Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Animal Cell Characteristics

A
  • heterotrophs
  • multicellular
  • no cell wall
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2
Q

When was the first evidence of animals? What was it?

A
  • 700 mya
  • first animal fossils were sponges
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3
Q

What are sponges related to?

A
  • choanoflagellates; are sessile (immobile) and filter feeders
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4
Q

Major Animal Phyla

A
  • Porifera
  • Cnidaria
  • Platyhelminthes
  • Nematodes
  • Mollusca
  • Annelida
  • Arthopoda
  • Echinodermata
  • Chordata
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5
Q

2 General Trends in Animal Evolution

A
  1. increase in mobility
  2. increase in size
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6
Q

What is required for Increase in Mobility

A
  • requires:
    a) tissue: muscles, nervous tissue
    b) skeleton
    c) orientation (having a front and a back end)
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7
Q

What is the front end of an animal used for?

A
  • sensory system
  • feeding structures
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8
Q

What is the rear end of an animal used for?

A
  • locomotive structures
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9
Q

What is required for Increase in Size

A

requires:
a) circulatory system
b) organs

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10
Q

What is the circulatory system used for?

A

movement within the body

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11
Q

What are organs used for?

A

they work together within the circulatory system

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12
Q

Sessile definition

A

immobile

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13
Q

5 Characteristics of the Animal Phyla

A
  1. symmetry
  2. level of organization
  3. gut development
  4. type of coelom
  5. segmentation
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14
Q

What does symmetry help with? What are the three versions?

A
  • helps with mobility and orientation
  • 3 versions:
    a) asymmetry
    b) radial symmetry
    c) bilateral symmetry
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15
Q

Asymmetry

A
  • porifera
  • sponges are not mobile so they do not need symmetry
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16
Q

Radial Symmetry

A
  • more than 2 ways to divide the body and get mirrored halves
  • cnidaria; good for up and downward movement
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17
Q

Bilateral symmetry

A
  • only one way to divide body in half and get mirrored halves
  • all other phyla
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18
Q

What are the 3 levels of organization?

A
  1. cellular level
  2. tissue level
  3. organ level
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19
Q

Cellular Level

A
  • body is composed of specialized, mostly totipotent cells that are capable of living on their own
  • lack tissue, so cells work independently
  • of cut in half, new organism forms
  • porifera
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20
Q

Tissue Level

A
  • body composed of tissue and lacks organs
  • cells work together
  • cnidaria
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21
Q

Organ Level

A
  • body composed of organs
  • all other phyla
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22
Q

Tissue

A

group of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function within an organism

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23
Q

Organ

A

group of tissue in an organism that has adapted to perform a specific function

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24
Q

Blastula

A
  • 64 cell stage
  • totipotent
  • if split, you get twins
  • 2 things can happen:
    a) can become ciliated
    b) gastrulation
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25
Q

Blastocoel

A

fluid filled cavity in blastula

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26
Q

What happens if the blastula becomes ciliated?

A
  • develops into a sponge (porifera phylum)
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27
Q

What happens if the blastula goes through gastrulation?

A
  • develops into a gastrula
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28
Q

Gastrula

A
  • differentiated
  • 2 embryonic tissues:
    a) ectoderm
    b) endoderm
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29
Q

Ectoderm

A
  • all cells on the outside of gastrula
  • partially specialized tissue that becomes integument and/or the nervous system
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30
Q

Endoderm

A
  • in the “dimple”/archenteron of the gastrula
  • partially specialized tissue that becomes the lining of the digestive system
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31
Q

Archenteron

A
  • embryonic gut
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32
Q

What are the two things that can happen to the gastrula?

A
  1. archenteron expands and fills interior
  2. third embryonic tissue forms
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33
Q

What happens when the archenteron expands and fills the gastrula interior?

A
  • you get a gastrovascular cavity
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34
Q

Gastrovascular cavity

A
  • body formed from 2 embryonic tissues
  • diploblastic
  • responsible for the digestion of food and transport of nutrients
  • cnidaria
  • tissue level of organization
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35
Q

What happens if a third embryonic tissue forms from the gastrula?

