Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hygiene Theory IV > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What does CHG stand for?

A

Chlorhexidine Gulconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is CHG?

A

Chlorhexidine Gluconate is a bis-biguranide which are cationic, broad-spectrum antimicrobials effective for both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is CHG used?

A

Predominantly used in prescription oral rinses, irrigation solutions, and controlled-realase products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should CHG be prescribed?

A

To facillitate healing 4-6 weeks after perio surgery and in the DH clinic to aid in plaque reduction and gingivitis (gingival bleeding) with DD3 and DD4 clients. (Reeval visits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does CHG work?

A

Attaches to salivary proteins and prevents pellicle formation. Attaches to the bacterial cell wall and distrupts its ability to colonize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the dosage of CHG?

A

20mL dosage for 60 seconds twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the disadvantages of CHG?

A

Brown staining
Increased calculus deposition
May cause allergic reaction
30 minutes between CHG and brushing to avoid interacion with the detergent (sodium lauryl sulfate) which deactivates the CHG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the contraindications for CHG?

A

Do not use for long periods of time
Anterior restorations
Allergies or hypersensitivites to chlorhexidine gluoconate, chlorhexidine compounds or other ingredients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What schedule category does chlorhexidine fall under?

A

Schedule 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an example of a phenolic compound?

A

Listerine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the main reason that the level of reduction in plaque and gingivitis seen with chlorhexidine is greater than that noted for phenolic mouth rinses?

A

Superior substantivity of chlorhexidine - its binding lasts longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why did the authors exclude patients with systemic disease from the study?

A

To eliminate potential confounding factors that could interefere with the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the evidence that proves professionally applied oral irrigation has limited clinic value?

A

Not retained in adequate concentrations for sufficient duration to have significant effects on periodontal disease
Some active ingredients such as chlorhexidine gluconate are deactivated by blood and proteins
Gingival crevicular fluid is replaced about every 90 seconds reducing the concentration of an antimicrobial agent that reaches the subgingival organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should antimicrobials be used in the treatment of periodontal diseases?

A

To supplement mechanical debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between local and systemic delivery methods?

A

Local - the antimicrobial agent is applied directly to the oral cavity or to a specific location within it
Systemic - ingested by the patient and delivered via the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What agent kills or prevents propagation of plaque microorganisms?

A

Antiseptic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What agent inhibits or kills specific or groups of bacteria, or modulates host inflammatory response?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What agent alters structure and/or metabolic activity of bacteria?

A

Modifying agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What agent interferes with the ability of bacteria to attach to acquired pellicles?

A

Anti-adhesives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the goal of professionally applied products?

A

Aimed at reducing pathogenic bacteria in diseased sites that have resisted healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some pros of professionally applied products?

A

Controlled-release drug delivery
Does not require patient compliance
Non-invasive
Able to reach the base of the periodontal pockets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some cons of professionally applied products?

A

Active ingredients may not be retained in adequate concentrations for sufficient periods of time or may become deactivated by blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main ingredient of Antridox?

A

Doxycycline hyclate 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is Antridox delivered?

A

Gel polymer that flows to the pocket base and solidifies on contact with gingival crevicular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the length of Antridox’s bacterial suppression?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the pros of Antridox?

A

Controlled release for 7 days
Reaches gingival crevicular fluid concentrations of over 1500mg/mL within hours
Absorbable by the body so does not require professional removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the indications for Antridox?

A

Periodontal disease with deep pockets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the contraindications for Antridox?

A

Sensitivity/allergy to any drug in the tetracycline family
Pregnant women
Breast-feeding women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Periochip?

A

Chlorhexidine chip with 2.5mg of chlorhexidine d-gluconate that is inserted into a 5 mm or greater periodontal pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the active ingredient in a Periochip?

A

Chlorhexidine d-gluconate 2.5mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the length of Periochip’s bacterial suppression?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the pros of Periochip?

A

Suppression of subgingival bacterial flora is evident for up to 11 weeks
Self-retentive
Self-resorbs requiring no professional removal
Safe for pregnant women
No potential to develop bacterial resistance
Treatment can be repeated after 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Delivery method of Periochip?

A

Place chip subgingivally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the contraindication for a Periochip?

A

Allergyy to chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the main ingredient of Arestin?

