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Hygiene Theory IV > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are topical anaesthetics applied?

A

To the mucous membranes to anaesthetize the terminal nerve endings

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2
Q

Why must topical be placed on dry tissue for maximum effectiveness?

A

Wetness causes runoff and/or dilutes the product

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3
Q

Why is the concentration of anaesthetic in topical high?

A

Concentration is higher for topical because it has to diffuse through the tissues

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4
Q

Sprays that deliver a constant stream of topical can be dangerous because

A

They amount cannot be controlled and it may go beyond the area intended

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5
Q

What are the generic names of the ester topicals?

A

Benzocaine
Cetacaine

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6
Q

What are the generic names of amide topicals?

A

Lidocaine ointment
Lidocaine patch

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7
Q

What is Oraqix?

A

A needle-free subgingival anaesthetic (amide) topical liquid that turns to gel at body temperature and is made of 2.5% lidocaine and prilocaine

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8
Q

Indications for topical anaesthetics

A

Probing
Periodontal dressing removal
Suture removal
Rubber dam
Scaling/root planing
Prior to injections

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9
Q

What are the contraindications for topical anaesthetics?

A

Open sores/lesions
Potential for toxicity
History of allergies or sensitivities

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10
Q

Is Benzocaine 20% an ester or amide?

A

Ester

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11
Q

What supplies are needed for topical placement?

A

Cotton tip applicator
Gauze
Topical anaesthetic
Basic exam kit

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12
Q

How long to leave topical on tissue?

A

1-2 minutes

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13
Q

What is a drug that prevents the generation and conduction of nerve impulses?

A

Local anaesthetic

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14
Q

True or False: local anaesthetics are vasodilators

A

True

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15
Q

What does a vasodilator do?

A

Dilates the blood vessels

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16
Q

Mechanism of action of local anaesthetics

A

Reducing nerve membrane permeability to sodium ions because sodium ions remain on the outside of the nerve cell an action potential never occurs. Impulse that arrives at blocked nerve segment is unable to be transmitted to the brain

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17
Q

What types of LA are used in dentistry?

A

Esters and amides

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18
Q

Why are amides more commonly used in dentistry?

A

Less likely to have an allergic reaction to amides

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19
Q

What are the indications for LA use?

A

Scaling and root planing
Deep pocket debridement
Tooth/root sensitivity
Furcations
Surgery
RCT/restorative work

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20
Q

What is the absolute contraindication for LA?

A

Client allergy - LA allergy, sulpha drug allergy, bisulfites allergy

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21
Q

What is a relative contraindication?

A

Only use after weighing the risk/benefits, or there’s no other choice

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22
Q

What are the relative contraindications for LA use?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Asthma
Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
Under active thyroid
Pregnancy
Liver dysfunction
Kidney disease

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23
Q

What should be done in regards to LA for clients with diabetes?

A

Limit epi as it opposes the effect of insulin

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24
Q

Does LA generally have few interactions with other prescribed drugs?

A

Yes

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25
Q

How much LA should be administered?

A

Smallest dose that is clinically effective

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26
Q

How are the effects of LA as a vasodilator countered?

A

By the addition of vasoconstrictors (epi)

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27
Q

What does the addition of vasoconstrictors do for LA?

A

Decreases blood flow to the area by constricting the blood vessels
Provides haemostats is
Increases duration of LAs effects
Reduces risk of toxicity

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28
Q

What are the adverse effects of LA?

A

Needle breakage
Hematoma (swelling, bruising)
Transient facial nerve paralysis
Parathesis (prolonged anaesthia)
Trimus (muscle spam causing lock-jaw)
Edema (accumulation of fluid beneath the skin)
Tissue sloughing
Red, burning, pain

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29
Q

What causes needle breakage?

A

Poor technique or client movement

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30
Q

What causes hematoma post LA injection?

A

Puncturing of a blood vessel due to over-insertion

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31
Q

What causes transient facial nerve paralysis post LA injection?

A

Local into the parotid gland

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32
Q

What causes trismus post LA injection?

