Final Flashcards
What are the four divisions of fungi?
Zygomycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Deuteromycota
What is the sexual spore of Zygomycota?
zygospores
What is thesexual spore of Ascomycota?
ascospores
What is the sexual spore of Basidiomycota?
basidiospores
What is the sexual spore of Deuteromycota?
none/unknown
What are some examples of fungal infections?
Ringworm, Athletes Foot
Name two examples of symbiotic relationships?
Nitrogen-fixing rhizobia within legumes; Mycorrhizae on plant roots
What is the study of algae?
Phycology
What are eukaryotes with a unicellular level of organization without cell differentiation into tissues?
Protists
What are the three cellular levels of organization?
Unicellular, Colonial, & Multicellular
A sudden infusion of large quantities of a formerly limiting nutrient?
Eutrophication
Unicellular life-forms, such as amebas and paramecia, were motile and appeared more like microscopic animals?
protozoa
Single-celled phototrophs such as diatoms and dinflagellates also thought as unicellular plants?
algae
What are the two types of social amoebas also known as slime molds?
Acellular and cellular
A plasmodium (multi-nucleate mass of cytoplasm) flows in amoeboid fashion across surfaces?
acellular slime mold
individual amoeboid cells aggregate into a pseudoplasmodium. The aggregation is triggered by cAMP.
cellular slime mold
What is the best-studied cellular slime mold?
Dictyostelium discoideum
What has two flagella and causes “red tide” which produces toxins?
Dinoflagellates
What does the apicomplexans plasmodium falciparum cause and what is its vector?
Malaria; Anopheles mosquitos
What is an animal intermediate carrier of infection?
vector
What does trypanosoma brucei cause and what is its vector?
African Sleeping Sickness; tsetse fly
What does trypanosoma cruzi cause and what is its vector?
Chagas’ Disease; triatomine bugs
Food products that are modified biochemically by microbial growth?
fermented foods
What enhances preservation, digestibility, nutrient content, and flavor?
Anaerobic fermentation of food
_______ leads to organic acid fermentation products, such as lactate and propionate.
Acidic fermentations
__________ produce ammonia and break down proteins to peptides.
Alkaline fermentations
_________ produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Ethanolic fermentation
_________ under anaerobic conditions of fermentation.
Lipids are relatively stable
__________ forms by lactic acid fermentation and rennet proteolysis, rendering casein insoluble.
milk curd
__________ include unripened cheese, semihard and hard cheeses that are cooked down and ripened, brined cheeses, and mold-ripened cheeses.
cheese varieties
________ are generated by minor side products of fermentation, such as alcohols, esters, and sulfur compounds.
Cheese flavors
_________ to tempeh and other products improves digestibility and decreases undesirable soy components such as phytates and lectins.
Soy fermentation
________ are fermented and brined to make sauerkraut and pickles.
Vegetables
________ for chocolate requires complex fermentation of cocoa beans within the fruit pulp, including the anaerobic fermentation by yeast and lactic acid bacteria, and aerobic respiration by Acetobacter species.
Cocoa fermentation
_________ include the soy product natto, the egg product pidan, and the locust bean product dawadawa.
Alkali-fermented vegetables
_______ by yeasts conducting limited ethanolic fermentation, producing enough carbon dioxide gas to expand the dough.
Bread is leavened
______ requires alcoholic fermentation of grain. Barley grains are germinated, allowing enzymes to break down the starch to maltose for yeast fermentation.
Beer
In industrialized nations, all municipal communities use some form of _________.
Wastewater treatment
_______ consists of screens that remove solid debris, such as sticks, dead animals, and feminine hygiene items.
Preliminary treatment
_______ includes fine screens and sedimentation tanks that remove insoluble particles.
Primary treatment
The particles eventually are recombined with the solid products of wastewater treatment to form what?
sludge
________ consists primarily of microbial ecosystems that decompose the soluble organic content of wastewater, by aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Secondary treatment
________ includes filtration of particulates from the microbial flocs of secondary treatment, and may include chemical processes to decrease nitrogen and phosphorus.