A

Minocycline hydrochloride 1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is Arestin delivered?

A

As microsphere in a dry powder via a syrgine like handle with narrow tip to be inserted subgingivally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the length of Arestin’s bacterial suppression?

A

20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the pros of Arestin?

A

It well exceeds MIC levels within hours and remains effective for over 20 days
Resorbs and doesn’t require professional removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the contraindications of Arestin?

A

Sensitivity or allergy to minocyclin or tetracyclines
Breat feeding women
Pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

WHen would you use Atridox, Periochip and Arestin?

A

Isolated pockets
Before systemic antibiotics are applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is periowave?

A

A painless, non-invasive photo-disinfection procedure that can significantly improve treatment outcomes when combined with scaling and root planing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is periowave applied?

A

A cold low-power diode laser as the activating light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the main goal of periowave?

A

Pathogen eradication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Are antiseptics and antimicrobials the same?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CHG rinses reduce plaque by how much?

A

16-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CHG rinses reduce gingivitis by how much?

A

27-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is term referring to the prolonged adherence of an antiseptic to the oral mucosa/tooth and slow release of the effective dose?

A

Substantivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are antimicrobial and anti-gingvitis agents that reduce plaque accumulation and inflammation?

A

Phenolic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are components of plants that contain phenolic compounds that destroy microorganisms?

A

Essentil oils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False: professionally applied subgingival irrigation with various antrimicrobials has limited clinical value.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What size is a Periochip?

A

4 x 5 mm and 0.35 mm thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Chemotherapeutics for self-applied delivery systems are typically used more often

A

at home with lower concentrations of active ingredients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dental lasers are classified according to

A

Wavelength
Delivery system
Emission modes
Tissues absorption
Clinical applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do the lasers work?

A

Energy absorption will cause the target tissue to react in four ways: warm up, cogualte, vaporize or melt and recrystallize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or False: there has been very little research conducted with other adjunctive periodontal laser therapies so there is a low level of certainty regarding their use.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the primary objectives of periodontal surgery?

A
  1. Reduction in pocket depths
  2. Gain access for calculus and bioflim removal
  3. Regenerate periodontal tissue
  4. Arrest disease progression
  5. Create maintainable oral environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is clinical success measured for periodontal surgery?

A

Attainment of stable or improved clinical attachment levels, minimal inflammation and BOP, and reduced and stable probing depths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the indications for peridontal surgery?

A
  1. Pocket elimination/reduction
  2. Correction of mucogingival defects
  3. Improve aesthetics
  4. Creating favourable restoration environment (crown lengthening)
  5. Placement of dental implants
  6. Icision and drainage of a gingival or periodontal abscess
  7. Regeneration of destroyed attachment apparatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the contraindications for periodontal surgery?

A
  1. Systemic diseases that cannot be controlled by medications
  2. Systemic diseases that are associated with excessive bleeding
  3. Client taking blood thinners
  4. Clients taking inravenous or oral bisphosphonates
  5. Clients who are noncompliant with plaque control
  6. Concern for cosmetic outcome
  7. Treating teeth that have a hopless prognosis
  8. High risk for dental caries, sme surgeries expose root surface (relative contraindication)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When should a re-eval be completed?

A

4-6 weeks after initial NSPT is completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

After initial NSPT is completed, what should be done fo active periodontitis?

A

Refer to periodontist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the role of the dental hygienist pre-op periosurgery?

A

Removal or hard and soft deposits
Reinforcement of oral hygiene self care
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of surgical treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the role of the dental hygienist post op perio surgery?

A

Periodontal dressing removal
Post surgical biofilm removal
Follow-up wound care and home care istructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How do you know if the client has peri-implantitis or mucositis?

A

Peri-implant mucositis has damage to the soft tissue only while peri-implantitis has damage to the soft tissue and surrounding bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the characteristics of peri-implant mucositis?

A

Reversible
Plaque related
BOP
Erythema
Inflammation
Suppuration
Can lead to perio-implantitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The clinical manifestations of retrograde peri-implantitis are

A

Pain
Inflammation
Fistula formation
Swelling
Possible implant mobility

67
Q

What surgical procedure is done to remove/excise gingival tissue including gingiva that may be attached to the tooth to treat gingival disease or created better esthetics?