A
  • you get a triploblastic cell
  • creates the mesoderm
  • organ level of organization
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36
Q

Mesoderm

A
  • partially differentiated tissue that becomes muscle, skeletal system, circulatory system, and organs
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37
Q

Blastopore

A
  • opening that forms during gastrulation
  • later develops into mouth or anus
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38
Q

Gastrulation

A
  • embryonic stage where the 3 germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm) are established
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39
Q

Diploblastic

A

organism with 2 germ layers: ectoderm and endoderm

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40
Q

Triploblastic

A

organism with 3 germ layers: ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm

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41
Q

Gut Development

A
  • 2 aspects
    a) completeness
    b) orientation
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42
Q

Gut Development: Completeness

A

a) no gut: porifera
b) incomplete gut: one opening; cnidaria and platyhelminthes
c) complete gut: 2 openings; more efficient bc start and end; all other phyla

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43
Q

Gut Development: Orientation

A
  • protostome
  • deuterostome
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44
Q

Protostome

A
  • blastopore becomes the mouth
  • nematodes, mollusca, annelida, arthopode
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45
Q

Deuterostome

A
  • blastopore becomes the anus
  • echinodermata and chordata
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46
Q

Type of Coelom

A
  • triploblasts
  • 3 versions
    a) acoelom
    b) pseudocoelom
    c) coelomate
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47
Q

Coelom

A

body cavity that houses organs

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48
Q

Acoelom

A
  • coelom is filled with mesoderm that surrounds organs
  • heavy and less flexible
    -ex: tapeworms
  • platyhelminthes
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49
Q

Pseudocoelom

A
  • not completely lined by mesoderm
  • organs move freely
  • nematodes
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50
Q

Coelomate

A
  • completely lined by mesoderm
  • mesoderm and endoderm being close to each other allows for complex digestive systems
  • mollusca, annelids, arthopoda, echinodermata, chordata
  • organs are held in place
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51
Q

Segmentation

A
  • body cavity is divided into discrete segments
  • chordata, annelida, arthopoda
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52
Q

What is segmentation good for?

A

Segments have unique set of genes that are much different from each other that allow for complex bodies

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53
Q

What are the 4 major animal tissue types?

A
  1. epithelial tissue
  2. connective tissue
  3. nervous tissue
  4. muscle tissue
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54
Q

Epithelial Tissue

A
  • covers the body surfaces
  • not vascularized
  • 3 shapes
  • functions:
    a) protection from predators, desiccation, bacteria, abrasion
    b) thermal regulation
    c) absorption
    d) secretion
    e) diffusive exchange
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55
Q

What are the 3 epithelial tissue shapes?

A
  • squamous epithelia
  • cuboidal epithelia
  • columnar epithelia
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56
Q

What does it mean to be vascularized?

A

to have a blood supply

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57
Q

What are the 2 versions of Squamous Epithelia?

A

simple or stratified

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58
Q

Simple Squamous Epithelia

A
  • flat cells
  • barrier between 2 compartments
  • one cell layer thick
  • rapid movement of gas exchange
  • derived from ectoderm
  • in lungs and capillary blood cells
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59
Q

Stratified Squamous Epithelia

A
  • multiple layers of flat cells
  • basal layer is living
  • outer layers are dead and full of keratin
  • protection from abrasion
  • skin, esophagus
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60
Q

What does keratin do within epithelial cells?

A
  • makes cells waterproof
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61
Q

Cuboidal Epithelia

A
  • secretory
  • lines the glands
  • derived from mesoderm
  • in kidneys
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62
Q

Columnar Epithelia

A
  • lining of the digestive system
  • absorption/selective uptake of nutrients
  • some secretion of digestive enzymes
  • lifespan of 3 days
  • from endoderm
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63
Q

Connective Tissue

A
  • used for support, connections, and storage
  • composed of cells in an extracellular matrix
  • 5 types
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64
Q

What does extracellular matrix mean?

A
  • ground substance and fibers that occupies the empty spaces between cells
  • gel like
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65
Q

What are the 5 types of of connective tissue?

A
  1. loose connective tissue
  2. dense connective tissue
  3. cartilage
  4. bones
  5. vascular
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66
Q

Loose connective tissue

A
  • flexible
  • well vascularized
  • makes connections
  • some storage
  • 2 types
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67
Q

What are the 2 types of loose connective tissue?

A

areola and adipose

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68
Q

Areola tissue

A
  • fibroblasts
  • large cells with a matrix of ground substance and 2 protein fibers (collagen and elastin)
  • holds skin intact
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69
Q

What does blasts mean, like in fibroblast?

A

blasts means to secrete
fibroblasts secrete fibers

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70
Q

Collagen

A
  • high tensile strength
  • prevents tissue from tearing
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71
Q

Elastin

A
  • provides elasticity
72
Q

Adipose tissue

A
  • larger fibroblasts called adipocytes
  • large vacuoles full of lipids
  • few fibers
  • fat tissue
73
Q

Dense connective tissue

A
  • few small fibroblasts
  • little ground substance
  • lots of collagen
  • poorly vascularized
  • 2 types
74
Q

What are the 2 types of dense connective tissue?

