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Microbiology 3401 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the four divisions of fungi?

A

Zygomycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Deuteromycota

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2
Q

What is the sexual spore of Zygomycota?

A

zygospores

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3
Q

What is thesexual spore of Ascomycota?

A

ascospores

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4
Q

What is the sexual spore of Basidiomycota?

A

basidiospores

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5
Q

What is the sexual spore of Deuteromycota?

A

none/unknown

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6
Q

What are some examples of fungal infections?

A

Ringworm, Athletes Foot

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7
Q

Name two examples of symbiotic relationships?

A

Nitrogen-fixing rhizobia within legumes; Mycorrhizae on plant roots

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8
Q

What is the study of algae?

A

Phycology

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9
Q

What are eukaryotes with a unicellular level of organization without cell differentiation into tissues?

A

Protists

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10
Q

What are the three cellular levels of organization?

A

Unicellular, Colonial, & Multicellular

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11
Q

A sudden infusion of large quantities of a formerly limiting nutrient?

A

Eutrophication

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12
Q

Unicellular life-forms, such as amebas and paramecia, were motile and appeared more like microscopic animals?

A

protozoa

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13
Q

Single-celled phototrophs such as diatoms and dinflagellates also thought as unicellular plants?

A

algae

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14
Q

What are the two types of social amoebas also known as slime molds?

A

Acellular and cellular

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15
Q

A plasmodium (multi-nucleate mass of cytoplasm) flows in amoeboid fashion across surfaces?

A

acellular slime mold

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16
Q

individual amoeboid cells aggregate into a pseudoplasmodium. The aggregation is triggered by cAMP.

A

cellular slime mold

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17
Q

What is the best-studied cellular slime mold?

A

Dictyostelium discoideum

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18
Q

What has two flagella and causes “red tide” which produces toxins?

A

Dinoflagellates

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19
Q

What does the apicomplexans plasmodium falciparum cause and what is its vector?

A

Malaria; Anopheles mosquitos

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20
Q

What is an animal intermediate carrier of infection?

A

vector

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21
Q

What does trypanosoma brucei cause and what is its vector?

A

African Sleeping Sickness; tsetse fly

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22
Q

What does trypanosoma cruzi cause and what is its vector?

A

Chagas’ Disease; triatomine bugs

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23
Q

Food products that are modified biochemically by microbial growth?

A

fermented foods

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24
Q

What enhances preservation, digestibility, nutrient content, and flavor?

A

Anaerobic fermentation of food

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25
Q

_______ leads to organic acid fermentation products, such as lactate and propionate.

A

Acidic fermentations

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26
Q

__________ produce ammonia and break down proteins to peptides.

A

Alkaline fermentations

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27
Q

_________ produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.

A

Ethanolic fermentation

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28
Q

_________ under anaerobic conditions of fermentation.

A

Lipids are relatively stable

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29
Q

__________ forms by lactic acid fermentation and rennet proteolysis, rendering casein insoluble.

A

milk curd

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30
Q

__________ include unripened cheese, semihard and hard cheeses that are cooked down and ripened, brined cheeses, and mold-ripened cheeses.

A

cheese varieties

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31
Q

________ are generated by minor side products of fermentation, such as alcohols, esters, and sulfur compounds.

A

Cheese flavors

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32
Q

_________ to tempeh and other products improves digestibility and decreases undesirable soy components such as phytates and lectins.

A

Soy fermentation

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33
Q

________ are fermented and brined to make sauerkraut and pickles.

A

Vegetables

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34
Q

________ for chocolate requires complex fermentation of cocoa beans within the fruit pulp, including the anaerobic fermentation by yeast and lactic acid bacteria, and aerobic respiration by Acetobacter species.

A

Cocoa fermentation

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35
Q

_________ include the soy product natto, the egg product pidan, and the locust bean product dawadawa.

A

Alkali-fermented vegetables

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36
Q

_______ by yeasts conducting limited ethanolic fermentation, producing enough carbon dioxide gas to expand the dough.

A

Bread is leavened

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37
Q

______ requires alcoholic fermentation of grain. Barley grains are germinated, allowing enzymes to break down the starch to maltose for yeast fermentation.

A

Beer

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38
Q

In industrialized nations, all municipal communities use some form of _________.

A

Wastewater treatment

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39
Q

_______ consists of screens that remove solid debris, such as sticks, dead animals, and feminine hygiene items.

A

Preliminary treatment

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40
Q

_______ includes fine screens and sedimentation tanks that remove insoluble particles.

A

Primary treatment

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41
Q

The particles eventually are recombined with the solid products of wastewater treatment to form what?

A

sludge

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42
Q

________ consists primarily of microbial ecosystems that decompose the soluble organic content of wastewater, by aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

A

Secondary treatment

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43
Q

________ includes filtration of particulates from the microbial flocs of secondary treatment, and may include chemical processes to decrease nitrogen and phosphorus.

A

Tertiary (advanced) treatment

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44
Q

What is the breakdown of complex organic matter (polymers) into simple organic compounds?

