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Microbiology 3401 > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

isotope 14 C

A

useful to label amino acids and follow

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2
Q

isotope 32 P

A

label nucleotide

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3
Q

What are the two subunits of a ribosome?

A

small (30s)- 1rRNA + 21 proteins

large (50s)- 2rRNA + 31 proteins

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4
Q

Why are subunits labeled as 30s and 50s?

A

Ultracentrifugation used to separate the two units by measure of the sedimentation rate based on size, shape, & density of the molecule.

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5
Q

What is sedimentation unit?

A

suedberg units represented by S

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6
Q

How many units can be occupied at one time in the mRNA?

A

only 2 units

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7
Q

What helps transfer amino acid from A to P?

A

Peptidyl Transferase

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8
Q

What is the E site?

A

The exit

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9
Q

What is the A site?

A

entrance of amino acid

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10
Q

What is the P site?

A

Peptidyl transferase

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11
Q

How many codons can be moved at time and how many bases are in a codon?

A

one codon which has 3 bases

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12
Q

DNA helicase?

A

unwinds the DNA double Helix

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13
Q

ss DNA binding protein?

A

binds to and stabilizes the unwound single DNA strands

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14
Q

Primase?

A

synthesizes short (~10 bases) RNA primers

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15
Q

DNA polymerase I?

A

removes the RNA primers and replaces with DNA

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16
Q

DNA polymerase III?

A

extends the primers (the major DNA replication enzyme)

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17
Q

DNA ligase?

A

seals the newly synthesized pieces of DNA (okazaki fragments) together

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18
Q

What is genotype?

A

total genetic information that an organism posses.

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19
Q

What is phenotype?

A

the characteristics (appearance and behavior) that an organism displays.

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20
Q

What is a mutation?

A

a change in the base-pair sequence of DNA.

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21
Q

What is a gene?

A

a complete DNA base-pair sequence required to make a single final product that has a biological function.

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22
Q

What is a substitution mutation?

A

A single base is changed causing a possible change in the amino acid

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23
Q

What is a frameshift (deletion) mutation?

A

a single base is deleted causing the reading of the codon to be moved over.

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24
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

DNA molecules that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome

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25
Q

Plasmids ______ have genes for their own replication.

A

always

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26
Q

Plasmids _______ have genes that confer new phenotypic characteristics on the host cell such as antibiotic resistance, toxin production, new metabolic capabilities.

A

sometimes

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27
Q

Plasmids ________ have genes that mediate plasmid transfer to new cells (conjugation).

A

usually

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28
Q

What is homologous recombination?

A

the reassortment of similar nucleotide sequences.

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29
Q

What is RecBCD in E. coli?

A

unwinds double helix and cleaves single strands

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30
Q

What is RecA in E.coli?

A

facilitates strand exchange

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31
Q

Gene transfer is an ______ event and is ______ coupled to reproduction.

A

occasional; not

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32
Q

DNA transfer is ________ (from a ______ cell to ______ cell)

A

unidirectional; donor; recipient

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33
Q

Only _______ of a donor cell’s genetic material is transferred to a recipient cell.

A

part

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34
Q

Only _______ of a donor cell’s genetic material is transferred to a recipient cell.

A

part

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35
Q

What is conjugation?

A

DNA transfer when donor and recipient cells are in direct contact.

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36
Q

What is conjugation?

A

DNA transfer when donor and recipient cells are in direct contact.

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37
Q

What is transformation?

A

donor DNA in solution is taken up by recipient cells

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38
Q

What is transduction?

A

DNA transfer from donor to recipient cells mediated by bacteriophages (viruses)

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39
Q

What is transduction?

A

DNA transfer from donor to recipient cells mediated by bacteriophages (viruses)

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40
Q

Griffith Experiment?

A

any live virulent phenotype will result in death

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41
Q

Griffith Experiment?

A

any live virulent phenotype will result in death

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42
Q

Tobacco mosaic disease is caused by an infectious agent

A

Dmitri Ivanovsky

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43
Q

The infectious agent that cause tobacco mosaic disease is not a bacterium

A

Martinus Beijerinck

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44
Q

The infectious agent that cause tobacco mosaic disease is not a bacterium

A

Martinus Beijerinck

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45
Q

Foot-and-mouth disease in animals is caused by a virus

A

Friedrich Loeffler & Paul Frosch

46
Q

Malignant sarcomas in chickens are caused by a virus

A

Peyton Rous

47
Q

Malignant sarcomas in chickens are caused by a virus

A

Peyton Rous

48
Q

Discovery of the first bacterial viruses (bacteriophages)

A

Frederick Twort & Felix d’Herelle

49
Q

What is a plaque?

A

localized zone of phage growth

50
Q

What is a plaque?

A

localized zone of phage growth

51
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

exchange of RNA segments between viruses

52
Q

List the cycle of virus lytic growth.

A

Attachment (receptor mediated), penetration, synthesis of new viral components, assembly, and release

53
Q

List steps of lysogenic growth.

A

Attachment, penetration, virus DNA integrates into host chromosome (prophage), cell division, back to lytic growth.

54
Q

List steps of lysogenic growth.

A

Attachment, penetration, virus DNA integrates into host chromosome (prophage), cell division, back to lytic growth.

55
Q

What are Prions?

A

protein particles that are infectious in the absence of nucleic acids and cause slow degenerative brain diseases.

56
Q

How do disease like CJD, GSS, FFI, Kuru work?

A

normal prion protein (Prpc) refolds into abnormal form (Prpsc) which comes in contact with normal and transforms into abnormal

57
Q

How do disease like CJD, GSS, FFI, Kuru work?