A

Irritation to the nerve sheath after injection due to repeated injections, too large a dose, or contaminated solution

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33
Q

What causes edema post LA injection?

A

Trauma during injection, infection, or contaminated LA or needle

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34
Q

What causes tissue sloughing when using anaesthetic?

A

Prolonged use of topical

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35
Q

What causes pain during LA injection?

A

Careless technique, dull need, rapid deposit of LA

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36
Q

What causes burning pain during injection?

A

Contaminated LA, heated cartridges, expired LA, rapid deposit of LA

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37
Q

What causes systemic complications of LA?

A

High plasma concentrations of LA drugs

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38
Q

What is a local anaesthetic overdose?

A

High blood levels of a drug in various organs and tissues

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39
Q

What may result in a local overdose?

A

Predisposing client factors and drug factors

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40
Q

What are some of the causes of LA overdose?

A

Injection into a blood vessel
Too much LA injected
Injected too quickly
Slow metabolism of the LA

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41
Q

How to prevent LA overdose?

A

Aspiration
Minimal doses
Use of vasoconstrictors
Review of health status

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42
Q

Signs and symptoms of mild LA overdose

A

Disorientation
Nervousness
Flushed skin colour
Apprehension
Twitching, tremors, shivering
Dizziness
Visual/auditory disturbances
Headache
Tinnitus

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43
Q

How to manage a mild LA overdose?

A

Terminate procedure
Reassure client
Place client in comfortable position
Administer oxygen
Provide CPR if necessary
Monitor vitals
Summon EMS if needed
Allow patient to recover before discharge

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44
Q

Signs of severe LA overdose

A

Muscle twitching
Convulsions

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45
Q

How to manage LA overdose?

A

Terminate procedure
Supine position, legs elevated
Call 911
Provide CPR if needed
Administer oxygen
Monitor vitals
Administer an anticonvulsant
Transport patient to hospital after stabilized

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46
Q

When is an epi dose more likely?

A

If they have a CVS condition or disease

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47
Q

What are the symptoms of an epi overdose?

A

Tension
Anxiety
Apprehension
Nervousness
Tremors
Increased heart rate
Increased blood pressure
Throbbing headache
Hyperventilation

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48
Q

What are the predisposing factors to LA overdose?

A

Age - organs may not be fully developed in younger people or diminished in older people
Body weight
Genetics
Disease
Gender
Pregnancy

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49
Q

What are the drugs predisposing factors to an LA overdose?

A

Potent or weak vasodilator
Drug dose
Route of administration
Rate of injection
Vascularity of injection site
Presence of other vasoconstrictors
Other medications

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50
Q

A comprehensive health assessment will prevent about ___% of potentially life threatening emergencies

A

90%

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51
Q

The most common overdose reaction of LA with epi is due to

A

Too large a dose given

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52
Q

The onset of symptoms is gradual but _______ is more common with amides.

A

May be severe

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53
Q

What is the most intense reaction to LA with epi from?

A

A rapid intravascular injection

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54
Q

What reduces the systemic toxicity by slowing its absorption of the LA into the CVS?

A

Vasoconstrictors

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55
Q

How long does the adverse effects of an epi overdose usually last?

A

5-10 minutes

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56
Q

What are the local signs of an allergic reaction to LA?

A

Erythema
Urticaria
Puritis
Angioedema

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57
Q

What are the systemic signs of an allergic reaction to LA?

A

Bronchospasm
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Tachycardia
Laryngeal edema

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58
Q

What is a similar drug to Oraqix but not used for dentistry?

A

Emla - used for epidural

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59
Q

What happens with Oraqix the longer it is left on?

A

The deeper the penetration

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60
Q

What does eutectic mean?

A

Melts or solidifies at a certain temperature

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61
Q

What are the active ingredients in Oraqix?

A

Lidocaine 2.5%
Prilocaine 2.5%

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62
Q

Does Oraqix anaesthetize the pulp as well?

A

No

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63
Q

What to check for prior to assembling Oraqix?

