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Community Health > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

List 5 activities linked with prevention/protection that CHNs do

A
  1. Surveillance
  2. Epidemiological data
  3. Informed decision-making through education
  4. Identify risks within the population
  5. Population level actions (screening, immunizations, and CD control)
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2
Q

Define primordial prevention and provide an example

A

Prevention of risk factors for disease from existing - attempts to destruct the social and structural inequities that exist

Removal of access to tobacco products and environmental tobacco smoke from public venues

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3
Q

Define primary prevention and give an example

A

Reduces the impact of specific risk factors, thereby reducing the incidence of disease and can be directed at total populations, selected groups, or even healthy individuals

Protection of health by personal and communal efforts, such as enhancing nutritional status, immunizing against communicable diseases, smoking cessation, and reducing environmental risks - awareness campaigns, education, immunizations, and universal precautions

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4
Q

Define secondary prevention and provide an example

A

Reduces the prevalence of disease by shortening its duration, and are directed at high-risk individuals not yet accessing health care, or at patients already receiving care

Screening programs for early detection and prompt intervention to control disease and minimize disability - such as mammograms, PAP tests, and metabolic screens

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5
Q

Define tertiary prevention and provide an example

A

Reduces the impact of long-term disease and disability by eliminating or reducing impairment, minimizing suffering, and maximizing potential years of useful life

Rehabilitation expertise aimed at people with advanced disease - medication education, oral rehydration therapy

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6
Q

Define quaternary prevention and provide an example

A

Identifies people at risk of medical mishaps (i.e., over-medicalization), protects from new medical treatments that are untested, and suggests interventions that are ethically acceptable

Quality assurance in health care programs that ensure patient safety and best practices

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7
Q

What are the 4 stages of natural history of disease? What levels of prevention allocate to which stage?

A
  1. Pre-exposure stage (primary)
  2. Preclinical stage (secondary)
  3. Clinical stage (tertiary)
  4. Resolution stage (tertiary)
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8
Q

Define the pre-exposure stage and what level of prevention falls into this stage

A

Factors present leading to potential problem development

Primary prevention

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9
Q

Define the pre-clinical stage and what level of prevention falls into this stage

A

Exposure to causative agent - no symptoms present

Secondary prevention

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10
Q

Define the clinical stage and what level of prevention falls into this stage

A

Symptoms present

Tertiary prevention

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11
Q

Define the resolution stage and what level of prevention falls into this stage

A

Problem resolved - returned to health or chronic state or death

Tertiary pervention

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12
Q

Describe the three stages of the iceberg concept of disease and what level of prevention relates to each

A

Tip of the iceberg - clinical phase of disease (symptomatic disease), tertiary prevention

Middle of iceberg - preclinical phase of disease (no symptoms, but pathogenesis may be occurring), secondary prevention

Deepest part of iceberg - the population (includes those at risk for disease), primary prevention

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13
Q

Define upstream approaches

A

interventions and strategies focus on improving fundamental social and economic structures in order to decrease barriers and improve supports that allow people to achieve their full health potential

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14
Q

Define downstream approaches

A

interventions and strategies focus on providing equitable access to care and services to mitigate the negative impacts ofdisadvantageon health

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15
Q

Define epidemiology

A

The study of the distribution (or patterns) of health events in populations and the determinants or factors that influence those patterns

the distribution and determinants of morbidity and mortality in human populations

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16
Q

Define descriptive epidemiology

A

Discusses a disease in terms of person, place, and time

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17
Q

Define analytical epidemiology

A

Linking possible risk factors to disease

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18
Q

What are the 4 principles of epidemiology?

A
  1. Health phenomena
  2. Population
  3. Distribution
  4. Determinants
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19
Q

What are the three parts of the epidemiological triangle?

A
  1. Agent
  2. Host
  3. Environment
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20
Q

Describe the agent of the epi triangle

A

An animate or inanimate factor that must be present for a disease to develop

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21
Q

Describe the host of the epi triangle

A

A living, susceptible species capable of being infected/affected by an agent - may be symptomatic or simply be a carrier (i.e., mosquito for malaria)

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22
Q

Describe the environment of the epi triangle

A

Favourable internal/external surroundings that allow the disease to be transmitted

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23
Q

What is the key goal of the CHN with the epi triangle?