A
  • regular dense tissue
  • irregular dense tissue
75
Q

Regular Dense Tissue

A
  • collagen fibers are parallel
  • ligaments, tendons
  • have to be strong
  • similar to cables
76
Q

What do ligaments do?

A
  • connect bones across joints
77
Q

What do tendons do?

A
  • connects muscles to bones
78
Q

Irregular dense tissue

A
  • mesh of collagen fibers
  • flexible but strong
  • kidneys and dermis
79
Q

Cartilage

A
  • skeletal material used for flexible, structural support
  • poorly vascularized
  • composed of chondrocytes in a peptidoglycan matrix
80
Q

Peptidoglycan matrix

A
  • proteins and sugars
  • collagen
  • gel like
81
Q

What are the cells of cartilage called?

A
  • chondrocytes
82
Q

Bones

A
  • rigid skeletal material
  • well vascularized
  • composed of osteocytes in a calcium/phosphate matrix
  • 2 types
83
Q

How are bones arranged?

A
  • in osteons
  • tubular arrangements of osteocytes around a central canal
84
Q

Calcium phosphate matric

A
  • arranged in crystals
  • not permeable
85
Q

Central Canal

A
  • contains blood vessels
86
Q

Canaliculi

A
  • channels that connect osteocytes to central canal
  • allows for blow flow
87
Q

Why can bones heal relatively quickly?

A
  • because they have a good source of blood, energy, and nutrients
88
Q

What are the 2 types of bones?

A
  • cortical bone
  • cancellous bone
89
Q

Cortical bone

A
  • where bone gets its strength
90
Q

Cancellous bone

A
  • stores marrow and provides horizontal support
91
Q

What does bone marrow do?

A

produces blood cells

92
Q

Bone growth: Length

A
  • epiphyseal plate divides to produce osteocytes on shaft side
93
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A
  • layer of cartilage present during growth period that vanishes after puberty
  • used for growth in length
94
Q

Bone growth: girth

A
  • osteoblasts and osteoclasts
95
Q

Osteoblasts

A
  • adds new bone to outside
96
Q

Osteoclasts

A
  • removes old bone from the inside
97
Q

Stimulants and Inhibitors of Osteoblasts

A

Stimulants:
- stress/pressure on bones
- hormones (testosterone, estrogen)
- calcitonin
Inhibitors:
- parathyroid hormone
- age (40-45)

98
Q

Calcitonin

A
  • secreted in response to high Ca2+ levels in blood
99
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A
  • secreted in response to low Ca2+ levels in blood
100
Q

Stimulants and Inhibitors of Osteoblasts

A

Inhibitors:
- stress/pressure on bones
- hormones (testosterone, estrogen)
- calcitonin
Stimulants:
- parathyroid hormone
- age (40-45)

101
Q

What is bone strength a function of?

A
  • function of thickness of cortical bone
  • function of rates of osteoblasts and osteoclasts
102
Q

Menopause vs bone growth

A
  • menopause is a decline in estrogen
  • women are more prone to weak bones at old age due to lack of estrogen
103
Q

What can we control with bone growth and decline?

A
  • our peak bone strength
  • physical activity before and after peak
  • our diet
104
Q

Vascular Tissue

105
Q

Nervous Tissue

A
  • detects stimuli
  • composed of neurons
106
Q

What are the 3 types of neurons?

A
  • sensory neurons
  • interneurons
  • motor neurons
107
Q

Sensory neurons

A
  • detects stimuli and signals central nervous system
108
Q

Interneurons

A
  • processes stimuli and triggers a response
109
Q

Motor neuron

A
  • sends signal to effector
110
Q

What are the 3 transmembrane proteins in nervous tissue?

A
  • potassium leak channel
  • Na/K atpase
  • Voltage gated sodium channel (VGNC)
111
Q

K leak channel

A
  • “always” open
  • regulates resting potential
  • allows potassium to flow across the membrane
112
Q

Na/K atpase

A
  • always working
  • pumps 3 Na+ out of cell and 2 K+ into cell
113
Q

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel (VGNC)

A
  • when open, allows Na+ to cross membrane (in or out)
  • when closed, membrane is at rest
114
Q

Polarized membrane

A

a positive and negative charge on opposite sides of membrane

115
Q

What are the two forces acting on potassium?

A
  • diffusion (outward)
  • electrical force (inward)
116
Q

Resting Potential

A
  • neuron at rest has a voltage gradient of -70 mv
117
Q

What are the three VGNC configurations?

A
  • closed
  • open
  • inactive
118
Q

VGNC configuration: Closed

A
  • when voltage gradient is < -40 mv
119
Q

VGNC configuration: open

A
  • brief configuration that occurs if voltage gradient is > -40 mv
  • Na+ moves into cell
120
Q

VGNC configuration: inactive

A
  • brief configuration that occurs after the VGNC has been opened
  • Na+ cannot cross and channel cannot be reopened
  • refractory period
121
Q

What is the VGNC mv threshold?

122
Q

Action potential

A
  • pulse of depolarization moving down a polarized membrane
123
Q

Intensity of signal

A
  • function of amount of action potentials send down a neuron
124
Q

What are the 7 types of protein receptors?

A
  • chemoreceptors
  • mechanoreceptors
  • photoreceptors
  • proprioreceptors
  • thermoreceptors
  • electroreceptors
  • magnoreceptors
125
Q

Chemoreceptors

A
  • detect chemicals
  • responsible for taste and smell
126
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A
  • respond to pressure change
  • responsible for touch and hearing
127
Q

Photoreceptors

A
  • responsible for vision
  • detect certain lights
128
Q

Proprioreceptors

A
  • detect orientation of body
129
Q

Thermoreceptors

A
  • respond to change in temperature
130
Q

Electroreceptors

A
  • detect electrical current
131
Q

Magnoreceptors

A
  • detect magnetic fields
132
Q

Two events that can start an action potential

A
  1. sensory event
  2. synapse
133
Q

Sensory Event

A
  • sensory neurons contain protein receptors on their dendrites that respond to specific stimuli by changing shape and allowing Na+ to cross the membrane
134
Q

Synapse

A
  • AP is passed from pre-synaptic neuron to post-synaptic neuron
135
Q

Axon termination of presynaptic neuron/communication between neurons/synaptic event

A
  1. AP reaches the axon termination of presynaptic neuron
  2. causes VGCCs to open and Ca2+ flows into cell
  3. causes exocytosis of neurotransmitter
  4. neurotransmitters bind to receptor proteins on post-synaptic neuron
  5. neurotransmitter receptor proteins change shape and creates a channel for Na+ to flow into cell and depolarizes the membrane (starts an AP)
  6. Acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from receptors and allows the post-synaptic neuron to re-polarize
136
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

137
Q

What is muscle tissue?

A

Contractile tissue

138
Q

Skeletal Muscle

A
  • composed of large, multinucleate, striated cells that are voluntary
  • the more nuclei, the more proteins you can make in a short period of time
139
Q

Smooth Muscles

A
  • smaller, thinner, non-striated, uninucleate cells that are involuntary
140
Q

Cardiac Muscle

A
  • short, uninucleate, branched, striated cells
  • connected through intercalated discs
141
Q

Intercalated discs

A
  • connects cardiac muscle
  • composed of anchor and gap junction
142
Q

What are the functions of anchor junctions in cardiac muscles?

A
  • allows muscles to contract without tearing apart
143
Q

What are the two types of skeletal muscle?

A
  • slow twitch
  • fast twitch
144
Q

Slow Twitch

A
  • well vasculated
  • many mitochondria
  • myoglobin
  • stamina
  • less contractile protein
  • smaller
145
Q

Fast Twitch

A
  • less vascularized
  • few mitochondria
  • no myoglobin
  • strength
  • more contractile protein
  • larger
146
Q

What are the three important components of a skeletal muscle fiber?

A
  1. sarcolemma
  2. sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. myofibrils
147
Q

Sarcolemma

A
  • membrane
  • polarized at rest
  • can produce action potentials
  • contains k leak channels, na/k atpase, and VGNCs
148
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A
  • folded membrane bound bag that stores Ca2+
  • membrane is polarized at rest
  • contains Ca2+ atpase and VGCCs
  • pumps Ca2+ into SR
  • can conduct action potentials
  • connected to the sarcolemma through transverse tubules
149
Q

Myofibrils

A
  • bundles of contractile proteins that run the length of the cell
  • arranged into sarcomeres
150
Q

Sarcomere

A

contractile unit of myofibrils

151
Q

Z line

A

Protein structure that connects two adjacent sarcomeres

152
Q

What makes up the actin myofilament?

A
  • actin
  • tropomyosin
  • troponin
153
Q

What makes up a myofibril?

A

myosin myofilaments and actin myofilaments

154
Q

At rest, why can’t actin and the myosin head bind?