A

If bubble moves back and forth if it doesn’t, but it in cool water or fridge

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64
Q

What is in an Oraqix cartridge?

A

Lido/prilo
Poloxamers 188 and 407
HCl for pH adjustment
Purified water
pH 7.5-8

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65
Q

How to apply Oraqix?

A

Apply by tracing it along the margin and waiting 30 seconds

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66
Q

How long does the anaesthetic from Oraqix last?

A

Approximately 20 minutes

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67
Q

What is maximum application of Oraqix?

A

5 cartridges per person

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68
Q

How quickly does Oraqix begin working once applied?

A

30 seconds

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69
Q

How to choose the right LA for your client?

A

Consider the vasoactivity
Pain control based on length of procedure
Need for post treatment pain control
Client’s health assessment
Allergies
Hemostasis

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70
Q

Why would presence of an infection and the vascularity of an area decrease the duration of LA?

A

pH changes in the area

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71
Q

What are the amide local anaesthetics?

A

Arcticane
Bupivacaine
Lidocaine
Mepivacaine
Prilocaine

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72
Q

How much solution in an LA cartridge?

A

1.8mL

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73
Q

What is the duration of lidocaine 2%?

A

180-300 minutes

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74
Q

Where is lidocaine 2% metabolized?

A

In the liver

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75
Q

What LA to choose when antioxidants are contraindicated or CVS conditions?

A

Mepivacaine 3%

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76
Q

Where is prilocaine metabolized?

A

In the lungs and some in the liver

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77
Q

Where is articaine 4% metabolized?

A

90-95% in the plasma
10% in the lungs

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78
Q

What LA would you use for client with liver disease?

A

Articaine

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79
Q

What LA has the highest risk of toxicity?

A

Bupivicaine 0.5%

80
Q

When are all LA drugs potentially life threatening?

A

If administered intravascularly, particularly if injected rapidly

81
Q

Effects of LA action depends on

A

Variation of anatomic structure
Type of injection
Too far from bone
Vascularity of tissue
Injection technique
Accuracy of anaesthetic administration

82
Q

For the diameter of the lumen needle gauge, the higher the number

A

The smaller the diameter

83
Q

What are the most recommended needle gauges for LA?

A

25 or 27

84
Q

What do you want the pH to be to improve the onset of LA?

A

6-7

85
Q

What can cause issues in LA for asthmatics?

A

Sulfites added as preservatives

86
Q

What do you need to check your LA cartridge for?

A

Cloudy
Discoloured
Sediments
Rusted metal hub
Expired
Leaky

87
Q

What is in the LA carpule?

A

LA
Epi
Preservative
Sodium hydroxide
Sodium chloride

88
Q

Where is LA deposited in a local infiltration?

A

Close to the smaller terminal nerve endings

89
Q

Where is LA deposited in the supraperiosteal injection?

A

Near the large terminal nerve branches above the apex of the tooth

90
Q

Where is a nerve block LA injection deposited?

A

Close to main nerve trunk often some distance from the treatment area

91
Q

Where is the posterior superior alveolar nerve block injected and what teeth does it affect?

A

Into the tuberosity of the posterior superior alveolar nerve to numb the maxillary 1st to 3rd molars.

92
Q

Where is the middle superior alveolar nerve injection done and what teeth does it affect?

A

Above the maxillary 2nd premolar and numbs the premolars and the MB root of the 1st molar.

93
Q

Where is the anterior superior alveolar nerve injection done and what teeth does it affect?

A

Above the canine and numbs the maxillary canine to central.

94
Q

Where is the nasopalatine injection done and what does it numb?

A

At the incisive papilla and numbs the maxillary lingual tissues not the teeth

95
Q

Where is the greater palatine injection done and what does it numb?

A

Into the area of the greater palatine foramen and numbs the maxillary lingual tissues not the teeth

96
Q

Where is an infraorbital nerve injection done and what does it numb?

A

At the infraorbital foramen and numbs the maxillary central to the mesial root of the first molar

97
Q

Where is the middle superior alveolar nerve injection done and what does it numb?