A

Gingivectomy

68
Q

What surgical procedure is done to reshape the surface gingiva without removal of any gingiva attached to the tooth typically to improve appearance back to its natural form?

A

Gingivoplasty

69
Q

What are the indications for gingivectomy and gingivoplasty?

A

Eliminate gingival/suprabony pocket with horizontal bone loss
Eliminate gingival elargements, medication induced gingival overgrowth, gingival hyperplasia, pseudopockets
Improve esthetics
Better access for self care
Increase length of teeth in preparation for cosmetic procedures

70
Q

What are the contraindications for gingivectomy and gingivoplasty?

A

Slower healing
Long in the tooth appearance
No access to underlying bone
Removal of keratinized tissue

71
Q

Why do gingivectomies have a reduced role today?

A

Tissues can grow back, slower wound healing, increased post op discomfort and bleeding, failure to conserve keratinized tissue to maintain esthetics

72
Q

What are gingivectomies primarily used for today?

A

Correct deformaties caused by periodontitis

73
Q

How long does gingivectomy and gingivoplasty take to heal?

A

4-5 weeks but looks healed in 2 weeks

74
Q

What surgery is a procedure where an incision is made in the gingiva, alveolar mucosa, or periostium to allow for separation from underlying root and alveolar bone?

A

Periodontal flap surgery

75
Q

What is the most common periodontal surgical procedure?

A

Periodontal flap surgery

76
Q

What are the indications for perio flap surgery?

A
  1. To gain access to the tooth root and alveolar bone to complete debridement, correct irregular bony contours, treatment deep pockets.
  2. Required as a first step to other perio surgeries (root resection, crown lengthening)
77
Q

What are the three periodontal flap incision techqniues?

A
  1. Internal bevel (1mm from GM)
  2. Sulcular/crevicular - through base of pocket
  3. Interdental - removed collar of the bone
78
Q

What type of technique is B?

A

Sulcular/crevicular

79
Q

What type of technique is C?

A

Interdental

80
Q

What type of technique is A?

A

Interdental bevel

81
Q

How are flaps classified?

A

Based on tissue components included in the flap and the positioning of the flap at the end of the procedure

82
Q

Which type of flap gives complete access to the underlying bone?

A

Full thickness flap

83
Q

When is a full thickness flap indicated?

A

For open flap debridement or flap currettage

84
Q

Is there a change to pockets with a full thickness flap?

A

Only if the flap is apically placed

85
Q

Which type of flap involves the elevation of the epithelium and thin layer of the underlying connective tissue?

A

Partial thickness flap

86
Q

What are the indications for a partial thickness flap?

A

Pocket reduction
Guided tissue regeneration - implant placement

87
Q

What is an apically positioned flap used for?

A

Elininating moderate to deep pockets, lengthening the crown for restorative/esthetic procedures or increasing the zone of attached gingiva

88
Q

What is a coronally positioned flapp used for?

A

To attempt to cover the surigcal site, often used when a bone graft is placed

89
Q

What is a modified wipman flap also known as?

A

Flap for Access

90
Q

When is a modified widman flap used?

A

For better visualization of the area to gain access to root surfaces for improved periodontal debridement and reduction in inflammation and pocket depths

91
Q

Is a modified widman flap displaced or non-displaced?

A

Non-displaced

92
Q

What is the indication for a modified widman flap?

A

Better adaptation of connective tissue to root

93
Q

How does healing from flap surgery occur?

A

By formation of a long junctional epithelium

94
Q

What is a periodontal pack?

A

A post op surgical dressing

95
Q

How long is periodontal pack left on for?

A

1 week

96
Q

What are the peridontal pack’s purposes?

A

To protect the surgical site
To maintain tissue placement
To prevent post op bleeding
To minimize discomfort

97
Q

What are the types of healing seen with periodontal flap surgery?

A

Formation of long junctional epithelium
Inflammation resolved
Regeneration

98
Q

What involves root debridement and the removal of the diseased lining of the soft tissue pocket wall, including the JE and the underlying CT?

A

Subgingival curettage

99
Q

True or False: The benefits of soft tissue curettage are helpful and as a separate procedure offers justifiable application during active therapy for chronic periodontitis.