Tertiary (advanced) treatment
What is the breakdown of complex organic matter (polymers) into simple organic compounds?
decomposition
What is the breakdown of simple organic compounds into inorganic molecules (including CO2)
mineralization
What is the uptake and incorporation of an organic or inorganic nutrient into cellular material?
assimilation
The conversion of a molecule from a gaseous into a non-gaseous (fixed-form)
fixation
Carbon dioxide to methane by anaerobic conditions?
Methanogenesis
Methane to carbon dioxide by aerobic conditions?
Methanotrophy
Carbon dioxide to organic carbon by water making oxygen.
Carbon dioxide fixation
Organic carbon to carbon dioxide by oxygen making water.
Decomposition and mineralization
Nitrate to nitrite
Denitrification and assimilation
Nitrite to nitrate
nitrification
Nitrite to nitrous oxide
Denitrification
Nitrogen to organic nitrogen
nitrogen fixation
organic nitrogen to ammonia
ammonification
ammonia to nitrite
nitrification
nitrite to ammonia and ammonia to organic nitrogen
assimilation
______ penetrate and grow within the plant roots.
Endomycorrhizae
_______ form a mantle over the root surface.
Ectomycorrhizae
What is the entry and growth of a microorganism within a host?
infection
What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism produces symptoms and causes damage?
Disease
What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism persists without causing disease?
colonization
An infective microorganism that causes disease?
pathogen
What are the two types of pathogens?
Primary and Opportunistic
_______ regularly causes disease in at least some individuals with normal defenses.
Primary pathogen
________ usually does not cause disease except in individuals with compromised defenses.
Opportunistic pathogen
What is the degree of pathogenicity?
Virulence
What are the specific properties of a pathogen that promote disease and infection?
Virulence factors
What is the alteration of host behavior to reduce the risk of exposure to infectious agents?
Avoidance
What is the reduction of pathogen burden once infection is established?
Resistance
The reduction of the negative impact of an infection on host fitness without directly affecting the pathogen burden?
Tolerance
Defenses that act in the same way against all types of pathogens which consist of barriers to infection and innate immunity?
Nonspecific resistance
Defenses that are specifically adapted to act against each particular pathogen? Also called adaptive or acquired immunity.
Specific resistance
Both organisms benefit.
Mutualism
One organism benefits and the other is not affected.
Commensalism
One organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other (host).
Parasitism
What are the steps of bacterial infection?
Microbial entry into host by portals of entry; Microbial attachment to surface tissues; Microbial growth and spread within the host; Microbial exit from the host.
Inhibit phagocytosis and complement activation?
Capsule
Any poisonous substance of biological origin?
Toxin
What are the two types of toxins?
Endotoxin, Extoxins
Blocks neurotransmitter release?
Neurotoxin (botulinum)
Promotes massive fluid loss from intestinal epithelium?
Enterotoxin (cholera)
Kills cells by inactivating translation?
Cytotoxin (diptheria)
Lyse red blood cells by forming pores in membranes?
Hemolysins
Lyse white blood cells by forming pores in membranes?
Leukocidins
Degrades hyaluronic acid?
hyaluronidase
Degrades collagen?
Collagenase
Promotes blood clot formation?
Coagulase
Dissolves blood clots?
Streptokinase
Cleaves IgA antibodies
IgA protease
What are the three types of Physical and Chemical Barriers?
Tissue Integrity; Flushing mechanisms; Antimicrobial Substances
What are the four biological barriers?
Genetic resistance; Normal microbial flora; Phagocytosis; Inflammation
How does normal microbial flora protect the host?
limiting available nutrients, prevention of pathogen attachment, synthesizing antimicrobial agents.
Homozygous for normal hemoglobin (HbA)?
highly susceptible to the malaria parasite
Homozygous for variant hemoglobin (HbS)?
Severe sickle cell anemia, early death
Heterozygous for HbA and HbS?
mild sickle cell anemia, resistant to the malaria parasite
What are the steps of phagocytosis?
Chemotaxis, Attachment, Engulfment, Digestion
What are the specific receptor proteins on its surface that recognize and bind to distinctive molecules on the microbial cell surface?