A

Key goal of public health/community health nurses is to intervene and interrupt the triangle and reduce its effects on the health of individuals

i.e., changing the environment (sanitizing) or improving host health through vaccines

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24
Q

What are the three final clinical endpoints of disease?

A
  1. Death (mortality)
  2. Disability (morbidity)
  3. Recovery (or remission)
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25
Q

Define mortality and morbidity rate

A

Mortality Rate: The occurrence of deaths in a population in a given time

Morbidity Rate: The occurrence of disease or health challenges in a population in a given time

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26
Q

Define incidence and prevalence rate

A

Incidence - The number of new cases over a specific time period

Prevalence - The number of existing cases at one point in time

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27
Q

What is one limitation of clinical endpoints of disease?

A

Limited in ability to tell us the distribution of diseases

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28
Q

How does incidence inform resource and staffing allocation?

A

New cases of disease/illness can help inform resource needs and staffing requirements to combat the effects of a disease

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29
Q

Why do we need to know incidence?

A

Incidence - Gives us information on the transition from healthy to disease; estimates risk of developing disease within a population; useful for evaluating how effective an intervention or program is

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30
Q

Why do we need to know prevalence?

A

Tells us how much of the population is affected by a disease

Estimates extent of the disease within a population

Useful for allocating resources

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31
Q

Describe the sink example for incidence and prevalence

A

The tap - Incidence or relapse; new drops of water entering the sink

The sink/bowl - prevalence of the disease

Drain - mortality or remission

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32
Q

Define communicable disease

A

Illnesses caused by specific infectious agents, or its toxic products that arise through transmission of that agent, or its products from an infected person, animal, or inanimate source to a susceptible host, either directly or indirectly through an intermediate plant or animal host, vector, or the inanimate environment.

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33
Q

Define an endemic and provide an example

A

Constant presence of a disease in a particular population or geographical area

Pertussis in the USA, Malaria is endemic to specific countries in Africa

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34
Q

Define an epidemic and provide an example

A

Occurrence of a greater number of cases of a disease, an injury, or other condition than expected in a particular group

One case of polio in Canada; syphilis increasing in Alberta/Canada

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35
Q

Define a pandemic and provide an example

A

An epidemic occurring in a geographically widespread area or in a large population

HIV/AIDS

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36
Q

Define emerging infectious diseases & provide an example

A

Those where the incidence has increased in the past two decades or has the potential to increase in the near future

May include new or known infectious disease

i.e., COVID-19 and monkeypox

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37
Q

Define vaccine-preventable diseases

A

Those which are prevented and controlled by vaccines

Vaccines are one of the most effective ways to prevent and control communicable diseases

i.e., polio

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38
Q

Define non-vaccine preventable diseases

A

Diseases that cannot be prevented

Malaria, salmonella

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39
Q

Define infectious diseases & provide examples

A

Caused by a microorganism and is potentially infinitely transferable to new individuals (virus, bacterium, parasite, or fungus)

May or may not be communicable

i.e., STIs, HIV, rabies, e.coli

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40
Q

What are five types of infectious diseases and provide examples of each

A
  1. Hepatitis (A,B,C,D,E,G)
  2. Waterborne and foodborne diseases (salmonella, e.coli)
  3. Vector-borne diseases (Lyme disease, West Nile virus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
  4. Diseases of travellers (malaria, TB, ebola, cholera)
  5. Zoonoses (rabies, hantavirus)
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41
Q

What does communicable disease control?

A

Provides rapid, coordinated, and effective responses to disease outbreaks or threatening situations.

Requires active participation and cooperation of health care professionals and the public.

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42
Q

What are 4 examples of primary prevention in CDC

A
  1. Assessment for risk behaviors
  2. Promoting and implementing immunization programs
  3. Health promotion & education
  4. Evaluation of risk behaviors
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43
Q

What are 4 examples of secondary prevention in CDC

A
  1. Screening for diseases
  2. Early diagnosis, identification, and treatment
  3. Investigation / Contact tracing
  4. Advocacy for accessible dialogistic and treatment services for socially disadvantaged groups
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44
Q

What are 4 examples of tertiary prevention in CDC

A
  1. Monitoring of treatment compliance
  2. Monitoring effectiveness of treatment
  3. Surveillance
  4. Follow-up
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45
Q

Define the process of surveillance

A

The systematic and ongoing observation and collection of data on disease occurrence to describe phenomena and detect changes in frequency or distribution

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46
Q

What is the CHNs role in surveillance?

A

play an important role in collecting data, making diagnoses, investigating and reporting cases and providing information to the public

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47
Q

Define active surveillance

A

The collection of data utilizing screening tools, interviews, and sentinel systems to identify diseases occurrence in the community when individuals present with suggestive symptoms

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48
Q

Define passive surveillance

A

occurs when a healthcare provider must notify the local health authority to report an identified case of a reportable disease

it is passive since a case typically is presented to the healthcare provider and one is not actively going out looking for sick individuals

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49
Q

Define sentinel surveillance

A

form of passive and active surveillance in which selected clinicians gather data and pass them on to those responsible for the surveillance.

Use of sentinel sites has become the preferred approach for human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS) surveillance for certain countries where national population-based surveillance for HIV infection is not feasible.

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50
Q

What is the preferred type of surveillance for HIV/AIDS?

A

Sentinel surveillance

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51
Q

Who does CDC surveillance in Canada?

A

Public health agency of Canada

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52
Q

What three things must the CHN know to determine what constitutes contact?

A

CHN must know the mode of transmission, incubation period, and infectious period of a particular disease in order to determine what constitutes a contact

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53
Q

What are the three leading causes of death in Canada?

A

Heart disease, cancer, and diabetes

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54
Q

What type of intervention does injury prevention require?

A

Primary prevention

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55
Q

What is the first line of defence of the immune system?

A

The integumentary system

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56
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes?

A

B and T cells

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57
Q

Define B cells

A

Develop in the bone marrow and produce antibodies (IgA, IgD, IgE)

Each B cell has one specific antigen receptor

58
Q

What happens once a B cell is triggered?

A

Once triggered, they divide and turn into plasma providing an immune/antibody response

59
Q

What is opsonization?

A

When antibodies kill the antigen

When particles, microorganisms, or immune complexes become coated w/ molecules that allow them to bind to receptors on phagocytes, thereby enhancing their uptake

60
Q

What would IgG and IgM test for?

A

IgG - would be tested to see if the person has previous immunity due to a vaccine

IgM - would be tested if you currently are infected with something

61
Q

Define T cells

A

develop in the thymus gland and help B cells produce antibodies, recognize and destroy cells that have become infected with pathogens, activate phagocytes to destroy the pathogens they “ate,” and regulate the level and quality of the immune response.

62
Q

Define natural killer cells and provide another name for them

A

are also lymphocytes that originate from bone marrow stem cells. They do not require activation like B cells and T cells. They’re always ready to fight!!

they immediately kill bacteria once they come into contact

Cytotoxic cells

63
Q

What type of cell does NOT require activation?

A

Natural killer/cytotoxic cells

64
Q

Describe/list the B cell division cycle

A

Virus - Antigens - B-cell (Native) - B cell activation from antigen - turns into lymphoblast - turns back into B cell - divides into memory B cell and plasma cells - leads to antibodies

65
Q

Describe the cytotoxic T cell activation cycle

A

Immature cytotoxic cell divides into activated cells and memory T cells - creates a lethal hit on target cells - target cells die

66
Q

Describe the helper T cell activation cycle

A

Antigen binds to helper T cell - cells divides effector cells and memory T cells - divides into neutrophils, macrophages, killer T cells, and B cells

67
Q

What types of immunity do neutrophils and macrophages provide?

A

Nonspecific defence

68
Q

What types of immunity do killer T cells provide?

A

cellular immunity

69
Q

What types of immunity do B cells provide?

A

humoral immunity

70
Q

Define phagocytes

A

Types of white blood cells that develop from bone marrow stem cells

Present all over the body, the phagocytes engulf/destroy foreign antigens

Process and present antigens to lymphocytes

71
Q

What are the 3 types of phagocytes and where are they present?

A
  1. Monocytes (circulate in the blood)
  2. Macrophages (present in tissues)
  3. Neutrophils (Normally circulate in blood)
72
Q

Define accessory cells and list the 5 types

A

Develop in bone marrow and are released into the blood when needed to support the immune system through different processes.

Eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, platelets, and dendritic cells

73
Q

Define eosinophils

A

a type of granulocyte that help protect against some parasites by releasing crystalloid enzyme granules. Also contributes to allergic responses.