A

False. The benefits of soft tissue curettage are questionable and as a separate procedure has no justifiable appliction during active therapy for chronic periodontitis.

100
Q

What type of bone loss is equal on both side of adjacent teeth?

A

Horizontal

101
Q

What type of pocket has the base coronal to the alveolar crest?

A

Suprabony

102
Q

What type of bone loss is more on one side of a tooth?

A

Vertical

103
Q

What type of pocket that has the base of the defect apical to the crest of the alveolar bone?

A

Infrabony

104
Q

How can the type of infrabony defect be determined?

A

By surgical entry only

105
Q

What is the objective of osseous resective surgery?

A

To correct alveolar bone irregularities caused b periodontal disease. Also to reshape bone to have the contours of healthy bone, optimal physiologic contours.

106
Q

What is the goal of osseous resective surgery?

A

To eliminate infrabony and peridontal pockets.

107
Q

What are the indications for osseous resective surgery?

A

Mild-moderate periodontitis

108
Q

What are the contraindications for osseous resective surgery?

A

Clients with severe bone loss, esthetics, furcations, location of pertinent anatomic structures

109
Q

What procedure involves the removal of tooth-supporting bone?

A

Ostectomy

110
Q

What procedure involves reshaping the surface of bone contours without removing tooth-supporting bone?

A

Osteoplasty

111
Q

What is the goal of ostectomies?

A

Eliminate the periodonal pocket and form a more natural bone contour

112
Q

What is the drawback of ostectomies?

A

Results in loss of attachment/small amounts of alveolar bone

113
Q

True or False: Most resective surgeries use a combination of osetecomy and osteoplasty?

A

True

114
Q

What procedure is performed to expose more tooth structure for the purpose of properly restoring a tooth?

A

Crown lengthening

115
Q

What are the indications for crown lengthening surgery?

A

A tooth that is fractured close to the gingival margin and/or alveolar crest
Subgingival caries
Esthetic reasons

116
Q

What is biological width?

A

The soft tissue attachment from the base of the sulcus to the crest of alveolar bone

117
Q

True or False: biologic width is necessary for periodontal health.

A

True

118
Q

What is the removal of a root while leaving the crown on a multirooted tooth?

A

Root resection or amputation

119
Q

What is the surgical sectional and removal of one root?

A

Hemisection

120
Q

Where is root resection usually done?

A

Mandibular molars

121
Q

What is the sectioning, separation of the mandibular molar in half, creating two separate teeth?

A

Bicuspidization

122
Q

True or False: endo treatment must be done before root resection.

A

True

123
Q

Is long-term survival/prognosis of root resected teeth predictable?

A

No

124
Q

What surgery is a surgical procedure that corrects/eliminates deformities in the gingival or alveolar bone and improves esthetics?

A

Periodontal plastic surgery

125
Q

What older term is used to describe procedures that correct defects in the morphology, position and/or amount of gingiva?

A

Mucogingival surgeries

126
Q

What are examples of mucogingival surgeries?

A

Frenectomy
Crown lengthening
Autograft CT
Free soft tissue graft

127
Q

What are the indications for mucogingival surgery?

A

Sites with inadequate width and thickness of attached gingiva that exhibit persistent inflammation (bleeding)
Sites that show progressive gingival recession
Sites of inadequate attached gingiva with subgingival restoration or ortho
Elimination of frenum and muscle pull at or near the gingival margin of a tooth
Base of periodontal pocket extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction
To deepen the buccal vestibule (for dentures or resto)
Esthetic reasons
Modification of edentulous ridges prior to prosthetic reconstruction

128
Q

What is the apical position of the free gingival margin onto the root surface?

A

Gingival recession

129
Q

What are the classes of gingival recession?

A

Class I - do not extend to the mucogingival line and no loss of interdental bone. Complete coverage can be achieved.

Class II - extends to or beyond the mucogingival line and there is no loss of interdental bone. Complete root coverage can be achieved.

Class III - extends to or beyond the mucogingival line with bone or soft tissue loss in the interdental area. Partial root coverge can be achieved

Class IV - extends to or beyond the mucogingival line with severe bone or soft tissue loss in the interdenal area. No root coverage can be expected

130
Q

What is used to move gingiva from an adjaceent tooth or edentulous area with adequate amounts of gingiva to a prepared site with inadequate amounts of gingiva?