A

decomposition

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45
Q

What is the breakdown of simple organic compounds into inorganic molecules (including CO2)

A

mineralization

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46
Q

What is the uptake and incorporation of an organic or inorganic nutrient into cellular material?

A

assimilation

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47
Q

The conversion of a molecule from a gaseous into a non-gaseous (fixed-form)

A

fixation

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48
Q

Carbon dioxide to methane by anaerobic conditions?

A

Methanogenesis

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49
Q

Methane to carbon dioxide by aerobic conditions?

A

Methanotrophy

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50
Q

Carbon dioxide to organic carbon by water making oxygen.

A

Carbon dioxide fixation

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51
Q

Organic carbon to carbon dioxide by oxygen making water.

A

Decomposition and mineralization

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52
Q

Nitrate to nitrite

A

Denitrification and assimilation

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53
Q

Nitrite to nitrate

A

nitrification

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54
Q

Nitrite to nitrous oxide

A

Denitrification

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55
Q

Nitrogen to organic nitrogen

A

nitrogen fixation

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56
Q

organic nitrogen to ammonia

A

ammonification

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57
Q

ammonia to nitrite

A

nitrification

58
Q

nitrite to ammonia and ammonia to organic nitrogen

A

assimilation

59
Q

______ penetrate and grow within the plant roots.

A

Endomycorrhizae

60
Q

_______ form a mantle over the root surface.

A

Ectomycorrhizae

61
Q

What is the entry and growth of a microorganism within a host?

A

infection

62
Q

What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism produces symptoms and causes damage?

A

Disease

63
Q

What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism persists without causing disease?

A

colonization

64
Q

An infective microorganism that causes disease?

A

pathogen

65
Q

What are the two types of pathogens?

A

Primary and Opportunistic

66
Q

_______ regularly causes disease in at least some individuals with normal defenses.

A

Primary pathogen

67
Q

________ usually does not cause disease except in individuals with compromised defenses.

A

Opportunistic pathogen

68
Q

What is the degree of pathogenicity?

A

Virulence

69
Q

What are the specific properties of a pathogen that promote disease and infection?

A

Virulence factors

70
Q

What is the alteration of host behavior to reduce the risk of exposure to infectious agents?

A

Avoidance

71
Q

What is the reduction of pathogen burden once infection is established?

A

Resistance

72
Q

The reduction of the negative impact of an infection on host fitness without directly affecting the pathogen burden?

A

Tolerance

73
Q

Defenses that act in the same way against all types of pathogens which consist of barriers to infection and innate immunity?

A

Nonspecific resistance

74
Q

Defenses that are specifically adapted to act against each particular pathogen? Also called adaptive or acquired immunity.

A

Specific resistance

75
Q

Both organisms benefit.

A

Mutualism

76
Q

One organism benefits and the other is not affected.

A

Commensalism

77
Q

One organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other (host).

A

Parasitism

78
Q

What are the steps of bacterial infection?

A

Microbial entry into host by portals of entry; Microbial attachment to surface tissues; Microbial growth and spread within the host; Microbial exit from the host.

79
Q

Inhibit phagocytosis and complement activation?

A

Capsule

80
Q

Any poisonous substance of biological origin?

A

Toxin

81
Q

What are the two types of toxins?

A

Endotoxin, Extoxins

82
Q

Blocks neurotransmitter release?

A

Neurotoxin (botulinum)

83
Q

Promotes massive fluid loss from intestinal epithelium?

A

Enterotoxin (cholera)

84
Q

Kills cells by inactivating translation?

A

Cytotoxin (diptheria)

85
Q

Lyse red blood cells by forming pores in membranes?

A

Hemolysins

86
Q

Lyse white blood cells by forming pores in membranes?

A

Leukocidins

87
Q

Degrades hyaluronic acid?

A

hyaluronidase

88
Q

Degrades collagen?

A

Collagenase

89
Q

Promotes blood clot formation?

A

Coagulase

90
Q

Dissolves blood clots?

A

Streptokinase

91
Q

Cleaves IgA antibodies

A

IgA protease

92
Q

What are the three types of Physical and Chemical Barriers?

A

Tissue Integrity; Flushing mechanisms; Antimicrobial Substances

93
Q

What are the four biological barriers?

A

Genetic resistance; Normal microbial flora; Phagocytosis; Inflammation

94
Q

How does normal microbial flora protect the host?

A

limiting available nutrients, prevention of pathogen attachment, synthesizing antimicrobial agents.

95
Q

Homozygous for normal hemoglobin (HbA)?

A

highly susceptible to the malaria parasite

96
Q

Homozygous for variant hemoglobin (HbS)?

A

Severe sickle cell anemia, early death

97
Q

Heterozygous for HbA and HbS?

A

mild sickle cell anemia, resistant to the malaria parasite

98
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A

Chemotaxis, Attachment, Engulfment, Digestion

99
Q

What are the specific receptor proteins on its surface that recognize and bind to distinctive molecules on the microbial cell surface?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

100
Q

What span the phagocyte cell membrane and signal presence of the pathogen, activating appropriate gene expression and host immune response?

