Test 3-2 Flashcards

1
Q

The metabolic differences between bacteria (prokaryotes) and eukaryotes can be utilized for

A

for the development of antibacterial therapies

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2
Q

Lag phase:

A

The initial period of adaptation to a new environment which is essential for the cell to accumulate metabolites necessary for maximal cell growth. There is an increase in metabolic activity so bacteria are sensitive to antimicrobials. There is little to no cell division.

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3
Q

Exponential (logarithmic) phase:

A

Bacteria multiply rapidly by binary fission, and the populations doubles at a constant rate. During this phase bacteria are most susceptible to killing by certain antibiotics.

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4
Q

Stationary phase:

A

During this time nutrients are depleted and toxic waste products/metabolites are accumulating in media resulting in a decreased growth rate. Viable cell count remains constant because bacteria have stopped dividing but are not yet dying. Bacteria are much less susceptible to killing by antimicrobials. During this phase spore forming bacteria initiate the sporulation process.

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5
Q

Decline phase:

A

More bacteria are killed than are generated resulting in a decrease in the number of live bacteria.

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6
Q

Obligate aerobe:

A

bacteria that require oxygen and metabolize by respiration (M. tuberculosis, P. aeruginosa, B. anthracis)

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7
Q

Obligate anaerobe:

A

bacteria that are inhibited or killed by oxygen and utilize fermentation exclusively for energy production (C. botulinum, Bacteroides)

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8
Q

Facultative anaerobe (the majority of pathogens):

A

bacteria that grow well under aerobic or anaerobic conditions. If oxygen is available they respire, if not they use fermentation.

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9
Q

Microaerophilic:

A

Require 5-10% oxygen for optimal growth (Campylobacter jejuni)

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10
Q

Superoxide Dismutase rxn

A

2O2- + 2H+ —> H2O2 + O2

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11
Q

Catalase or Peroxidase rxn

A

H2O2 + H2A* —> 2H2O + A

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12
Q

Catalase rxn if H2O2

A

H2O2 + H2O2 —-> 2H2O + O2

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13
Q

Bacteria that lack superoxide dismutase, catalase and peroxidase are very sensitive to

A

oxygen and likely anaerobic

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14
Q

aerobic bacteria express wtih enzymes?

A

superoxide dismutase, catalase and peroxidase

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15
Q

Reproduction: Binary Fission

A

Bacteria exist in a haploid state
Only one chromosome
A double-stranded DNA circle contained in a discrete area called a nucleoid

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16
Q

Binary Fission is:

A

An exact copy of the genome is made and,

a single cell divides into 2 (binary) daughter cells

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17
Q

Replication: DNA polymerization

A
  • Replication always begins at the origin (ori)
  • Bacterial DNA gyrase required for unwinding/winding DNA and are the target of quinolones
  • Semiconservative replication
  • each strand serves as a template therefore each resultant strand has a copy of the original genomic DNA
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18
Q

Requirements for growth

A
  • Energy source

- Raw materials to build proteins, structures, and membranes

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19
Q

The minimum requirement for growth is

A

a source of carbon and nitrogen, an energy source, water and various ions

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20
Q

Growth in culture is determined by

A

pH optimum,
aerobic versus anaerobic
nutrients/composition of media
temperature

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21
Q

Cell density is determined by

A

colony counts on agar plates or by turbidity (spectrophotometry)

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22
Q

groups of bacteria based on metabolic properties

A

Autotroph: generate their own energy (eg from sunlight)
Heteroptroph: Uses organic carbon for growth
Phototroph: …
Chemoheterotrophs: Use organic compounds as both their energy source and their carbon source

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23
Q

most pathogenic bacteria are

A

chemoheterotrophs

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24
Q

Aerobic

A
  • Exclusively utilizes respiration to meet its energy need

- examples: M. tuberculosis, P. aeroginosa, B. anthrasis

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25
Q

Anaerobe

A
  • Exclusively utilizes fermentation to meet its energy needs

- Examples: C. botulinum, Bacteriodes

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26
Q

oxygen does what to anaerobes?

A

kills dem

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27
Q

Facultative anaerobes can

A
  • respire or ferment

- (E. coli, Shigella dysenteriae, S. aureus)

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28
Q

Microaerophilic - grow best

A

best at low O2 but can grow without O2 as well (ex. C. jejuni)

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29
Q

Two highly reactive forms of oxygen are very toxic to cells

A
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Superoxide anion (O2-)
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30
Q

Bacteria counteract reactive oxygen species by two major mechanisms

A
  • Catalase, catalyzes the breakdown of H2O2 to H2O and O2

- SOD (superoxide dismutase) is expressed by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes to help detoxify O2-

31
Q

Bacteria that lack SOD and Catalase are

A

very sensitive to oxygen and likely anaerobic

32
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria (obligate anaerobes) and oxygen:

A

-small amount of catalase and superoxide dismutase

33
Q

faculative anaerobes (obligate anaerobes) and oxygen:

A

-have catalase and superoxide dismutase

34
Q

Obligate anaerobes: and O2

A

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

35
Q

Obligate aerobes:and O2

A
  • require the presence of molecular oxygen for metabolism and growth
  • produce superoxide dismutase and catalase which can detoxify hydrogen peroxide and superoxide radicals that are toxic byproducts of aerobic metabolism
36
Q

facultative anaerobes. and O2

A

grow in either the presence or absence of oxygen

msot bacteria

37
Q

Aerobic respiration:

A
  • Energy-generating mode used by all aerobic bacteria. Molecular oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor.
  • most efficient for ATP gen
38
Q

Anaerobic respiration:

A

Energy generating mode used in some facultative organisms and some obligate anaerobes. Inorganic compounds other than molecular oxygen serve as terminal electron acceptors (e.g. nitrate or sulfate).

39
Q

Fermentation:

A
  • Anaerobic process utilized by some bacterial species. An organic metabolic intermediate derived from a fermentable substrate serves as the final electron acceptor
  • LEAST EFFICIENT for ATP gen
40
Q

final electron acceptor of fermentation?

A

organic molecule

41
Q

final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration?

A

mol O2

42
Q

Many bacteria can be identified based on what end products

A

end products of pyruvate

43
Q

Nucleic acid biosynthesis

A
  • Nucleotides are the building blocks for DNA and RNA, as well as the energy storage molecules ATP and GTP
  • Nucleotides are also components of cofactors (NAD, FAD, coenzyme A), biosynthetic intermediates (UDP-glucose), and second messengers (cAMP, cGMP)
  • Agents that selectively inhibit microbial nucleic acid biosynthesis are important
44
Q

what is essential to the synthesis of purines and thymidine?

A

folate

45
Q

folic acid is derived from what in bacteria

-derived from what in humans?

A
paraaminobenzoic acid (PABA)
-NOT derived must have in diet
46
Q

sulfonamides mechanism of action

A

(dont really need to know this) block dihydropteroate synthase (converts dihydropteroate diphosphate + PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid) to dihydrofolic acid

47
Q

DHFR INHIBITORS mech of action

A

(dont really need to know this) blocks dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) whcih converts dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid which ultimately is converted into purines and thymidine

48
Q

Are DHFR INHIBITORS and sulfonamides present in mammals?

A

only DHFR is

49
Q

ability to shuffle along the mRNA to srart a new protein is a characteristic of

A

only the 70S bacterial

NOT the 80S eukaryotic

50
Q

Bacterial protein synthesis.

A

Binding of the 30S subunit to the messenger RNA with the formyl methionine transfer RNA (fMet-tRNA) at the AUG start condon allows assembly of the 70S ribosome. The fMet-tRNA binds to the peptidyl site. The next tRNA binds to its condon at the A site and accepts the growing peptide chain. Before translocation to the peptidyl site. The process is repeated until a stop codon and the protein are released.

51
Q

Peptidoglycan fun facts

A
  • Internal to the capsule (if one exists) but external to cytoplasmic membrane (not found on Mycoplasma and Chlamydia)
  • Provides protection (physical/mechanical, osmotic, chemical and biological agents)
  • Determines shape
  • Gram stain distinguish major types of envelopes: Gram (+) and Gram (-) cell wall
  • Both Gram (+) and Gram (-) have a PG layer
  • Peptidoglycan is found uniquely on prokaryotes
52
Q

general structure of peptidglycan

A
  • meshlike layer around cell
  • polysaccharide polymer crosslinked by peptide
  • pentaglycine bridge found in S. aureus (gram positive): expands the cross link
  • Peptides are cross-linked through a peptide bond between the terminal D-Ala from one chain and a Lys (or other diamino amino acid) from the other chain.
53
Q

monosaccharides of peptidoglycan that make up the polysaccharides?

A

1) N-acetylglucosamine
GlcNAc
G
—–>NAG

2) N-acetylmuramic acid
MurNAc
M
—->NAM

54
Q

polysaccharide formation steps

A

1) in cytoplasm - attaching to UDP - ACTIVATION
2) A pentapeptide is added to UDP-NAM (independent of mRNA and ribosomes. It is produced enzymatically.)
3) UDP-NAM-pentapeptide is attached to the bactoprenol through a pyrophospate link with the release of UMP (first two AA are variable; the thrid must be a di-amino Lys
4) NAG is added to NAM-pentapeptide-bactoprenol complex (conveyer belt type molcule) (ON INSIDE)
5) The bactoprenol carrier transports the completed NAG-NAM pentapeptide repeat unit across the membrane (ON OUTSIDE)
6) The disaccharide unit is attached to the end of the growing peptidoglycan chain by enzymes called transglycosylases
7) Pyrophosphobactoprenol is converted back to phospho-bactoprenol and recycled

55
Q

Bactoprenol is

A

is a lipid transport molecule that acts as a conveyor belt to transport peptidoglycan precursors across the cell membrane.

56
Q

Transpeptidation:

A

Occurs between the free amine of the diamino amino acid in the third position of the pentapeptide (or the N-terminus of the attached pentaglycine chain), and the D-alanine at the fourth position of the other peptide chain, releasing the D-alanine precursor = tetrapeptide linkage via transpeptidases (penicillin binding proteins)

57
Q

Do acid fast bacteria contain proteoglycan in their cell wall/

A

YES - gram +/- and acid fast

58
Q

acid fast bac are more similar to…

A

gram + bc no outer membrane

59
Q

endotoxin is a component of:

A

gram negative bacteria

60
Q

What is a virulence factor that inhibits phagocytosis by macrophages?

A

capsule

61
Q

no division in which phase of growth?

A

LAG phase …. theyre metabloically active only

62
Q

bacteria are no longer metabolically active at which stage of growth?

A

Statinary phase!

63
Q

during which phases are bacteria most senitive and elast sensitive to antimicrobials

A

MOST during lag and exponential phase BC theyre incorporating the antimicrobials into their systems

LEAST during stationary phase.. theyre not metabolically active anymore

64
Q

endospores begin to form in which phase of growth?

A

stationary phase…

65
Q

what unwinds the DNA in bacterial rep?

A

DNA gyrase

66
Q

co-transcriptional translation

A

No nuclear membrane in bacteria so you can have both transcription and translation at the same time

67
Q

what blocks transglycosylation

A

vancomycin

68
Q

Is peptidoglycan a structure that is only found in bacteria?

A

YES

69
Q

During peptidoglycan formation amino acids are added without the help of transfer RNA and ribosomes?

A

YES- addition to NAM

70
Q

what test differentiates between staphylococcus and streptococcus/Enterococcus species?

A

catalsae test

71
Q

catalase + cocci =

A

staphylococcus spp

72
Q

catalase - cocci =

A

streptococcus and enterococcus spp

73
Q

what culture media is used to test for hemolysis

A

Blood agar

74
Q

what test differentiates amongst enterobacteriacea groups?

A

lactose fermentation