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
What span the phagocyte cell membrane and signal presence of the pathogen, activating appropriate gene expression and host immune response?
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
What are the nonspecific host defense phagocytes?
Granulocytes- basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
What are the specific host defense?
Agranulocytes-lymphocytes
What differentiate to macrophages to become phagocytic?
Monocytes
What is the inflammation response?
Damage to host tissue produces injured and dead cells; cells in damaged tissues release mediators; mediators provoke a variety of biological responses (pain, fever, redness, swelling); tissue repair and regeneration; inflammation response is shut down.
Any molecule that is immunogenic (induces an immune response)?
Antigens
What are the general properties of antigens?
recognized as foreign (non-self) by the immune system; large molecules >6000 Da; possess multiple epitopes
What are the two types of immunity?
Humoral (body fluids) and Cell-mediated (body tissues)
______ are proteins in response to antigens?
Antibodies
What is the fluid portion of blood after clotting factors are removed?
Serum
______ remain soluble when blood serum is diluted with water?
Albumins
What is the precipitate?
globulins
What is the structure of an antibody and how many amino acids do they contain?
2 Heavy Chains (~400 amino acids) & 2 Light Chains (~200 amino acids)
Phagocytic cell makes contact with antigen; Phagocytosis of antigen; MHC proteins bind digested antigen carry to cell surface and display in cell membrane; phagocytic cell migrates to lymphoid tissue presents MHC complex to naive CD4 T lymphocyte, activated T cell to helper T lymphocyte then to activation of second lymphocyte; second lymphocyte divides and differentiates.
Primary Immune Response
Which proteins occur on all nucleated cells in the body and bind to endogenous antigens, those synthesized within the cytoplasm of a phagocytic cell that has been infected?
Class 1 MHC
Which proteins normally occur only on the surfaces of phagocytic cells and bind to exogenous antigens, those that are synthesized prior to engulfment by the phagocytic cell?
Class 2 MHC
______ carry ______ on their cell surface that recognize and bind to the antigen fragment-MHC complex presented by the phagocytic cell
T lymphocytes; T-Cell receptors
Each T lymphocyte carries its own unique TCRs that are only able to recognize and bind specifically to a ______ ______
single epitope
Subsets of T lymphocytes also carry different _______ associated with the TCR, including the _________.
co-receptors; CD co-receptors
Mature naive CD4 T lymphocytes receive antigen by phagocytic cell and turn to activated CD4 T lymphocytes and then divide and differentiate to?
Helper (CD4+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD4+) T lymphocytes
Mature naive B lymphocytes bind to antigen which becomes activated B lymphocytes and divide and differentiate to?
Plasma cells & memory B lymphocytes
Mature naive CD8+ T lymphocytes receive activation signals which become activated CD8+ T lymphocytes which divides and differentiates to?
Cytotoxic (CD8+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD8+) T lymphocytes
enhances killing by macrophages?
Macrophage activation factor (MAE)
Inhibits migration of macrophages from the site of infection?
Migration inhibition factor (MIF)
Have a wide range of activities in inflammatory and immune responses?
Interleukins
Attract leukocytes to antigen?
Chemokines
kill cells?
Lymphotoxins
stimulate cell division, including granulocytes and macrophages?
Colony stimulating factors
Inhibit viral replication?
Interferons
What are the types of cell-mediated immune response?
protection against certain infectious agents; tumor cell destruction; transplant tissue rejection
a transplant to another part of the same body?
autograft
a transplant between genetically identical individuals?
isograft
a transplant between genetically non identical individuals?
allograft
a transplant between individuals of different species?
xenograft
Primarily antibody mediated, a fast response?
immediate hypersensitivity
primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
anaphylactic hypersensitivity
IgM and IgG antibodies react with cellular antigens?
cytotoxic hypersensitivity
IgM and IgG antibodies react with soluble antigens, forming immune complexes of antigens and antibodies?
Immune-complex hypersensitivity
primarily cell-mediated, a slow response
delayed hypersensitivity
hay fever, mold, dust allergies, food allergies?
localized anaphylaxis
drug allergies, insect, spider bites and can lead to anaphylactic shock?
systemic anaphylaxis