A

Above the maxillary 2nd premolar and numbs the premolars and MB root of the 1st molar.

98
Q

Where is a supraperiosteal injection done and what does it numb?

A

At the apex of the selected tooth and numbs individual teeth

99
Q

Why would a supraperiosteal injection be done over a posterior superior alveolar nerve block?

A

It is safer

100
Q

Where is an inferior alveolar nerve block done and what does it numb?

A

Just above the mandibular foramen and numbs the entire mandibular quadrant

101
Q

Where is a buccal block injection done and what does it numb?

A

In the mucobuccal fold distal and at the height of the occlusal plane of the most posterior molar and it numbs the buccal gingival tissues of the mandibular molars

102
Q

Where is a mental incisive injection done and what does it numb?

A

At the mucobuccal fold just anterior to the mental foramen and numbs facial gingival tissue anterior to the mental foramen

103
Q

When is the PSA injection recommended?

A

For pulpal anaesthesia of the molar teeth

104
Q

When is an MSA injection recommended?

A

For pulpal anaesthesia of premolar teeth

105
Q

When is an ASA injection recommended?

A

For pulpal anaesthesia of the anterior teeth

106
Q

When is the IO injection recommended?

A

For pulpal anaesthesia of the anterior and premolars in one quadrant

107
Q

When is the GP injection recommended?

A

For lingual soft tissue anaesthesia distal from the canine

108
Q

When is the NP injection recommended?

A

For lingual soft tissue anaesthesia from canine to canine

109
Q

What needs to be recorded in the ROC for topical?

A

Product
% of active ingredient
Location
Flavour

110
Q

What needs to be recorded in the ROC for local?

A

Product
% of active ingredient
Ratio of epi or none
Injection(s) location(s)
Number of carpules
Client reaction
Name of the DDS

111
Q

What are the two types of ultrasonic?

A

Magnetostrictive
Piezoelectric

112
Q

When was the ultrasonic scaling device introduced?

A

1950s

113
Q

The ultrasonic is a power-driven device converting high frequency electrical energy into

A

Mechanical energy in the form of rapid vibrations

114
Q

What are the benefits of ultrasonic instrumentation?

A

Rapid calculus removal and less hand fatigue for the clinician

115
Q

True or False: ultrasonic instrumentation is recommended for both supraperiosteal and subgingival treatment

A

True

116
Q

What are the parts of the magnetostrictive ultrasonic scalers?

A

Insert
Handpiece
Base unit
Foot switch

117
Q

What are the parts of the piezoelectric ultrasonic scaler?

A

Tip
Handpiece
Base Unit
Foot switch

118
Q

What is the primary action of ultrasonic instrumentation?

A

Mechanical action

119
Q

What are the other actions of ultrasonic instrumentation?

A

Irrigation
Cavitation (formation and collapse of bubbles)
Acoustic microstreaming

120
Q

How is the conversion of electrical current into high-frequency mechanical vibrations attained in an ultrasonic scaler?

A

By a transducer that is either magnestotrictive or piezoelectric

121
Q

What does the term ultrasonic describe?

A

A non-audible range of acoustic vibrations that are a unit of frequency referred to in cycles per second or hertz.

122
Q

How do the ultrasonic scalers work?

A

Foot pedal activated
Electric current sent through the generator into the handpiece
The transducer converts the electrical energy to mechanical causing the tip to vibrate
The mechanical action of the working end removes calculus, oral biofilm and root constituents that are contacted directly with the tip

123
Q

What is the number of times the tip of the insert moves back and forth in a second?

A

Frequency

124
Q

What is a manual unit?

A

If the clinician can control the frequency, it is considered a manual unit

125
Q

Where would a manual unit be beneficial?

A

With deposit removal a lower setting could be used for light deposits and a higher setting for more tenacious deposits

126
Q

Most units are auto-tuned with a preset frequency that automatically tunes the

A

Cycles per second to a maximum efficiency for each insert

127
Q

What is the energy in the handpiece that creates movement of the working end?

A

Power

128
Q

What does changing the power change?

A

The distance the working end move and/or the length of the stroke

129
Q

What is the different between frequency and power?

A

Frequency is how many times the unit tip moves in a second while power is how large the working length stroke of the unit tip are

130
Q

What refers to the distance the tip travels in a single vibration?

A

Tip displacement

131
Q

Why does an ultrasonic use water flow?

A

Cools the transducer and tip of the insert
Controls bleeding
Increases visibility
Provides lovage
Removes root surface constituents
Irrigates sulci and pockets
Water spray is critical to prevent root surface damage

132
Q

What power and water setting is best for ultrasonic use?

A

Low to medium

133
Q

What are the disadvantages to ultrasonic use?

A

Client may not like water spray
Aerosol production
Tinnitus
Less tactile sensation than curettes
Continuous suction needed for water removal

134
Q

Can you use the ultrasonic detect calculus?

A

No

135
Q

What is a sonic instrumentation?

A

Driven by compressed air in a frequency from 2500 kHz to 8000 kHz. Has slower vibrations

136
Q

What type of movement does sonic instrumentation move in?

A

Elliptical motion

137
Q

What sides are active for sonic scalers?

A

All sides

138
Q

What sides are active for ultrasonic magnetostrictive scalers?

A

All sides

139
Q

What sides are active for ultrasonic piezoelectric scalers?

A

Lateral sides

140
Q

How does the sonic scaler move?

A

Elliptical motion

141
Q

How does the ultrasonic magnetostrictive scaler move?

A

Elliptical motion

142
Q

How does the ultrasonic piezoelectric scaler move?

A

Linear motion

143
Q

How many CPS does the sonic scaler do?

A

2,500 - 7,000 CPS

144
Q

How many CPS does the magnetostrictive scaler do?

A

18,000 - 45,000 CPS

145
Q

How many CPS does the piezoelectric scaler do?

A

25,000 - 50,000 CPS

146
Q

Are Hertz and CPS the same thing?

A

Yes

147
Q

What is the core of the magnetostrictive scaler units?

A

A stack of metal strips of a ferrite rod

148
Q

What type of strokes to use when using the magnetostrictive scalers?

A

Keep in motion, overlapping, multidirectional strokes with not a lot of pressure

149
Q

What does K refer to?

A

The kHz

150
Q

What does kHz refer to?

A

The CPS

151
Q

How should water come out of units with an internal flow system?

A

As a fine mist at the end of the tip

152
Q

What is an external flow unit?

A

A tube that is connected to the tip of the ultrasonic scaler to allow the flow of water

153
Q

What does the transducer of a piezo consist of?

A

Ceramic crystals

154
Q

Is water necessary to cool the piezo transducer?

A

No as less heat is generated but it is still required to cool the friction produced between the working end and the tooth

155
Q

How to choose an insert for the ultrasonic?

A

Consider tip and handle design
Compatibility with frequency of kHz of unit
Method of fluid delivery

156
Q

The stack of 30 kHz inserts are ______ than the 25 kHz

A

Shorter

157
Q

What generates the greatest amount of energy in a magnetostrictive insert?

A

The point

158
Q

How much of the tip is active in an ultrasonic unit?

A

4mm

159
Q

When using the ultrasonic scaler you use work from the ______ in an _____ direction

A

CEJ
Apical

160
Q

Why may square points be detrimental?

A

May cause damage to root surface

161
Q

What angulation should you be on with the cavitron tip?

A

0 - 15 degrees

162
Q

What are diamond coated piezo tips for?

A

Furcations
Overhangs
Tenacious calculus

163
Q

What are universal cavitron inserts for?

A

Supra or initial debridement of moderate or heavy calculus

164
Q

What are cavitron precision thin inserts used for?

A

Light deposit debridement
Deplaquing

165
Q

What are cavitron furcation inserts for?

A

Debridement of furcations

166
Q

What are cavitron implant inserts for?

A

Biofilm and calculus removal around titanium implants and abutments

167
Q

What power to use implant inserts on?

A

Low

168
Q

What are left and right cavitron inserts good for?

A

Root surface convexities

169
Q

What type of action is vibration of the tip, tip action that provides power is dependent on the stroke, frequency, type of tip motion and angulation of the motion against the tooth.

A

Mechanical action

170
Q

What type of action is created by the formation and collapse of bubbles in the water by high-frequency sound waves surrounding an ultrasonic tip, results in lavage to remove biofilm and loosen debris?

A

Cavitation

171
Q

What type of action is the agitation of fluids surround the instrument tip that any destroy or disrupt bacteria?

A

Acoustic microstreaming

172
Q

Cavitation and microstreaming can remove biofilm up to ____ mm from the point of conact

A

0.5mm

173
Q

What is a pacemaker contraindication of an ultrasonic scaler?

A

Unshielded pacemakers make be disrupted, consult with cardiologist. Newer, shielded pacemakers are not affected

174
Q

What are contraindications for ultrasonic scalers?

A

Unshielded pacemaker
Communicable disease
Demineralizations
Sensitivity
Veneers
Crowns
Titanium implants
Children
Immunosuppressed
Chronic pulmonary disease
Cardiovascular disease with secondary pulmonary disease
Dysphagia (swallowing difficulty)
Cystic fibrosis

175
Q

Why are cavitrons not used for children?

A

They have larger pulp and can be damaged from the cavitron use

176
Q

What should clients be advised about with cavitron use?

A

Water spray
Sensitivity, power can be adjusted if necessary
POI for extensive perio clients

177
Q

What to record in the ROC for cavitron use?

A

Location of use
Client reaction
POI

178
Q

What needs to be worn/used when using the cavitron?

A

N95
Shield
Gown
HVE

179
Q

When to replace a cavitron tip?

A

Wear of 2mm

180
Q

Where is air polishing used?

A

Supragingival only

181
Q

What is the most common air polishing powder?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

182
Q

What does air polishing remove?

A

Stain and biofilm

183
Q

How does air polishing work?

A

It uses a handpiece that delivers a spray of warm water and prophy powder under pressure

184
Q

What the indications for prophy jet?

A

Supragingival extrinsic stain
Biofilm
Plaque biofilm

185
Q

What is subgingival air polishing?

A

A relatively new technique that uses a combination of glycine-based power with water and compressed air which is safe for subgingival use

186
Q

Do clinicians require special training in the proper use for a subgingival air polishing device?

A

Yes

187
Q

What are the advantages of prophy jet?

A

Less time needed than rubber cup polishing
Removes stain three times as fast as hand scaling
Creates less operator fatigue
Golden standard in prepping teeth for PFS
Can render cementum surfaces uniformly smooth
Virtually 100% of endotoxins and bacteria can be removed
Microscopic outer layer of enamel is kept in tact
Less discomfort during procedure for client

188
Q

What are the contraindications for supra prophy jet?

A

Sodium reduced diet
Respiratory problems
Immunocompromised
Pregnant or breastfeeding
Chemo/radiation
Communicable infection
Allergy to powder
Medications affecting the body’s acid-base balance
Restorations
Implants
Cementum
Dentin
Periodontal pocket

189
Q

What are the contraindications for subgingival prophy jet?

A

Respiratory problems
Immunocompromised
Chemo/radiation
Communicable infection
Allergy to powder

190
Q

What type of stroke should be used with prophy jet?

A

A constant circular pattern over the tooth surface

191
Q

The prophy jet nozzle should be held ___ mm away from the tooth surface

A

3 - 5 mm

192
Q

Prophy jet powder is directed ___ from the gingiva

A

Away

193
Q

What angle should the prophy jet nozzle be held on?

A

30-60 degrees facial
80 degrees poster teeth
90 degrees occlusal

194
Q

Air polish teeth for no more than ____ to ___

A

Half to one full second

195
Q

How often to change mask when using prophy jet?

A

Every 20 minutes

196
Q
A

Hygiene Theory IV (2 decks)

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