74
Q

Define basophils

A

a type of granulocyte that help mediate the inflammation process by releasing enzyme granules that help with inflammation and allergic responses.

75
Q

Define mast cells

A

Attached to blood vessel walls of most tissues and contain granule enzymes such as histamine and platelet-activating factor to help with inflammation and allergic responses

76
Q

Define platelets

A

Present in blood and act to seal up (i.e. clot) any broken blood vessels. They also help mediate inflammation.

77
Q

Define dendritic cells

A

Look like nerve cells and detect foreign antigens in tissues and present these antigens to T cells.

78
Q

List the 3 types of immunity

A

innate, adaptive, and herd

79
Q

Define innate immunity

A

Organs, tissues, and cells of the immune system that you are born with

80
Q

Define adaptive immunity and list its two types

A

Immunity that develops during your lifetime - active and passive

81
Q

Define adaptive immunity and its natural and artificial subtypes

A

Develops in response to an infection or vaccination

Natural - antibodies developed in response to an infection

Artificial - antibodies developed in response to vaccination

82
Q

Define passive immunity and its natural and artificial subtypes

A

Develops after you receive antibodies from someone or somewhere else

Natural - antibodies received from mother

Artificial - antibodies received from medicine (i.e., infusion or immune globulin)

83
Q

What 7 cells make up innate immunity?

A

macrophage
dendritic
neutrophil
natural killer cell
mast cell
basophil
eosinophil

84
Q

What two types of T cells exist?

A

CD4 and CD8

85
Q

What 6 types of cells make up adaptive immunity

A

B cell
T cell
antibodies
CD4
CD8

86
Q

Define humoral immunity and what cells it involves

A

The arm of the immune system that deals with antigens outside of cells (extracellular)

Involves B cells, T (helper) cells, and antibodies.

87
Q

Define cell-mediated immunity and what cells it involves

A

The arm of the immune system that deals with antigens inside cells (intracellular)

Involves T (helper) and T (cytotoxic) cells.

88
Q

Define hypersensitivity reactions

A

Hypersensitivity is an exaggerated immune response to an antigen.

Antigens can be harmless and don’t require an immune response, but the immune system reacts anyway.

Immune response is out of proportion to the virulence of the antigen.

89
Q

Define type I (immediate) hypersensitivity and an example

A

Develops within minutes of exposure to an antigen.

Involves mast cells and other components to produce acute inflammation.

Can be caused by inhaled or ingested allergens.

Develops after an initial exposure to an antigen, usually with mild reaction.

Immune system is now “primed” for future exposures to the antigen.

Anaphylaxis is a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction.

90
Q

Define type II (antibody-mediated) hypersensitivity and an example

A

Caused by antibodies that act on membranes and antigens on the surface of cells.

Membranes can be damaged due to the immune response.

Where the damage occurs depends on which antibodies are involved in the reaction.

Transfusion reactions are Type II Hypersensitivity reactions.

91
Q

Define type III (immune-complex-mediated) hypersensitivity and an example

A

Results from deposition of immune complexes (combinations of antigen, antibodies, and other immune system components) into blood vessels and tissues.

If there is severe deposition of immune complexes, disease can result which depends on the site of deposition.

Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by Type III Hypersensitivity reactions.

92
Q

Define type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity and an example

A

Reaches its peak more than 12 hours after the exposure to the antigen.

Cells responsible for the response are T cells rather than antibodies (as in Types I, II, and III).

Positive tuberculin skin test is a Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction

93
Q

A hypersensitivity reaction is considered anaphylaxis if _____ or more of the organ systems are involved

A

Two

94
Q

Define inactivated vaccines

A

Contain whole viruses, bacteria, or toxoids that have been treated so they cannot cause disease

Require booster doses as immunity drops off over time (not lifelong immunity)

Typically cause fewer side effects that occur within hours of immunization and are short-lived

Safe for anyone to receive

95
Q

Which type of vaccine requires boosters over time?

A

Inactivated

96
Q

List examples of inactivated vaccines

A

Hep A, Polio, Rabies, Japanese Encephalitis, Influenza, Typhoid (injectable)

97
Q

Define live attenuated vaccines

A

Contain whole live bacteria or viruses that have been treated or “attenuated” so they are weakened and cannot reproduce in the body

Mimic natural infection

They are, however, still “live” so they could cause disease in immunocompromised individuals; however, they cannot spread

Typically, one or two doses can produce life-long immunity, but not always (e.g. Typhoid requires boosters if still at risk)

Side effects are usually delayed (1-2 weeks after immunization) and if they occur, they can resemble the symptoms of the actual disease (e.g. Varicella vaccine can cause chickenpox-like spots).