A

Pedicle graft/Lateral displaced flap

131
Q

What is a double pappila flap?

A

Large bilateral interdental papilla are used as donor tissue in a v-shaped incision from either side of the tooth with recession and laterall positioned

132
Q

What is a free gingival soft tissue graft?

A

Donor site is usually the palate, and placed to cover exposed root from recession

133
Q

FGG’s most common site is the palate, but what other area can also be used?

A

Edentulous areas

134
Q

What procedure is the procedure of choice for root coverage of single or multiple teeth?

A

Subeithelial connective tissue graft

135
Q

During a subepithelial connective tissue graft, connective tissue is harvested from the palate while leaving

A

The epitheliu on the outside of the flap

136
Q

What tissues are involved in regeneration?

A

Gingival epithelium
Gingival connective tissue
Periodontal ligament
Supporting alveolar bone
Cementum

137
Q

What is the fastest growing tissue in cell regeneration?

A

Epithelium

138
Q

For regeneration, cells capable of forming new cementum, PDL and supporting bone must

A

Migrate into the peridontal osseous defect and produce these tissues

139
Q

What cells are involved with regeneration?

A

Osteoblasts
Fibroblasts
Cementoblasts

140
Q

True or False: regeneration slows the apical migration of the JE and prevents the gingival connective tissue cells making contact with the root surface.

A

True

141
Q

What type of graft is transferred from one location to another in the same person?

A

Autogenous graft

142
Q

What type of graft is transferred between genetically dissimilar members of the same species?

A

Allogenic graft

143
Q

What type of graft is taken from a donor of another species?

A

Xenogenic graft

144
Q

What type of graft is an inorganic, synthetic, biocampatible bone graft substitute?

A

Alloplastic materials

145
Q

What are specific factors obtained from the patient?

A

Growth factors

146
Q

What are the classes of bone graft?

A

Osteogenesis
Osteoinduction
Osteoconduction

147
Q

What is considered the gold standard of bone grafts?

A

Autgenous bone (bone from the host)

148
Q

What are bone grafts and bone graft substitutes which induce the transformation of immature stem cells into bone producing osteroblasts?

A

Osteoinductive agents

149
Q

What is an example of an osetoinductive agent?

A

Demineralized free-dried bone from cadavers

150
Q

What type of bone graft acts as a scaffold to allow bone cells from the surrounding bone in the defect to lay down new bone but does not produce its own bone?

A

Osetoconductive material

151
Q

What type of bone graft is harvested from one part of the body and grafted to another in the same person?

A

Autografts

152
Q

What type of graft is bone material obtained from other individuals of the same species but genetically different?

A

Allografts

153
Q

What type of bone graft is made of biocompatible, inorganic, inert materials including syntehtic hydroxyapetite, calcium sulfate, bioactive glass, tricalcium phosphate and collagen?

A

Alloplasts

154
Q

What type of graft is made of a naural bone substitute derived from a genetically different species?

A

Xenograft

155
Q

What class of bone graft are autografts?

A

Osteogenic

156
Q

What class of bone graft are allografts?

A

Osteoinductive

157
Q

What class of bone graft are alloplasts?

A

Osteoconductive

158
Q

What class of bone grafts are xenografts?

A

Osteroinductive

159
Q

What does a membrane do in guided tissue regeneration?

A

Blocks unwanted tissue, allowing ligament fibres and bone to grow

160
Q

What is an example of a barrier membrane that is a biomaterial processed from human tissue and is placed into the defect, after complete debridement of defect and root surface?

A

Alloderm

161
Q

What are absorbable sutures made from?

A

Material that is designed to dissolve harmlessly in the body fluids over time

162
Q

What are non-absorbable sutures made from?

A

Material that does not dissolve in body fluids (silk)

163
Q

What are the postoperate care considerations of periodontal surgery?

A

Discomfort
Swelling
Bleeding
Physical activity
Eating
Sutures
Periodontal dressing
Smoking
Homecare

164
Q

What is done at the 7-10 post op appointment following periodontal surgery?

A

Area is cleaned with chlorhexidine
Dressing is removed
Sutures are removed
Cleanse the area again
Supragingival sacling to remove plaque/debris

Hygiene Theory IV (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions