below the “knock-in” price, then the holder will receive the shares of stock. Thus, if the market price of the reference stock declines below the “knock-in” price, the customer receives the stock at maturity and not par value.

A reverse convertible note is a structured product that is an obligation of the issuing bank - not the corporation or the corporate securities on which the product is based. As such, the note only as good as the credit of the issuing bank. Furthermore, if the market price of the stock declines to, or through, the “knock-in” price, the customer receives stock at maturity and that stock could potentially be worthless. The customer should be made aware of all of these points.

23
Q

A customer buys 10 OEX Feb 600 Calls with 24 months to expiration @ $6 in a margin account when the OEX is at 601. The customer must deposit:

A. $450
B. $600
C. $4,500
D. $6,000

A

The best answer is C.

The margin requirement to buy LEAP options with over 9 months to expiration is 75%. 75% of $600 premium per contract = $450 margin requirement per contract x 10 contracts = $4,500 deposit.

24
Q

Which of the following securities can be sold by an individual holding an investment companies/variable annuities (Series 6) registered representative’s license?

I Municipal Investment Trusts
II Real Estate Investment Trusts
III Municipal Bond Funds
IV Revenue Bonds

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is B.

A person holding an investment companies/variable annuities (Series 6) license is only allowed to sell mutual funds, unit investment trusts, and variable annuities. To sell other securities such as Real Estate Investment Trusts, municipal bonds, corporate bonds, options etc., the broader Series #7 general securities license is required.

25
Q

A municipality issues a zero-coupon bond that is callable at 104. If the municipality calls the bonds prior to maturity, the bondholder will receive:

A. par
B. 104% of par
C. current accreted value
D. 104% of current accreted value

A

The best answer is D.

If a zero-coupon bond is called prior to maturity, it is called at the current accreted value plus any call premium specified in the bond contract.

26
Q

Customer Q, age 40, is married with 3 young children. He earns $120,000 per year and has $10,000 of liquid assets to invest. The customer has no current portfolio, but does own his home, worth $400,000 against which there is a $200,000 mortgage. The customer informs you that his father just died, leaving him an inheritance of $150,000. He wishes to invest the money so that he can retire in 20 years, using the investment’s income. The BEST recommendation to the customer is to invest the $150,000 in:

A. a large cap stock mutual fund
B. CMO companion tranches with a 20 year average life
C. TIPs with a 20 year maturity
D. a low-load variable annuity separate account with a growth objective

A

The best answer is D.

This customer wishes to fund his retirement 20 years from now. Large capitalization stock mutual funds don’t provide a lot of income, and are subject to a greater degree of market risk unless the investment time horizon is very long (which it isn’t in this case) - so these are not the best retirement investment for this customer.

CMO companion tranches are very risky - not the best idea. Remember, these are the “buffer” tranches that absorb prepayment and extension risk.

TIPs provide inflation protection, but the real rate of return is quite low (the price of “safety”), so if the customer lives a long time, the income will not be sufficient for retirement.

A variable annuity will pay until the customer dies. Low sales charge variable annuities provide assured retirement income - best meeting the customer’s objective.

27
Q

Regarding the notification of a broker-dealer’s financial condition to customers, a brokerage firm must send semi-annual statements which include the firm’s:

I Balance sheet
II Income statement
III Net capital computation

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

A

The best answer is C.

Broker-dealers must send their customers a semi-annual balance sheet and Net Capital computation. There is no requirement that the customer be sent the income statement of the broker-dealer.

28
Q

A 25-year old client with a low risk tolerance wishes to invest in bonds. The client has invested in equities before, but has no experience investing in bonds. The BEST recommendation would be:

A. BB-rated short-term bonds
B. BB-rated intermediate-term bonds
C. AA-rated short-term bonds
D. AA-rated long-term bonds

A

The best answer is C.

This client has a low risk tolerance. Therefore, to minimize credit risk, investment grade bonds are appropriate (BBB or higher). To minimize interest rate risk, short-term maturities are better than long-term maturities. Both of these factors will result in a safer bond investment. However, the customer will get a lower yield, but that is not addressed in the question.

29
Q

When accreting a bond discount, which of the following statements are TRUE?

I The bond’s cost basis is increased each year
II The bond’s cost basis is reduced each year
III Any potential gain of the sale of the bond increases each year
IV Any potential gain of the sale of the bond decreases each year

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is B.