A

normal prion protein (Prpc) refolds into abnormal form (Prpsc) which comes in contact with normal and transforms into abnormal

58
Q

What is the biological species concept?

A

a group of actually or potentially interbreeding natural populations, which are reproductively isolated from other such groups

59
Q

What is the biological species concept?

A

a group of actually or potentially interbreeding natural populations, which are reproductively isolated from other such groups

60
Q

Morphology, physiology, ecology, & medical importance are what?

A

Traditional methods of microbial classification.

61
Q

What are the molecular methods of microbial classification?

A

Nucleic acid hybridization, protein electrophoresis, nucleic acid and protein sequencing

62
Q

What are the molecular methods of microbial classification?

A

Nucleic acid hybridization, protein electrophoresis, nucleic acid and protein sequencing

63
Q

RNA world to progenote to last common ancestor to urkaryote then?

A

Urkaryote goes to eukaryote while it also splits to ancestral archaea and ancestral bacteria. Ancestral archaea to modern archaea and ancestral bacteria to modern bacteria.

64
Q

Cyanobacteria use _______ ________?

A

Oxygenic photosynthesis

65
Q

What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?

A

purple and green photosynthetic bacteria

66
Q

What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?

A

purple and green photosynthetic bacteria

67
Q

What are chemolithotrophs?

A

nitrifying bacteria

68
Q

Thiobacillus and Beggiatoa are ________?

A

sulfur-oxidizing bacteria

69
Q

Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.

A

strict aerobes

70
Q

Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.

A

strict aerobes

71
Q

Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.

A

strict aerobes

72
Q

Prosthecate or ______ bacteria

73
Q

hyphomicrobium

A

budding bacteria

74
Q

magnetosomes

A

magnetospirillum

75
Q

magnetosomes

A

magnetospirillum

76
Q

Gliding bacteria?

A

motile by means other than flagella such as myxobacteria

77
Q

predatory bacteria

A

bdellovibrio

78
Q

What grow as obligate intracellular parasites of eukaryotic cells?

A

rickettsias and chlamydias

79
Q

Rickettsias and chladmydias require?

A

biosynthetic precursors from their host cells. They havea specific transport system that exchanges internal ADP for external ATP.

80
Q

Rickettsias and chladmydias require?

A

biosynthetic precursors from their host cells. They havea specific transport system that exchanges internal ADP for external ATP.

81
Q

Low G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Firmicutes are?

A

Lactic acid, staphylococci, and endospore formers

82
Q

Firmicutes-related bacteria lacking cell walls are?

A

mycoplasmas

83
Q

High G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Actinobacteria?

A

coryneform, mycobacteria, actinomycetes, propionic acid, micrococci.

84
Q

High G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Actinobacteria?

A

coryneform, mycobacteria, actinomycetes, propionic acid, micrococci.

85
Q

Which bacteria completely lack cell wall?

A

mycoplasmas

86
Q

Distinguishing characteristics of archaea are?

A

cell wall has NAT instead of NAM, cell membrane has ether-linked phospholipids, protein synthesis has eukaryote-like features, metabolism has unique coenzymes and metabolic pathways.

87
Q

Distinguishing characteristics of archaea are?

A

cell wall has NAT instead of NAM, cell membrane has ether-linked phospholipids, protein synthesis has eukaryote-like features, metabolism has unique coenzymes and metabolic pathways.

88
Q

What are the two types of asexual spores?

A

sporangiospores and canidiospores

89
Q

How do fungi have asexual reproduction?

90
Q

________ occurs between opposite mating types within the same species.

A

Sexual reproduction

91
Q

How do fungi have sexual reproduction?

A

fusion of hyphae, mixing and fusion of nuclei, formation of a diploid zygote, meiosis to produce haploid sexual spores.

92
Q

What is genetic variation?

A

exchange of RNA segments between viruses (antigenic shift)

93
Q

How do fungi have sexual reproduction?

A

fusion of hyphae, mixing and fusion of nuclei, formation of a diploid zygote, meiosis to produce haploid sexual spores.

94
Q

What are the shapes of viruses?

A

filamentous, polyhedral (spherical), complex or combined

95
Q

What is an antigen?

A

any substance that includes an immune response

96
Q

Cyanobacteria use _______ ________?

A

Oxygenic photosynthesis (absorb longer wavelengths orange-red)

97
Q

What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?

A

purple and green photosynthetic bacteria (shorter wavelengths blue-green)

98
Q

What are chemolithotrophs?

A

nitrifying bacteria that reduce inorganic compounds

99
Q

Chain of granules

A

Magnetosomes (magnetospirillum)

100
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

small mutation in hemaglutinin and neuraminidases

101
Q

What type of bacteria inhabit soil/aquatic environments and are motile by lophotichous flagella?

102
Q

Transmission EM has ?

A

high resolution picture (2D)

103
Q

Transmission EM has ?

A

high resolution picture (2D)

104
Q

Scanning EM has?

A

Low resolution but 3D

105
Q

What are the extremophiles?

A

methanogens, halophilic archaea, hyperthermophilic, hyperthermophiles

106
Q

What is a strict anaerobe, methane producing, and has unique coenzymes?

A

methanogens

107
Q

What has optimal growth at 21-27% NaCl?

A

halophilic archaea

108
Q

What has optimal growth at 21-27% NaCl?

A

halophilic archaea

109
Q

What grows in up to 100 degree C, hot acid springs, and hydrothermal vents?

A

hyperthemophiles

110
Q

What grows in up to 100 degree C, hot acid springs, and hydrothermal vents?

A

hyperthermophiles

Microbiology 3401 (5 decks)

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