98
Q

List examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles/Mumps/Rubella, Varicella (Chickenpox), Yellow Fever, Polio (Oral Polio Vaccine), Rotavirus, Influenza (Intranasal) BCG, Typhoid (oral)

99
Q

What types of vaccines could cause disease in immunocompromised individuals?

A

Live attenuated

100
Q

What four vaccines are injectable, three that are oral, and one that is intranasal

A

Injectable - MMR, Varicella, Yellow Fever, BCG,
Oral - Polio, Rotavirus, Typhoid
Intranasal - Influenza

101
Q

Define toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccines

A

Toxoid vaccines help prevent disease caused by toxins produced by bacteria

Target the toxin rather than the bacteria

Upon exposure to certain bacteria typically through open wounds contaminated with dirt, dust, or feces, the bacteria can produce toxins which cause symptoms and disease

A “tetanus-prone injury” would be a wound that was likely contaminated with a tetanus-containing substance

Route of administration is IM injection

Tetanus and Diphtheria are given together in a combination vaccine

102
Q

What is the typical route of admin for toxin subunit/conjugate/recombinant/polysaccharide vaccines?

A

IM

103
Q

Define subunit/conjugate/recombinant/polysaccharide vaccines

A

Contain a piece or subunit of the virus or bacteria, rather than the whole thing

The pieces are typically proteins or sugars (polysaccharide) that are presented on the outside of the pathogen that our immune systems recognize as foreign antigens

Sugars often need to be linked or “conjugated” to something else (often Tetanus or Diphtheria toxoid) in order to induce a strong immune response

Often require multiple primary series doses followed by boosters to maintain adequate immunity (not lifelong)

104
Q

Why are subunit/conjugate/recombinant vaccines referred to as acellular?

A

Can also be called “acellular” as they do not contain the whole virus or bacteria

105
Q

Provide examples of subunit/conjugate/recombinant/polysaccharide vaccines

A

Hep B, Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), Human papillomavirus (HPV), Pertussis, Pneumococcal, Meningococcal, Zoster (shingles)

106
Q

Define immune globulin vaccines

A

Contain pre-made antibodies from another source (most often pooled human plasma of screened donors)

Provide passive immunity

Are considered blood products

Provide immediate protection that is short in duration (around two weeks)

Typically used if exposed client is under or non-immunized

107
Q

Provide examples of immune globulins

A

Most commonly used by CHN/PHN include TIG, HBIG, VZIG, RIG (all human origin)

108
Q

What is the difference between immune globulins and other vaccines?

A

Immune globulin is only indicated for individuals who ARE NOT previously vaccinated and have come into contact with the virus/bacteria

109
Q

Define mRNA vaccines

A

mRNA that code for specific cellular components (e.g. COVID-19 viral spike protein) is isolated from pathogens and added to vaccine

This mRNA then enters host cells of the recipient which begin producing the specific cellular component

The immune system detects the foreign antigen and produces antibodies against it

110
Q

What occurs with mRNAs and spike proteins?

A

spike proteins mutate, making the strain of the vaccine less effective or won’t work against the mutated version

111
Q

List 5 barriers to vaccine access in Canada

A
  1. Vaccine administration is a restricted activity
  2. Rural and remote clients may experience difficulty accessing a provider
  3. Cost of some non-provincially funded vaccines can be prohibitive (e.g. travel vaccines)
  4. Proper storage and handling of vaccines can be expensive and complex (e.g. cold chain)
  5. Religious, cultural, or circle of friends may deter uptake of vaccines
112
Q

Define vaccine hesitancy

A

Vaccine hesitancy refers to a delay in acceptance or refusal of vaccination despite the availability of vaccination services

113
Q

Describe the three stages of the vaccine hesitancy continuum and the two strong end points of it

A

Accept all with confidence - accept all, but unsure - accept some & delay, refuse some - refuse all, but unsure - refuse all with conviction

114
Q

Describe the difference between risk associated with vaccines and risk perception

A

Risk association is very low from vaccines and discusses the severe outcomes and secondary infections that may arise form vaccines - most risk often associated is perpetuated by myths

Risk perception is the fear associated with vaccines and the artificial amplification of risk amplifies from misinformation

115
Q

How are most live vaccines administered?

A

Subcu

116
Q

What type of vaccine is highly recommended in pregnancy? why?

A

mRNA vaccines are recommended in breastfeeding and pregnancy, as the antibodies produced can be transferred to the baby

117
Q

What SDOH is the greatest barrier to immunization

A

Income

118
Q

What is the ASK approach?

A

An approach to discussion around vaccines

A - acknowledge concerns
S - steer the conversation by refuting myths
K - provide evidence-informed knowledge

119
Q

What is the primary way/action of addressing primordial prevention?

A

Through comprehensive health promotion tools and policy development

120
Q

Primary care and PHC systems are the main deliverer of ____ prevention strategies in the Canadian health system

A

Primary

121
Q

What three levels of prevention have effective strategies but are extremely cost and resource heavy?

A

Secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

122
Q

What level of prevention is the highest cost with the fewest impacted?

A

Quaternary

123
Q

Addressing the determinants of health through population health and proactive management are related to which level of prevention?

A

Primordial

124
Q

What 5 general actions guide the public health/community nursing practice?

A
  1. Focuses on entire populations and sub-populations that have similar health concerns or characteristics
  2. Guided by an assessment of population health status that is determined through a community health assessment process
  3. Considers the BROAD determinants of health
  4. Considers all levels of prevention, with a focus on primary prevention
  5. Considers all levels of practice by including a community focus, a system focus, and an individual/family focus
125
Q

Define community-focused practice

A

aimed at entire populations within a community or sometimes toward target groups within those populations

126
Q

Define system-focused practice

A

does not deal directly with individuals and community but with systems that have an impact on health such as policies, laws, organizations, and power structures

127
Q

Define individual/family focused practice

A

aimed at developing positive attitudes, beliefs, and behaviours in individual(s)

This practice level targets individuals alone or as part of a family, class, or group.

128
Q

What are the 6 areas that CHNs play a key role?

A
  1. Health promotion
  2. Disease and injury prevention
  3. Health protection
  4. Health surveillance
  5. Population health assessment
  6. Emergency preparedness and response
129
Q

What are the four actions of T cells?

A
  1. helping B cells make antibodies
  2. recognizing and destroying cells that have become infected with intracellular pathogens
  3. activating phagocytes to destroy pathogens that they have taken up
  4. regulating the level and quality of the immune response
130
Q

What type of vaccine are a blood product?

A

Immune globulins

131
Q

Monocytes circulate and migrate into tissues and differentiate into ____

A

Macrophages

132
Q

Which accessory cell constitutes the most amount of blood leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils

133
Q

What are the two key features of the adaptive immunity response?

A

Memory and specificity

134
Q

Is natural immunity improved by repeated encounters with an agent?

A

No

135
Q

Why is passive immunization required over an active immune response?

A

The individual’s immune response would be too slow or weak

i.e., in response to a snake venom or tetanus

136
Q

What is the difference between T-dependent and T-independent antigens?

A

T-independent antigens can stimulate B cells to produce antibodies without the help of T-cells

T-dependent needs both T cells and B cells recognition to elicit an antibody response

137
Q

Who are the most trusted sources for vaccine information, according to PHAC?

A

Doctors

138
Q

What three values are the predominant reasons for vaccine hesitancy, delay, or omission amongst parents?

A

Safety, efficacy, and effectiveness concerns

139
Q

What is the most common reason for parents to decide to have their child vaccinated, despite initial reluctance?

A

Advice from a doctor or health care professional

140
Q

What is the incubation period of rabies?

A

Can be as short as 5 days or as long as several years - usually 20-60 days

141
Q

What is the flu antigenic drift/shift and what type of flu virus does it affect?

A

Minor antigenic changes in type A result yearly and influence epidemics and regional outbreaks

Shift refers to new subtypes of the type A virus

142
Q

What does DOT intend to do for the population and individual in regard to TB?

A

Nurses watch the client daily to ensure they take their TB meds daily so the TB does not become antibiotic resistant programs are aimed at
the population level to prevent antibiotic resistance in
the community and to ensure effective treatment at the individual level.

Community Health (3 decks)

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