When a bond discount is accreted, annually, the bond’s cost basis is increased by the pro-rata amount of the discount and the accretion amount is shown as an increase of interest income received for tax purposes. However, the actual dollar amount of interest received from the issuer does not change. Because the cost basis is adjusted upwards annually by the accretion amount, this reduces potential capital gain upon sale (since capital gain equals sale proceeds minus cost basis).

30
Q

Which statements are TRUE under FINRA rules?

I The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .25%
II The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75%
III If a fund charges a 12b-1 fee, the maximum up front sales charge is limited to 7.25%
IV If a fund charges a 12b-1 fee, the maximum up front sales charge is limited to 8.50%

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

12b-1 fees are permitted under SEC Rule 12b-1. If a fund adopts a 12b-1 plan it may charge its existing shareholders for the cost of soliciting new investment to the fund. For example, if you see a television or web advertisement for a mutual fund, it is being paid for by 12b-1 fees. The “cost” of soliciting new investment also includes compensation to registered representatives selling the fund shares. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75% of net assets per year under FINRA rules. If a fund imposes a 12b-1 fee, FINRA limits to maximum up-front sales charge to 7.25% instead of 8.50%.

31
Q

All of the following statements are true about the interbank market EXCEPT:

A. the market is centralized
B. trading is unregulated
C. foreign policy actions affect values in the market
D. foreign currency values are determined in this market

A

The best answer is A.

The Interbank market is a free wheeling, unregulated, worldwide currency trading market open 24 hours a day. It is completely unregulated, but is influenced by central bank trading. Central bank trading actions are directed by each country’s government.

32
Q

Under Regulation D, purchasers of private placement offerings must be given full disclosure through a(n):

A. Prospectus
B. Offering memorandum
C. Registration statement
D. Form D

A

The best answer is B.

Under Regulation D, purchasers of private placements must be given full disclosure about the issue, even though no prospectus is required (the issue is exempt). Disclosure is accomplished by providing the purchaser with a copy of an “Offering Circular,” which for smaller private placements is called the “Offering Memorandum.” There is no registration statement for private placements because they are exempt - the exemption is claimed by filing a Form D with the SEC.

33
Q

Under Regulation T, an extension for payment may be requested on:

A. Settlement Date
B. Settlement Date + 1
C. Settlement Date + 2
D. Settlement Date + 5

A

The best answer is C.

Reg. T allows a customer to pay, promptly, but no later than Settlement + 2 business days. If regular way settlement is 3 business days, then on the 5th business day after trade date, the monies must be collected. If the funds are not collected on that day, either an extension must be requested from FINRA or the position will be sold out and the account frozen for 90 days. When the account is frozen, the customer must pay in advance for purchases.

34
Q

Which statements are TRUE regarding a portfolio that has a “Beta” of -1?

I The portfolio moves in the same direction of the market as a whole
II The portfolio moves in the opposite direction of the market as a whole
III The portfolio moves at the same velocity as the market as a whole
IV The portfolio moves at a slower velocity than the market as a whole

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

Negative beta stocks move opposite to the general market - e.g., they are counter-cyclical stocks. A portfolio with a “beta” coefficient of -1 is one that moves at the same velocity as the market as a whole, but it moves in the opposite direction to the market. There are very few “negative” beta stocks - gold stocks being one of them. When the stock market “tanks,” investors flee to safety - gold - so these stocks rise when the market falls, and vice-versa.

35
Q

A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $60 and sells 2 ABC Feb 60 Calls @ $4. This is a:

A. ratio call write
B. covered call write
C. ratio call spread
D. butterfly spread

A

The best answer is A.

If a customer who is long stock sells call contracts against the stock position, then as long as the contract amount does not exceed the long stock position, the call writer is “covered.” This means that if the short call is exercised, the customer already has the stock for delivery. Hence the customer is covered against the risk of having to go to the market to buy the stock at a sky high price to make delivery. If a customer sells more call contracts than the stock position owned, this is a “ratio” call write. In this example, the customer is selling calls against the stock position at a 2:1 ratio.

36
Q

ll of the following would be taxed at “earned income” rates under IRS regulations EXCEPT:

A. Interest payments
B. Alimony payments
C. Royalty payments
D. Bonus payments

A

The best answer is A.

Earned income, under the tax code, has different definitions, depending on the regulation involved. The income items that are taxed at “earned income” rates (currently a maximum of 39.6%) includes wages, bonuses, social security payments, royalties received (such as royalties earned for writing a book), and alimony payments.

Interest income received is classified as “portfolio” income. Portfolio income, depending on the type, can be taxed at lower rates (for example, cash dividends received are currently taxed at a maximum of 15% unless an individual earns over $400,000, in which case cash dividends are taxed at 20%; while interest received is taxed at a maximum of 39.6%).

37
Q

Long Margin Account

Market Value: $110,000
Debit Balance: $50,000

If the debit balance in the account is reduced to $45,000, the market value where the account will be at minimum maintenance margin is?

A. $60,000
B. $70,000
C. $80,000
D. $90,000

A

The best answer is A.

The account will be at maintenance if equity equals 25% of long market value. Since long market value minus the debit equals equity in a long account, at maintenance, the debit must be 75% of market value. Thus, with a $45,000 debit, the account will be at maintenance when the market value falls to $45,000 / .75 = $60,000. At this point, equity will be $15,000 in the account and the margin percentage would be $15,000 equity / $60,000 market value = 25%.

38
Q

Which is NOT a good delivery for a 300 share trade of stock?

A. One 300 share certificate
B. Three 100 share certificates
C. Ten 30 share certificates
D. Thirty 10 share certificates

A

The best answer is C.

To be a good delivery, certificates must be in round multiples of 100 shares on one certificate or must be delivered in certificates that add up to 100 share units. Certificates of 30 shares each are not good because 30 + 30 = 60; 60 + 30 = 90; and 90 + 30 = 120. A round lot of 100 shares cannot be created from these units.

39
Q

Which of the following are TRUE about debit price spreads?

I Debit call spreads are bullish
II Debit call spreads are bearish
III Debit put spreads are bullish
IV Debit put spreads are bearish

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is B.

To be profitable, debit spreads must be closed at a higher premium than paid (the spread between the premiums must widen; or both contracts must be exercised). This occurs when the market rises for calls; and when the market falls for puts.

40
Q

A municipal broker’s broker:

A. makes a market in municipal bonds for individual customers
B. makes a market in municipal bonds for institutional customers
C. acts as agent handling bond trades for individual customers
D. acts as agent handling bond trades for institutional customers

A

The best answer is D.

Municipal broker’s brokers help large institutions buy and sell large blocks of municipal bonds. They take no inventory positions, acting as agent only. Municipal broker’s brokers do not deal with the general public.

41
Q

A variable annuity is a(n):

I security regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940
II insurance product that is not regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940
III security that must be sold with a prospectus
IV insurance product that has no prospectus requirement

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

Variable annuities differ from other products sold by insurance companies in that the purchaser bears the investment risk; as opposed to the insurance company bearing the investment risk. For example, if an insurance company achieves poor investment results, this does not affect the amount of death benefit that one gets from a traditional insurance policy; if the separate investment account funding a variable annuity achieves poor investment results, the annuity payment will drop. Because the purchaser bears the investment risk in a variable annuity contract, these are defined by the SEC as a non-exempt security that must be registered and sold with a prospectus. Because these are structured as participating unit trusts, variable annuities are regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940.

42
Q

The common stockholder has which of the following rights?

I Management rights
II Dividend rights
III Pre-emptive rights
IV Voting rights

A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

Common stockholders have the right to receive dividends if declared by the Board of Directors; the right to maintain proportionate ownership in the corporation (pre-emptive right); and the right to vote for the Board of Directors or for any change in proportional ownership in the corporation (i.e. stock splits, issuance of convertible securities). The common stockholder has no management rights.

43
Q

A seller who has filed Form 144 can sell 1% of the outstanding shares or the weekly average of the last 4 week’s trading volume. This amount may be sold:

A. 1 time a year
B. 2 times a year
C. 4 times a year
D. 12 times a year

A

The best answer is C.

Rule 144 allows the sale of 1% of the issuer’s outstanding shares or the weekly average of the preceding 4 weeks’ trading volume (whichever is greater). This amount can be sold every 90 days (every 3 months), so a sale can occur 4 times per year.