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

101
Q

What are the nonspecific host defense phagocytes?

A

Granulocytes- basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

102
Q

What are the specific host defense?

A

Agranulocytes-lymphocytes

103
Q

What differentiate to macrophages to become phagocytic?

A

Monocytes

104
Q

What is the inflammation response?

A

Damage to host tissue produces injured and dead cells; cells in damaged tissues release mediators; mediators provoke a variety of biological responses (pain, fever, redness, swelling); tissue repair and regeneration; inflammation response is shut down.

105
Q

Any molecule that is immunogenic (induces an immune response)?

A

Antigens

106
Q

What are the general properties of antigens?

A

recognized as foreign (non-self) by the immune system; large molecules >6000 Da; possess multiple epitopes

107
Q

What are the two types of immunity?

A

Humoral (body fluids) and Cell-mediated (body tissues)

108
Q

______ are proteins in response to antigens?

A

Antibodies

109
Q

What is the fluid portion of blood after clotting factors are removed?

A

Serum

110
Q

______ remain soluble when blood serum is diluted with water?

A

Albumins

111
Q

What is the precipitate?

A

globulins

112
Q

What is the structure of an antibody and how many amino acids do they contain?

A

2 Heavy Chains (~400 amino acids) & 2 Light Chains (~200 amino acids)

113
Q

Phagocytic cell makes contact with antigen; Phagocytosis of antigen; MHC proteins bind digested antigen carry to cell surface and display in cell membrane; phagocytic cell migrates to lymphoid tissue presents MHC complex to naive CD4 T lymphocyte, activated T cell to helper T lymphocyte then to activation of second lymphocyte; second lymphocyte divides and differentiates.

A

Primary Immune Response

114
Q

Which proteins occur on all nucleated cells in the body and bind to endogenous antigens, those synthesized within the cytoplasm of a phagocytic cell that has been infected?

A

Class 1 MHC

115
Q

Which proteins normally occur only on the surfaces of phagocytic cells and bind to exogenous antigens, those that are synthesized prior to engulfment by the phagocytic cell?

A

Class 2 MHC

116
Q

______ carry ______ on their cell surface that recognize and bind to the antigen fragment-MHC complex presented by the phagocytic cell

A

T lymphocytes; T-Cell receptors

117
Q

Each T lymphocyte carries its own unique TCRs that are only able to recognize and bind specifically to a ______ ______

A

single epitope

118
Q

Subsets of T lymphocytes also carry different _______ associated with the TCR, including the _________.

A

co-receptors; CD co-receptors

119
Q

Mature naive CD4 T lymphocytes receive antigen by phagocytic cell and turn to activated CD4 T lymphocytes and then divide and differentiate to?

A

Helper (CD4+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD4+) T lymphocytes

120
Q

Mature naive B lymphocytes bind to antigen which becomes activated B lymphocytes and divide and differentiate to?

A

Plasma cells & memory B lymphocytes

121
Q

Mature naive CD8+ T lymphocytes receive activation signals which become activated CD8+ T lymphocytes which divides and differentiates to?

A

Cytotoxic (CD8+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD8+) T lymphocytes

122
Q

enhances killing by macrophages?

A

Macrophage activation factor (MAE)

123
Q

Inhibits migration of macrophages from the site of infection?

A

Migration inhibition factor (MIF)

124
Q

Have a wide range of activities in inflammatory and immune responses?

A

Interleukins

125
Q

Attract leukocytes to antigen?

A

Chemokines

126
Q

kill cells?

A

Lymphotoxins

127
Q

stimulate cell division, including granulocytes and macrophages?

A

Colony stimulating factors

128
Q

Inhibit viral replication?

A

Interferons

129
Q

What are the types of cell-mediated immune response?

A

protection against certain infectious agents; tumor cell destruction; transplant tissue rejection

130
Q

a transplant to another part of the same body?

A

autograft

131
Q

a transplant between genetically identical individuals?

A

isograft

132
Q

a transplant between genetically non identical individuals?

A

allograft

133
Q

a transplant between individuals of different species?

A

xenograft

134
Q

Primarily antibody mediated, a fast response?

A

immediate hypersensitivity

135
Q

primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?

A

anaphylactic hypersensitivity

136
Q

IgM and IgG antibodies react with cellular antigens?

A

cytotoxic hypersensitivity

137
Q

IgM and IgG antibodies react with soluble antigens, forming immune complexes of antigens and antibodies?

A

Immune-complex hypersensitivity

138
Q

primarily cell-mediated, a slow response

A

delayed hypersensitivity

139
Q

hay fever, mold, dust allergies, food allergies?

A

localized anaphylaxis

140
Q

drug allergies, insect, spider bites and can lead to anaphylactic shock?

A

systemic anaphylaxis

Microbiology 3401 (5 decks)

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