A
  • tropomyosin is in the way because troponin is holding it in place
  • muscle cannot contract
155
Q

Simple Reflex Arc

A
  1. sensory event partially depolarizes area around a VGNC, creating an action potential
  2. the action potential moves down the polarized membrane, partially depolarizing other VGNCs along the way, while previous VGNCs become inactive and/or closed
    this synaptic event occurs for sensory neuron to interneuron and interneuron to motor neuron (3-7):
  3. action potential reaches the axon termination of interneuron neuron and causes VGCCs to open
  4. Ca2+ flows into cell and causes exocytosis of neurotransmitters (acetylcholine)
  5. neurotransmitters (acetylcholine) bind to neurotransmitter receptor proteins on post-synaptic neuron
  6. receptor proteins change shape and creates a channel for Na+ to flow into cell, which depolarizes the membrane and starts an AP
  7. acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from receptors and allows the post-synaptic neuron to re-polarize
  8. AP reaches axon termination of motor neuron and is sent to the muscle by a synaptic event through a neuromuscular junction. it spreads over the sarcolemma through transverse tubules over the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane, VGCCs open, and calcium flows out to cytoplasm
  9. calcium binds to troponin
  10. troponin changes shape and pulls tropomyosin from the MH binding site
  11. myosin head binds to actin (forms cross bridge)
  12. power-stroke occurs (MH changes from obtuse to acute, pulls z lines closer together, causes sarcomere to short, and muscle contracts)
  13. ATP binds to MH and breaks cross bridge
  14. ATP is hydrolyzed
  15. energy from the hydrolization of ATP is used to return MH heads to “rest” position (obtuse angle)
  16. if calcium is still present in cytoplasm, another contraction cycle occurs.
156
Q

Porifera

A
  1. Asymmetrical
  2. Cellular
  3. No gut
  4. Acoelomate
  5. No segmentation
157
Q

Cnidaria

A
  1. Radial symmetry
  2. Tissue
  3. Incomplete gut
  4. Acoelomate
  5. No segmentation
158
Q

Platyhelminthes (tapeworms/flatworms)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Incomplete gut
  4. Acoelomate
  5. Not segmented
159
Q

Nematoda (roundworms)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Psueocoelom
  5. No segmentation
160
Q

Annelida (earthworms, segmented worms)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Coelomate
  5. Segmented
161
Q

Mollusca (snails, octopus)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Coelomate
  5. No segmentation
162
Q

Arthropoda (insects, crustaceans)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Coelomate
  5. Segmented
163
Q

Echinodermata (starfish)

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Coelomate
  5. No segmentation
164
Q

Chordata

A
  1. Bilateral symmetry
  2. Organ
  3. Complete gut
  4. Coelomate
  5. Segmented
165
Q

What is the contraction cycle?

A
  1. once the action potential reaches the muscle (the effector) it spreads over the sarcolemma through transverse tubules over the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane, VGCCs open, and calcium flows out to cytoplasm
  2. calcium binds to troponin
  3. troponin changes shape and pulls tropomyosin from the MH binding site
  4. myosin head binds to actin (forms cross bridge)
  5. power-stroke occurs (MH changes from obtuse to acute, pulls z lines closer together, causes sarcomere to short, and muscle contracts)
  6. ATP binds to MH and breaks cross bridge
  7. ATP is hydrolyzed
  8. energy from the hydrolization of ATP is used to return MH heads to “rest” position (obtuse angle)
166
Q

Neuro muscular junction

A

synaptic connection between the axon termination of a motor nerve and a muscle

167
Q

Affect of an AP moving across a muscle?

A
  • rapid influx of calcium into cytoplasm
168
Q

Do actin and myosin have a low or high affinity?

169
Q

Myosin, troponin, actin, and tropomyosin are all ___?

170
Q

What keeps calcium present in cytoplasm/VGCCs on SR open?

A
  • constant APs sent down a neuron
  • takes continuous APs to contract a muscle
171
Q

Why is MH at a “rest” position?

A
  • it takes energy to go from acute to obtuse, so obtuse position has more energy
172
Q

What is a contraction?

A

movement of MH going from a high energy state to a low energy state, then using ATP to move from low energy state to high energy state

173
Q

What is the purpose of troponin binding to Ca2+?

A
  • to move tropomyosin off the MH binding site
174
Q

What happens if you run out of ATP?

A

if due to extreme exercise:
- cross bridge can’t break, so muscle cant relax = CRAMPING
if due to death:
- calcium gradually leaks out of SR membrane and triggers one incomplete contraction cycle
- body stiffens
= rigor mortis

175
Q

Myoglobin

A

Protein that stores oxygen in slow twitch muscles